Test
P&P1 Revision Tri1 2018 Part 2
Preguntas del test (100)
1Which of the following is a systemic sign of infection?
- APain
- BErythema
- CSwelling
- DFatigue
2Which of the following does NOT directly determine the virulence of a microbe?
- AWhether its gram positive or negative
- BInvasive qualities
- CAbility to mutate
- DProduction of toxins
3The widespread necrosis of respiratory mucosa caused by an influenza infection often gives rise to:
- ASubclinical infections
- BPrimary infections
- CSecondary infections
- DTertiary infections
4Which of the following bodily fluids would you expect to be sterile?
- ABlood
- BVaginal discharge
- CFaeces
- DSputum
5That time during an infection when the infected person may experience a headache or fatigue and senses he or she is “coming down with something” is referred to as which of the following?
- ASubclinical
- BAcute
- CProdromal
- DIncubation
6Which of the following is a local sign of infection?
- AFever and leukocytosis
- BHeadache and anorexia
- CNausea, weight loss, and fatigue
- DPain, erythema, and swelling
7What are culture and sensitivity tests used for?
- ATo provide a specific medium that supports maximum microbial growth
- BTo provide living host cells for microbes requiring such for replication
- CTo identify the causative microbe and the effective antimicrobial agent for it
- DTo determine the type of microbe present in a specimen
8What does leukocytosis frequently indicate?
- APresence of viral infection
- BPresence of bacterial infection
- CBone marrow damage
- DImmunosuppression
9Secondary immune deficiencies occur because of:
- ALack of protein in the diet
- BLong term use of prednisone
- CStressful job
- DAll answers are correct
10A common symptom of individuals with immunodeficiency is:
- AAnaemia
- BRecurrent infections
- CLots of allergies
- DAuto antibody production
11Primary immune deficiencies occur because of:
- Abad nutrition
- Ba genetic defect
- Crecurrent infections
- Dchronic diseases affecting the immune system
12Immunodeficiencies may result in an increased risk of infections by normally harmless microorganisms. These infections are referred to as:
- Atransient
- Bpathogenic
- Copportunistic
- Dvirulent
13Which of the following is an effect of cytokines? They:
- Aincrease the rate of mitosis in tumors.
- Bcause immediate pain.
- Cactivate and stimulate proliferation of B and T lymphocytes.
- Ddestroy antigens quickly.
14An incompatible blood transfusion is an example of this type of hypersensitivity reaction:
- AType IV
- BType III
- CType II
- DType I
15Reaction to latex gloves (in most cases) is an example of what type of hypersensitivity reaction:
- AType IV
- BType III
- CType II
- DType I
16In this type of reaction, the antigen and antibody combine forming an immune complex which then can get deposited into tissue for example the kidneys.
- AType I
- BType II
- CType III
- DType IV
17A bee sting that causes a person to go into anaphylactic shock is an example of this type of hypersensitivity reaction:
- AType I
- BType II
- CType III
- DType IV
18The first line of defense which changes very little during our lifetime is called
- APassive immunity
- BActive immunity
- CAdaptive immune response
- DInnate immune response
19Humoral immunity is mediated by:
- AT lymphocytes (T cells).
- BB lymphocytes (B cells).
- Cnatural killer cells.
- Dneutrophils.
20Which white blood cells are responsible for adaptive immunity:
- AMonocytes
- BEosinophils
- CNeutrophils
- DLymphocytes
21A molecule that will stimulate the adaptive immune response:
- AAntigen
- BPathogen
- CImmunoglobulin
- DAntibody
22Neutrophils:
- Aproduce histamine.
- Bproduce antibodies.
- Care elevated during an allergic response.
- Dare phagocyte cells.
23The role of memory cells is to:
- Achange into an antibody-secreting cell following activation.
- Bimmediately secrete antibodies following the first exposure to antigen.
- Crecognize the antigen and stimulate the immune response.
- Dbind complement to the antibody.
