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You are labeling spare parts for inventory. What type of USB connector is shown in the exhibit?

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  1. 1A technician has removed an adapter card from a PC. Should the technician obtain and install a blanking plate to complete the service operation?Yes. The fan system is designed to draw cool air across the motherboard and blow out warm air. Large holes in the chassis disrupt this air flow. Also, dust will be able to settle on the system components more easily. A blanking plate covers the empty slot in the case.
  2. 2You are labeling spare parts for inventory. What type of USB connector is shown in the exhibit?USB 2.0 Type B micro.You are labeling spare parts for inventory. What type of USB connector is shown in the exhibit?
  3. 3What is the nominal data rate of a USB port supporting Gen 3.2 2x1?10 Gbps.
  4. 4True or false? USB-C ports and connectors are compatible with Apple Lightning connectors and ports.False. An adapter cable is required.
  5. 5A technician connects a single port on a graphics card to two monitors using two cables. What type of interface is being used?Both DisplayPort and Thunderbolt interfaces support this type of daisy-chaining.
  6. 6A technician is completing a storage upgrade on an older computer. Examining the power supply, the technician notices that only two of the five plugs of the type shown in the exhibit are connected to devices. What is the purpose of these plugs, and can some be left unconnected?A Molex cable is a power cable used for storage devices that require more power than can be supplied over most internal bus types. Unused connectors do not pose any problem (though they should be secured with cable ties to minimize disruption to air flow). Note that Molex is a legacy connector format. Most drives use SATA power connectors these days.A technician is completing a storage upgrade on an older computer. Examining the power supply, the technician notices that only two of th...
  7. 7What type of motherboard socket is used to install system memory?Dual inline memory module (DIMM)
  8. 8How many storage devices can be attached to a single SATA port?One.
  9. 9What is the bandwidth of a PCIe v2.0 x16 graphics adapter?8 GBps in each direction (full-duplex). PCIe v2 supports 500 MBps per lane.
  10. 10You have a x8 PCIe storage adapter card—can you fit this in a x16 slot?Yes—this is referred to as up-plugging. On some motherboards it may only function as a x1 device though.
  11. 11You are labeling spare parts for inventory. What type of motherboard is displayed here?Both Micro-ATX and Mini-ITX are square form factors, but Mini-ITX is 6.7 inches square, while Micro-ATX is 9.6 inches x9.6 inches.You are labeling spare parts for inventory. What type of motherboard is displayed here?
  12. 12You have another part to label for inventory. What category of adapter card is shown in the exhibit?This is a sound card. It can be identified by the distinctive 3.5 mm audio jacks for connecting microphones and speakers.You have another part to label for inventory. What category of adapter card is shown in the exhibit?
  13. 13You are labeling systems for inventory. What two types of display cabling can be connected to this laptop?The image shows a 15-pin D-shell type video graphics array (VGA) port and a beveled high-definition multimedia interface (HDMI) port. The port in between them is an RJ45 network port, and the two ports on the right are USB Type A ports.You are labeling systems for inventory. What two types of display cabling can be connected to this laptop?
  14. 14Which ports are present on the graphics card shown below?The port on the left is digital visual interface (DVI). The pattern of pins identifies it specifically as dual link DVI-I, which supports both digital and analog signaling. The port on the right is a DisplayPort interface.Which ports are present on the graphics card shown below?
  15. 15Which interfaces does the adapter cable shown below support?DVI-I (left) and HDMI.Which interfaces does the adapter cable shown below support?
  16. 16What is the significance of a PSU's wattage rating when you are designing a custom-build PC?It determines the CPU model and number and type of memory modules, expansion cards, and storage devices that can be installed. The PSU’s wattage rating must be higher than the sum of the power requirements of all the PC’s components.
  17. 17Your company has recently closed a foreign branch office, and you are repurposing some PCs that were shipped from the old location. What feature of the PSUs must you check before powering the systems on?You must check that the voltage selector is set to the correct voltage or, if there is no selector, that the PSU is suitable for the voltage used by the building power circuit.
  18. 18One of the PCs has a faulty CPU, and one has a faulty power supply. You can use the CPU from one machine in the other. You have opened the case and taken antistatic precautions. What steps must you perform to access the CPU?You will have to remove the fan and heat-sink assembly, disconnect the fan’s power connector, release the pins or screws that attach the assembly to the motherboard, and remove the assembly (a gentle twisting motion may be required if the thermal paste has stuck the heat sink firmly to the CPU).