24Humoral immunity is mediated by:
- ANatural killer cells
- BT cells
- CB cells
- DNeutrophils
25The most abundant, actively motile, phagocytic leukocyte is the:
- ANeutrophil
- BMonocyte
- CBasophil
- DMacrophage
26Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?
- AT-helper cells
- BMacrophages
- CEosinophils
- DMonocytes
27The immunoglobulin that is found in tears and saliva is:
- AIgB
- BIgA
- CIgM
- DIgG
28Exposure to peanuts where the person goes into anaphylactic shock is an example of this type of hypersensitivity reaction:
- AType III
- BType I
- CType II
- DType IV
29A common primary target for most immunosuppressant drugs is:
- AB cell activation
- BMacrophages
- CAll cytokines
- DT cell activation
30An autoimmune disease is:
- Aan abnormal response to ingested food and drugs
- Bfailure of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself
- Can extreme response to normally harmless material in the environment
- Dexcessive formation of antibodies following exposure to foreign material
31When an allergen binds with IgE antibodies on mast cells, resulting in release of chemical mediators, this reaction is called:
- ADelay hypersensitivity
- BCytotoxic hypersensitivity
- CImmune complex hypersensitivity
- DType 1 hypersensitivity
32Autoimmunity arises when a breakdown in 'self-
- ASpecificity
- BImmunity
- CMemory
- DTolerance
33A 22-year-old prostitute was recently diagnosed with HIV. A decrease in which of the following cell types would be expected to accompany this virus?
- ACD8 T cells
- BT memory cells
- CCD4 T cells
- DB cells
34Primary immune deficiencies occur because of:
- AA genetic defect
- BHIV
- CExcessive emotional stress
- DLack of vitamin C
35A 30-year-old male was diagnosed with HIV. Which of the following treatments would be effective?
- Aribavirin
- Breverse transcriptase inhibitors
- Ccell wall synthesis inhibitors
- Dinhibitors of metabolism
36Which type of immunity is provided by a vaccination?
- APassive natural
- BActive artificial
- CActive natural
- DPassive artificial
37Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?
- AHypoplasia of the thymus
- BImmunosuppresive agents
- CAtrophy of lymph nodes
- DDelayed hypersensitivity
38All of the following are factors that promote healing EXCEPT:
- AEffective circulation
- BAdvanced age
- CGood nutrition: protein, vitamins A & C
- DA clean, undisturbed wound
39A raised thickened scar that grows beyond the wound margin is
- AKeloid scar
- BEpithelialisation
- CUlcer
- DHypertrophic scar
40The purpose of inflammation include all the following except:
- AEliminate/neutralise injurious agent
- BTo remove body toxins
- CLocalise injury and prevent further damage
- DClean-up tissue for healing
41The first phagocytic cell(s) to enter a site of injury are:
- ANeutrophils
- BMacrophages
- CMonocytes
- DLymphocytes
42Systemic manifestations of inflammation include all EXCEPT:
- APyrexia
- BMalaise
- CRegional swelling
- DAnorexia
43Pathophysiology may be defined as the study of:
- ADisease patterns
- BDisease causes
- CHow disease develop and alter body function
- DA collection of signs and symptoms
44Glucocorticoids are produced by
- AThe hypothalamus
- BThe spleen
- CThe thymus glands
- DThe adrenal glands
45The mechanism of action of glucocorticoids include all of the following except:
- AInhibit of helper T cells
- BPrevent the synthesis of arachidonic acid
- CIncrease production of antibodies
- DInhibit protein synthesis of chemical mediators
46Which of the following effects is NOT one typically associated with glucocorticoids?
- AReduced prostaglandin sythesis
- BStimulation of fat and protein break down
- CReduced bone density
- DIncreased sodium and water retention
47Patients taking glucocorticoids for long periods of time are likely to develop all of the following
- AOpportunistic infections
- BDecreased bone density
- CIncreased leukocyte production
- DWasting skeletal muscle
48Which of the following drugs relieves fever and some types of pain but is NOT an anti-inflammatory agent?
- AParacetamol
- BPrednisone
- CAsprin
- DIbuprofen
49Drugs that have anti-inflammatory, analgesic, and antipyretic activities include:
1. COX-2 inhibitors (NSAIDs).
2. glucocorticoids (e.g., prednisone).
3. ibuprofen (NSAID).
4. paracetamol.
5. aspirin.- A1,2
- B2,4
- C1,3,5
- D1,4,5
50All of the following are correct statements regarding wound healing EXCEPT:
- AResolution occurs where there is minimal tissue damage and the cells can recover.
- BRegeneration occurs where the cells are capable of mitosis.
- CGranulation tissue forms a permanent replacement for damaged tissue.
- DScar tissue forms where the surrounding cells are incapable of mitosis
51Which of the following factors generally WOULD NOT delay wound healing?
- APoor nutrition
- BAdequate serum levels of Vitamins A & C
- CHypoxia
- DAdvanced age
52exudates are thick, yellow/green and typically indicates a bacterial infection
- ASerous
- BFibrinous
- CPurulent
- DHaemorrhagic
53Systemic manifestations of inflammation include all EXCEPT:
- APyrexia
- BMalaise
- CRegional swelling
- DAnorexia
54Chemical mediators released during inflammatory response include:
- AAlbumin and fibrinogen
- BGrowth factors and cell enzymes
- CHistamine and prostaglandins
- DMacrophages and neutrophils
55Aetiology is defined as the study of the:
- Acauses of a disease
- Bcourse of a disease
- Cexpected complications of a disease
- Dmanifestations of a disease
56Identify the proper sequence in the healing process
- A1)A blood clot forms; 2) granulation tissue grows into the gap; 3) new blood vessels develop; 4) phagocytosis of foreign material and cell debris occurs; 5) and collagen fibers form a tight, strong scar.
- B1)Foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes; 2) a blood clot forms; 3) granulation tissue grows into the gap; 4) new blood vessels form; 5) and collagen fibers grow and cross-link.
- C1) A blood clot forms; 2) phagocytes remove foreign material and cell debris; 3) granulation tissue grows into the gap; 4) new blood vessels form; 5) and collagen fibers promote formation of a tight, strong scar.
- D1) Collagen fibers form in the damaged area; 2) a blood clot forms; 3) granulation tissue grows into the gap; 4) angiogenesis takes place; 5) and foreign material and cell debris are removed by phagocytes.
57To which of the following does the term apoptosis refer?
- AUnplanned death of a group of cells
- BPreprogrammed cell self-destruction
- CIncrease rate of mitosis of cells
- DNecrotic tissue invaded by bacteria
58A patient is on a high dose of glucocorticoids to treat lupus. Which of the following blood tests would a nurse be most concerned about?
- ABlood glucose
- BLiver enzymes
- CClotting time
- DpH
59A patient with type 1 diabetes was prescribed a glucocorticoid for chronic obstructive pulmonary disease. Which will the nurse expect in the treatment plan?
- AA decrease in the amount of insulin needed
- BAn increase in the amount of insulin needed
- CNo change in the amount of insulin needed
- DAn increase in the need for carbohydrates
60Inflammation is a non-specific response to:
- AAny injury to vascularised tissue
- BCold temperatures
- CMicro-organisms only
- DForeign material only
61Histamines are produced from ? and cause ?.
- APlasma proteins; increased platelet aggregation
- BMast cells; vasodilation and increased capillary permeability
- CAll cell membranes; pain
- DPlatelets; attraction of neurophils
62 A broad-spectrum bactericidal agent would be expected to:
- Areduce the replication of many bacteria.