  19. 19The repurposed PC is put into service, but later that day the PC's user contacts you to say that the system has been displaying numerous alerts about high temperature. What do you think might be the cause?You would need to open the case to investigate the problem. Perhaps when the upgrade was performed, one of the fan power connectors was not attached properly, or there could be a fault in the fan on the PSU.
  20. 20True or false? A solid-state drive (SSD) attached to an M.2 port must be using the non-volatile memory host controller interface specification (NVMHCI) or NVM Express (NVMe).False. M.2 is a physical form factor and can support both SATA and NVMe interfaces.
  21. 21What basic factor might you look at in selecting a high-performance hard disk drive?Revolutions per minute (RPM)—the speed at which it spins. The top-performing drives are 15,000 (15K) or 10,000 (10K).
  22. 22If you have a computer with three hard disks, what type of RAID fault-tolerant configuration will make best use of them?RAID 5 (striping with parity). RAID 0 is not fault tolerant. RAID 1 and RAID 10 require an even number of disks.
  23. 23You are configuring four 120 GB drives in a RAID 5 array. How much space will be available?360 GB.
  24. 24What is the minimum number of disks required to implement RAID 10, and how much of the disks' total capacity will be available for the volume?RAID 10 requires at least four disks (two mirrored pairs) and comes with a 50% capacity overhead, so the volume will only be half the total disk capacity.
  25. 25True or false? A memory card reader is needed to attach a thumb drive to a PC.False—a thumb or pen drive will plug into a USB port.
  26. 26What type of memory technology supports paging?Virtual RAM or virtual memory. The operating system creates a virtual address space for each process. This address space can use physical system random-access memory (RAM) modules and swap space or paging files stored on fixed disks (hard drives and SSDs). Paging moves data between system RAM and the swap space as required.
  27. 27You need to upgrade the system RAM on a PC. The motherboard has two 8 GB modules of DDR3 RAM installed and two free slots. You have two spare 16 GB DDR4 modules in your stores. Can these be used for this upgrade?No. The DDR generation of the motherboard slot and modules must match. You can only use DDR3 modules.
  28. 28You are configuring a different workstation with dual-channel memory. You have two modules and there are four slots. How would you determine which slots to use?Check the vendor's setup/service manual. Many systems will use the slots marked A1 and B1, but it's best not to proceed without consulting the vendor's documentation.
  29. 29Consulting the vendor documentation, you find that this system uses DDR4 error-correcting code (ECC) RDIMMs. The spares you have are DDR4 ECC UDIMMs. Can they be used for the upgrade?No. If the vendor documentation specifies registered memory (RDIMMs), you must use RDIMM modules. Unbuffered DIMMs (UDIMMs) will not be compatible even if they are ECC.
  30. 30Why can cache improve performance?A CPU tends to repeat the same routines and access the same data over and over again. If these routines are stored in fast cache RAM, they can be accessed more quickly than instructions and data stored in system memory.
  31. 31A workstation has a multi-socket motherboard but only a single LGA 1150 socket is populated. The installed CPU is a Xeon E3-1220. You have a Xeon E3-1231 CPU in store that also uses the LGA 1150. Should this be used to enable symmetric multiprocessing and upgrade system performance?No. The CPU models must be identical. If the CPUs are not identical, the system is unlikely to boot. Even if the system boots, it is not likely to operate reliably.
  32. 32You are specifying a computer for use as a software development workstation. This will be required to run multiple virtual machines (VMs). Can any x64-compatible CPU with sufficient clock speed be used?No. You must verify that the CPU model supports virtualization extensions.
  33. 33What must you check when inserting a PGA form factor CPU?You must check that pin 1 is aligned properly and that the pins on the package are aligned with the holes in the socket. Otherwise, you risk damaging the pins when the locking lever is secured.
  34. 34You are dealing with a support request and think that you have identified the probable cause of the reported problem. What should be your next troubleshooting step?Test the theory to determine the cause.
  35. 35If you must open the system case to troubleshoot a computer, what should you check before proceeding?You should check that data on the PC has been backed up. You should always verify that you have a backup before beginning any troubleshooting activities.
  36. 36What should you do if you cannot determine the cause of a problem?You could consult a colleague, refer to product documentation, or search the web. It might also be appropriate to escalate the problem to more senior support staff.