- Breduce the growth of many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
- Cdestroy many gram-positive and gram-negative bacteria
- Ddestroy all pathogenic microbes
63Bacterial mutation means that:
- Apathogens become nonpathogens
- Bthe host's immune response to that bacteria is strengthened
- Cthe bacteria survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate
- Dits genetic information has changed
64Pathogenicity:
- Ais the capacity of microbes to cause disease/infection
- Bis the size of a specific microbe
- Cis the presence of toxins in the blood
- Dis the presence of viruses in the blood
65Exotoxins:
- Aare very heat tolerant
- Bmay cause fever and fatigue
- Ccan disrupt cellular metabolic and signalling processes causing widespread damage
- Dcan be incorporated into the structure of the cell membrane as liposaccharides
66Gram negative bacteria have
- AA thick peptidoglycan layer cell wall
- BA thin peptidoglycan cell wall sandwiched between an inner cytoplasmic cell membrane and a bacterial outer membrane.
- CNo cell wall only a thick cell membrane
- Drequire oxygen as a source of energy and therefore for growth.
67Protozoa:
- Aare multicellular organisms
- Bhave intricate life cycles including egg, larvae and adults stages
- Creplicate asexually by cell division
- Dall of the answers are correct
68Opportunistic infections are:
- AAn infection by a non-pathogenic organism that has become pathogenic
- BThe capacity of microbes to cause disease
- CPresence and multiplication of micro-organisms that is not yet causing disease
- DAn organism participating in a symbiotic relationship with the host
69What is a eukaryotic organism, that contains both a cell wall and cell membrane. When they cause an infection it is termed mycosis
- AFungi
- BVirus
- CBacteria
- DProtozoa
70Which of the following factors would NOT increase the virulence of a specific microbe?
- ASecretion of endotoxins
- BPresence of a bacterial capsule
- CSecretion of enzymes
- DSize of the micro-organism
71Triazole as an antifungal agent works by:
- ADisrupt the synthesis of its cell membrane
- BDisrupt DNA replication
- CDisrupt the synthesis of its cell wall
- DInhibit hydrogen peroxide metabolism
72An antimicrobial agent with a narrow spectrum of activity reflects a drug that has:
- Aonly a weak antibiotic action.
- Beffectiveness against a relatively small variety of microbes.
- Ca low potency.
- Da narrow margin of safety.
73Which of the following signs would best indicate a bacterial infection (in comparison to a viral infection)?
- AThe presence of pain
- BThe presence of purelent exudate.
- CThe presence of a serous exudate.
- DThe presence of swelling.
74During which period is the infectious disease fully developed?
- AProdromal
- BAcute
- CIncubation
- DAggresive
75The structure of a virus includes:
- Aa cell wall and membrane
- Bmetabolic enzymes and a cell wall
- Ca protein coat and either DNA or RNA
- Da slime capsule and cilia
76Bacteria:
- Arequire host cells in order to replicate
- Bare prokaryotes
- Cmay cause mycosis
- Dare contained within a capsid
77Bacterial mutation means that:
- Apathogens become nonpathogens
- Bthe bacteria survives adverse conditions but can no longer replicate
- Cits genetic information has changed
- Dthe host's immune response to that bacteria is strengthened
78Which of the following mechanisms is NOT one of the four typical mechanisms of action of antibiotic agents
- AAffect bacterial folic acid synthesis
- BInhibit bacterial DNA synthesis
- CDisrupt bacterial meiosis
- DDisrupt cell wall synthesis
79Which of the following clinical manifestations is not one typically associated with anaphylaxis
- APruritus
- BHypertension
- CStridor
- DSyncopy
80Which of the following is NOT a cause of immunodeficiency?
- AAtrophy of lymph nodes
- BImmunosuppresive agents
- CHypoplasia of the thymus
- DDelayed hypersensitivity
81Primary immune deficiencies occur as a result of:
- AA genetic defect affecting immune cell number
- BHuman immunodeficiency virus
- CExcessive emotional stress
- DLack of vitamin C
82An example of a live attenuated vaccine includes:
- APolio
- BRabies
- CDPT
- DRubella
83The main property of the adaptive immune response for immunity to previously encountered infections is:
- AAntigen specificity
- BDiversity
- CMemory
- DSelf/non-self recognition
84The role of memory cells is to
- Achange into an antibody-secreting cell following activation.