  37. 37You think you have discovered the solution to a problem in a product Knowledge Base, and the solution involves installing a software patch. What should be your next troubleshooting step?You should identify any negative consequences in applying the software patch, then devise an implementation plan to install the file. You need to schedule the work so as to minimize disruption. You should also make a plan to roll back the installation, should that prove necessary.
  38. 38After applying a troubleshooting repair, replacement, or upgrade, what should you do next?You should test that the fix works and that the system as a whole is functional. You might also implement preventative measures to reduce the risk of the problem occurring again.
  39. 39Name three keys commonly used to run a PC's BIOS/UEFI system setup program.Esc, Del, F1, F2, F10, or F12.
  40. 40What widely supported boot method is missing from the following list? HDD, Optical, USB.Network/PXE (Pre-eXecution Environment)—obtaining boot information from a specially configured server over the network.
  41. 41When you are configuring firmware-enforced security, what is the difference between a supervisor password and a user password?The user password allows the boot sequence to continue, while a supervisor password controls access to the firmware setup program.
  42. 42True or false? A TPM provides secure removable storage so that encryption keys can be used with different computers.False. A trusted platform module (TPM) provides secure storage for a single computer as it is an embedded function of the CPU or motherboard chipset. The term hardware security module (HSM) is sometimes used to describe a secure USB thumb drive for storing encryption keys on portable media.
  43. 43You have been servicing a computer, but when you have finished you find that it will not turn on. There was no power problem before, and you have verified that the computer is connected to a working electrical outlet. What is the most likely explanation?It is most likely that one or more power connectors have not been reconnected. Check the P1 motherboard connector, a 4-pin CPU connector, and all necessary SATA or Molex device connectors. Also, the cable connecting the power button to a motherboard header could have been disconnected.
  44. 44Additional memory was installed in a user's system, and now it will not boot. What steps would you take to resolve this job ticket?Use the vendor’s system setup guide to verify that the correct memory type was installed on the system and in the correct configuration (consider whether dual-channel memory was installed in the correct slots). Check that the new memory module is seated properly in its slot. Try swapping memory around in the memory slots.
  45. 45You are trying to install Windows from the setup disc, but the computer will not boot from the DVD. What should you do?Check that the boot order in system setup is set correctly. If the boot order is correct, check that the disc is not dirty or scratched. If the disc loads in another computer, check that the optical drive data and power cables are connected.
  46. 46Following a power cut, a user reports that their computer will not boot. The message “BCD missing" is shown on the screen. The computer does not store data that needs to be backed up. What is the best first step to try to resolve the issue?Use a system recovery disk to try to repair the disk drive’s boot information.
  47. 47A user reports that there is a loud clicking noise when she tries to save a file. What should be your first troubleshooting step?Determine whether a data backup has been made. If not, try to make one.
  48. 48You receive a support call from a user of one of the company’s computer-aided design (CAD) workstations. The user reports that a notification “RAID utility reports that the volume is degraded” is being displayed. A recent backup has been made. What should you do to try to restore the array?A degraded volume is still working but has lost one of its disks. In most RAID configurations, another disk failure would cause the volume to fail, so you should add a new disk as soon as possible (though do note that rebuilding the array will reduce performance).
  49. 49A user reports hearing noises from the hard disk—does this indicate it is failing and should be replaced?Not necessarily. Hard disks do make noises, but they are not all indicators of a problem. Question the user to find out what sort of noises are occurring or inspect the system yourself.
  50. 50What cause might you suspect if a PC experiences intermittent lockups?Assuming the cause is not related to software or device drivers, then thermal or power problems are most likely. Loose connections, faulty system components (motherboard, CPU, and memory), and corruption of OS files due to bad sectors/blocks are also possibilities.
  51. 51True or false? Running the fans continually at maximum speed is the best way to prevent overheating.False. This is likely to damage the fans and draw more dust into the case. It will also cause a lot of excess noise. To prevent overheating, the PC should be installed to a suitable location (away from direct sunlight and radiators) and cleaned and maintained to a schedule.
  52. 52You receive a support call from a lecturer. A projector is only displaying a very dim image. Which component should you prioritize for investigation?A dim image is likely to be caused by a blow bulb (or one that is about to blow). If there is no visible sign of damage to the bulb, you should rule out a simple configuration issue, such as the brightness control being turned all the way down.
  53. 53A user has been supplied with a monitor from stores as a temporary replacement. However, the user reports that the device is unusable because of a thick green band across the middle of the screen. What technique could you use to diagnose the cause?Replace the cable with a known good one. If this does not solve the problem, suspect an issue with the monitor. As the PC was used with no issues with another monitor, there is not likely to be an issue with the video card.
  54. 54A network uses an IEEE 802.11 standard to establish connections. What type of network is this?A wireless local area network (WLAN).
  55. 55What type of network has no specific geographical restrictions?A wide area network (WAN) can span any geographical distance.
  56. 56A network uses Fiber Channel adapters to implement connections. What type of network is this?A storage area network (SAN).
  57. 57True or false? A MAC address identifies the network to which a NIC is attached.False. A media access control (MAC) address is a unique hardware identifier for an interface port. It does not convey any information about logical network addresses.
  58. 58A workstation must be provisioned with a 4 Gbps network link. Is it possible to specify a single NIC to meet this requirement?Yes. On an NIC with 4 gigabit Ethernet ports, the ports can be bonded to establish a 4 Gbps link.
  59. 59You are completing a network installation as part of a team. Another group has cabled wall ports to a patch panel. Is any additional infrastructure required?Yes. The patch panel terminates cabling, but it does not establish any connections between the cable segments. You must install a networking appliance to act as a concentrator and connect the cable segments. On modern networks, this means installing a switch and cabling it to the patch panel ports using RJ45 patch cords.
  60. 60You are planning to install a network of wireless access points with power supplied over data cabling. Each access point requires a 20W power supply. What version of PoE must the switch support to fulfill this requirement?PoE+ (802.3at) or PoE++/4PPoE (802.3bt).
  61. 61You are performing a wiring job, but the company wants to purchase the media and components from another preferred supplier. The plan is to install a network using copper cabling that will support Gigabit Ethernet. The customer is about to purchase Cat 5e cable spools. What factors should they consider before committing to this decision?Cat5e will meet the requirement and will cost the least. Cat 6 offers better performance without adding too much cost. Cat 6A would be the best choice for supporting future requirements, but it is likely to cost more than the customer is budgeting for.
  62. 62A network consultant is recommending the use of S/FTP to extend a cable segment through a factory. Is this likely to be an appropriate cable choice?Yes. Shielded/foiled twisted pair (S/FTP) will provide the best protection from the external interference sources likely to be generated by factory machinery.
  63. 63You are reviewing network inventory and come across an undocumented cable reel with "CMP/MMP" marked on the jacket. What installation type is this cable most suitable for?The cable is plenum cable, rated for use in plenum spaces (building voids used with HVAC systems).
  64. 64You need to connect permanent cable to the back of a patch panel. Which networking tool might help you?A cable stripper to remove the jacket insulation and a punchdown tool to terminate the wire pairs into insulation displacement connector (IDC) blocks.
  65. 65Which fiber optic connector uses a small form factor design?The Lucent Connector (LC).
  66. 66You are assessing standards compatibility for a Wi-Fi network. Most employees have mobile devices with single-band 2.4 GHz radios. Which Wi-Fi standards work in this band?Wi-Fi 6 (802.11ax), Wi-Fi 4 (802.11n), and the legacy standards 802.11g and 802.11b.
  67. 67You are explaining your plan to use the 5 GHz band predominantly for an open plan office network. The business owner has heard that this is shorter range, so what are its advantages over the 2.4 GHz band?Each numbered channel in a 2.4 GHz network is only 5 MHz wide, while Wi-Fi requires about 20 MHz. Consequently, there is not much space for separate networks, and the chances of overlap are high. Numerous other product types of work in the 2.4 GHz band, increasing the risk of interference. Using 5 GHz will present a better opportunity to use channel bonding to increase bandwidth. As an open plan office does not have solid walls or other building features to block signals, the slightly reduced range of 5 GHz signaling should not be a significant drawback.
  68. 68Can 802.11ac achieve higher throughput to a single client by multiplexing the signals from both 2.4 and 5 GHz frequency bands? Why or why not?No. First, a client can only use one radio at a time and so cannot connect simultaneously to the 2.4 GHZ and 5 GHz bands. Secondl, 802.11ac works only at 5 GHz; 802.11ac access points use the 2.4 GHz band to support 802.11b/g/n clients. The 802.11ac standard can increase bandwidth by using multiple input output (MIMO) antenna configurations to allocate more streams, such as 2x2 or 3x3.