- Bimmediately secrete antibodies following the first exposure to antigen.
- Crecognize the antigen and stimulate an immune response.
- Dactivate the hippocampus in the CNS
85White blood cells responsible for adaptive immunity:
- ANeutrophils
- BLymphocytes
- CMonocytes
- DEosinophils
86Which cells are required to process and present antigens from foreign material as the initial step in the immune response?
- AT-helper cells
- BMacrophages
- CEosinophils
- DMast cells
87A common primary target for most immunosuppressant drugs is:
- ABlocking cytokines
- BSuppressing B cell activation
- CSuppressing T cell activity
- DSuppressing macrophages
88Some common treatments for immunodeficiency may include marrow or thymus transplants and:
- AHyperbaric treatments
- BBlood transfusions and narrow spectrum antibiotics
- CProphylactic antibiotics and cytokine stimulants
- DAntibiotics and radiation therapy
89Interferons work by:
- ASuppress viral replication in infected cells
- BStimulates cytokine production
- CInhibit macrophage activity
- DInducing fever
90The immune system identifies foreign organisms via the recognition of surface:
- Aantigens
- Bcytokines
- Cinterferons
- Dantibodies
91Type 1 diabetes mellitus is associated with a:
- AType III hypersensitivity reaction
- BType II hypersensitivity reaction
- CType IV hypersensitivity reaction
- DType I hypersensitivity reaction
92Systemic lupus erythematosus is caused by:
- Adevelopment of an immune-deficient state.
- Ba chronic allergic condition.
- Cimmune complex deposits of anti DNA/RNA antibodies.
- Da deficiency of T lymphocytes.
93The type of white blood cells that contains chemical mediators and plays an important part in allergic inflammatory responses is the:
- ABasophil
- BNeutrophil
- CMonocyte
- DMacrophage
94The common local effects of an expanding tumour mass include:
1. obstruction of a tube or duct.
2. anemia and weight loss.
3. cell necrosis and ulceration.
4. tumour markers in the circulation.- A1,2
- B2,4
- C1,3
- D1,2,3,4
95Which of the following does paraneoplastic syndrome refer to?
- AThe decreased resistance to infection resulting from malignant tumors
- BThe effects of substances such as hormones secreted by the tumor cells
- CThe effects of multiple metastatic tumors
- DSevere weight loss and cachexia associated with advanced cancer
96Ultraviolet light is considered a carcinogen because:
- AIt produces a carcinogenic enzyme in skin cells
- BIt introduces errors into DNA (genes)
- CIt directly prevents telomere shortening
- DIt directly prevents DNA repair
97First line treatment for testicular cancer always involves
- Anodulectomy
- Bchemotherapy
- Cradiation
- Dorchidectomy
98Staging systems used to classify a malignant tumour at the time of diagnosis are based on which of the following factors?
- ASize, encapsulated or non-encapsulated, invasion into neighboring tissue
- BSize of the tumour, involvement of lymph nodes, metastases
- CLocation of tumour, size, type of cellular abnormality
- DType of cellular abnormality, size of secondary tumours, location/tissue affected
99Why is a patient with prostate cancer prescribed an estrogen?
- ATo soften prostatic tissue
- BTo decrease the rate of replication for malignant cells
- CTo achieve hormonal balance
- DTo suppress prostate gland function
100Seeding refers to:
- ASpread of cancer cells in body cavities/membranes
- BSpread of cancer cells into the nearest lymph node
- CLocal spread of cancer cells within a tissue
- DSpread of cancer cells to distant sites in the body by blood or lymph
Información
- Descripción
- Nursing Test sobre P&P1 Revision Tri1 2018 Part 2, creado por Kathleen Jackson el 15/06/2018.
- Autor
- Kathleen Jackson
- Idioma
- English
- Visitas
- 361
- Etiquetas
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