  69. 69You are setting up a Wi-Fi network. Do you need to configure the BSSID?No. You need to configure the service set identifier (SSID), unless you want to rely on the default value. The SSID is a name for users to recognize the network by. The basic SSID (BSSID) is the MAC address of the access point’s radio. As this is coded into the device firmware, it does not need to be configured. Stations use the BSSID to send frames to the access point.
  70. 70True or false? Only a single network name can be configured on a single access point.False. Each band can be assigned a different service set identifier (SSID) or network name. Access points also allow the configuration of multiple SSIDs per radio, such as configuring a secure network for known clients and an open network for guests.
  71. 71True or false? A long-range fixed wireless installation operating without a license is always illegal.False. These installations may use unlicensed spectrum but must not exceed the effective isotropic radiated power (EIRP) defined for the frequency band by regulations.
  72. 72You are setting up an ADSL router/modem for a client; unfortunately, the contents of the box have become scattered. What type of cable do you need to locate to connect the router’s WAN interface?Asymmetrical Digital Subscriber Line (DSL) connects to the phone line via a filter. You need an RJ11-terminated patch cord to make the connection.
  73. 73You are assisting another customer with a full fiber connection terminated to an optical network terminal (ONT). The customer’s router was disconnected while some building work was being completed, and the patch cable is now missing. The customer thinks that the cable should be a fiber optic one because the service is "full fiber." What type of cable do you need to locate?An RJ45 unshielded twisted pair (UTP) patch cable. The ONT converts the optical signal over the external fiber optic cable to an electrical one to connect to the local router.
  74. 74True or false? Both 4G and 5G cellular can be used for fixed access broadband as well as in mobile devices.True. These can work as an alternative to wired broadband or as a backup/failover Internet connection type. Many router models now come with a cellular radio. A subscribed identity module (SIM) card from the service provider must also be installed.
  75. 75True or false? A SOHO router uses an embedded modem and Ethernet adapter to forward traffic between public and private network segments over a single hardware port.False. The modem and Ethernet interfaces use separate ports.
  76. 76host is configured with the IP address 172.16.1.100 in the 172.16.1.0/16 IP network. What value should be entered as the subnet mask?A subnet mask field uses dotted decimal format. The /16 network prefix means that the first 16 bits in the mask are set to one: 11111111 11111111 00000000 00000000. A whole octet of ones converts to 255 in decimal. Therefore, the dotted decimal mask is 255.255.0.0.
  77. 77You are setting up a printer to use static IPv4 addressing. What type of value is expected in the default gateway field?The IPv4 address of the local router interface, entered in dotted decimal format.
  78. 78Another technician has scribbled some notes about IPv4 addresses used in various networks associated with support tickets. One of them is assigned to the WAN interface of a SOHO router that requires troubleshooting. Which of these addresses must it be? 52.165.16.254 192.168.100.52 169.254.1.121 172.30.100.32 224.100.100.1The WAN interface of the router must use an IPv4 address from a valid public range, so 52.165.16.254 is the only one it could be: 172.30.100.32 and 192.168.100.52 are in the class B and class C private ranges, 169.254.1.121 is in the range reserved for APIPA, and 224.100.100.1 is outside the range of valid public addresses (it is part of class D, which is used for a type of addressing called "multicasting").
  79. 79True or false? A SOHO router can be configured to provide an IPv4 address configuration to hosts without further administrator attention.True. This service is implemented by the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP).
  80. 80True or false? A valid IPv6 configuration does not require a subnet mask.True. In IPv6, the host ID portion of the address is always the last 64 bits. The network prefix length is used to determine which network a host is on, but a mask is not required.
  81. 81True or false? At the Transport layer, connections between hosts to exchange application data are established over a single port number.False. The server application is identified by one port, but the client must also assign its own port to track the connection.
  82. 82What feature of DCHP means that it must use UDP at the transport layer?The Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP) uses broadcast addressing, which is not supported by the connection-oriented Transmission Control Protocol (TCP). Consequently, DHCP uses the connectionless User Datagram Protocol (UDP).
  83. 83Another technician has scribbled some notes about a firewall configuration. The technician has listed only the port numbers 25 and 3389. What is the purpose of the protocols that use these ports by default?Port TCP/25 is used by the Simple Mail Transfer Protocol (SMTP) to send and receive email messages. Port TCP/3389 is used by Remote Desktop Protocol (RDP) to connect to a computer’s graphical shell over the network.
  84. 84The technician has made a note to check that port 445 is blocked by the firewall. What is the purpose of the protocol that uses this port by default, and why should it be blocked?Port TCP/445 is used by the Server Message Block (SMB) protocol that implements Windows File/Printer Sharing. SMB is designed for use on local networks only. Allowing access from the Internet would be a security risk.
  85. 85You need to ensure that a print device receives the same IP address when connecting to the network. What value do you need to configure on the DHCP server to enable a reservation?The reservation should be configured with the media access control (MAC) address of the print device (plus the IP address to assign).
  86. 86True or false? A top-level domain such as .com represents the top of the DNS hierarchy.False. The Domain Name System (DNS) uses root servers at the top of the hierarchy. The root is represented by a trailing dot at the end of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), though this can very commonly be omitted in ordinary usage.
  87. 87You are advising another technician about typical DNS configuration. The technician thinks that the name server hosting the 515 support domain resource records on the Internet should be configured as the primary DNS server entry in the IP configuration of local clients. Why is this unlikely to be the case?The role of a name server is to respond to queries for the resource records of the specific domain(s) that it is responsible for. The role of the DNS server types listed in a client’s IP configuration is to resolve requests for records in any valid domain. To do this, the resolver must take on the task of querying multiple name servers on behalf of the client. Mixing these roles on the same server machine is possible in theory, but for performance and security reasons, they are more commonly performed by separate servers.
  88. 88What type of value would you expect a query for an AAAA resource record to return?An IPv6 address.
  89. 89What type of TXT record uses cryptography to help recipient servers reject spoofed messages and spam?DomainKeys Identified Mail (DKIM).
  90. 90Which network configuration technology can be configured on switches to divide a local network into multiple broadcast domain segments?Virtual LAN (VLAN).
  91. 91True or false? An HTTP application secured using the SSL/TLS protocol should use a different port to unencrypted HTTP.True. By default, HTTPS uses port TCP/443. It is possible in theory to apply SSL/TLS to port TCP/80, but most browsers would not support this configuration.
  92. 92A firewall filters applications based on their port number. If you want to configure a firewall on a mail server to allow clients to download email messages, which port(s) might you have to open?Either TCP port 993 (IMAPS) or 995 (POP3S), depending on the mail access protocol in use (IMAP or POP). These are the default ports for secure connections. Unsecure default ports are TCP port 143 and TCP port 110. Port 25 (SMTP) is used to send mail between servers and not to access messages stored on a server. Port 587 is often used by a client to submit messages for delivery by an SMTP server.
  93. 93You are configuring a network attached storage (NAS) appliance. What file sharing protocol(s) could you use to allow access to Windows, Linux, and Apple macOS clients?Most clients should support Server Message Block (SMB). Another option is to configure File Transfer Protocol (FTP).
  94. 94True or false? AAA allows switches and access points to hold directory information so that they can authenticate clients as they connect to the network.False. One of the purposes of authentication, authorization, and accounting (AAA) is to authenticate clients as they connect to the network, but the directory information and credentials are not stored on or verified by switches and access points. These devices are configured as clients of an AAA server and act only to transit authentication data between the end user device (the supplicant) and the AAA server.
  95. 95You are advising a company on configuring systems to provide better information about network device status. Why would you recommend the use of both SNMP and syslog?The Simple Network Management Protocol (SNMP) provides a means for devices to report operational statistics to a management server and to send a trap if a threshold for some critical value is exceeded. Syslog provides a means for devices to send log entries to a remote server. Both of these types of information are required for effective monitoring.
  96. 96You are advising a customer about replacing the basic network address translation (NAT) function performed by a SOHO router with a device that can work as a proxy. The customer understands the security advantages of this configuration. What other benefit can it have?The proxy can be configured to cache data that is commonly requested by multiple clients, reducing bandwidth consumption and speeding up requests.
  97. 97You are recommending that a small business owner replace separate firewall and antimalware appliances with a UTM. What is the principal advantage of doing this?A unified threat management (UTM) appliance consolidates the configuration, monitoring, and reporting of multiple security functions to a single console or dashboard. You might also mention that the UTM might provide additional functionality not currently available, such as intrusion detection, spam filtering, or data loss prevention.
  98. 98A network owner has configured three web servers to host a website. What device can be deployed to allow them to work together to service client requests more quickly?A load balancer.
  99. 99You are writing an advisory to identify training requirements for support staff and have included OT networks as one area not currently covered. Another technician thinks you should have written IT. Are they correct?No. Operational technology (OT) refers to networks that connect embedded systems in industrial and process automation systems.
  100. 100You are auditing your network for the presence of legacy systems. Should you focus exclusively on identifying devices and software whose vendor has gone out of business?No. While this can be one reason for products becoming unsupported, vendors can also deprecate use of products that they will no longer support by classifying them as end of life (EOL).
  101. 101You are updating a support knowledge base article to help technicians identify port flapping. How can port flapping be identified?Use the switch configuration interface to observe how long the port remains in an up state. Port flapping means that the port transitions rapidly between up and down states.
  102. 102A user reports that the Internet is slow. What first step should you take to identify the problem?Verify the link speed independently of user apps, such as web browsing, to determine if there is a cable or port problem.
  103. 103You are trying to add a computer to a wireless network but cannot detect the network name. What possible causes should you consider?The network name is configured as nonbroadcast and must be entered manually, the wireless standard supported by the adapter is not supported by the access point, the station is not in range, or there is some sort of interference.
  104. 104What readings would you expect to gather with a Wi-Fi analyzer?The signal strength of different Wi-Fi networks and their channels that are operating within range of the analyzer.
  105. 105A probe reports that the Internet connection has RTT latency of 200 ms. What is the likely impact on VoIP call quality?Most vendors recommend that one-way latency should not exceed 150 ms. Round trip time (RTT) measures two-way latency, so 200 ms is within the recommended 300 ms tolerance. Call quality should not be severely impacted, but if latency is persistently that high, it might be worth investigating the cause.
  106. 106A user reports that a “Limited connectivity” desktop notification is displayed on their computer, and they cannot connect to the Internet. Will you need to replace the NIC in the computer?No. Limited connectivity reported by the OS means that the link has been established, but the host has not been able to contact a DHCP server to obtain a lease for a valid configuration.
  107. 107What is a Type 2 hypervisor?Hypervisor software that must be installed as an application running on a host OS. A Type 1 (or bare metal) hypervisor is installed directly to the host hardware.
  108. 108You need to provision a virtualization workstation to run four guest OSs simultaneously. Each VM requires 2 GB system RAM. Is an 8 GB workstation sufficient to meet this requirement?No. The host OS and/or hypervisor also requires system memory. If the host also a 2 GB requirement, you would only be able to launch three of the VMs simultaneously.
  109. 109What is the main security requirement of a virtualization workstation configured to operate VMs within a sandbox?A sandbox means that the VM environment should be isolated from the host and from other VM environments. A sandbox is often used to investigate malware. If the sandbox is secure, the malware can be executed and observed without the risk of it spreading to other systems (VM escaping).
  110. 110A cloud service provides a billing dashboard that reports the uptime, disk usage, and network bandwidth consumption of a virtual machine. What type of cloud characteristic does this demonstrate?Metered utilization.
  111. 111A company has contracted the use of a remote datacenter to offer exclusive access to platform as a service resources to its internal business users. How would such a cloud solution be classed?As a private deployment model.
  112. 112A technician provisions a network of virtual machines running web server, scripting environment, and database software for use by programmers working for the sales and marketing department. What type of cloud model has been deployed?This is a platform as a service (PaaS) model. Infrastructure as a service (IaaS) would only provision the VMs and network without the software. It is not software as a service (SaaS) because the web server and database are unconfigured.
  113. 113When users connect to the network, they use a basic hardware terminal to access a desktop hosted on a virtualization server. What type of infrastructure is being deployed?Virtual desktop infrastructure (VDI).
  114. 114A company is ordering custom-built laptops to supply to its field sales staff for use predominantly as presentation devices. The company can specify the type of panel used and has ruled out IPS and OLED on cost grounds. Which of the remaining mainstream display technologies is best suited to the requirement?Vertical alignment (VA) displays support good viewing angles and high-contrast ratios, which makes them well-suited to displaying slides to an audience. The twisted nematic (TN) type is cheap but does not support wide-angle viewing.
  115. 115You are writing a knowledge base article for remote sales staff who need to use their smartphones to facilitate Internet connectivity for their laptops from out-of-office locations. What distinguishes the hotspot and tethering means of accomplishing this?Configuring a hotspot allows the laptop to connect to the smartphone over Wi-Fi. Tethering means connecting the laptop via USB or Bluetooth.
  116. 116What type of peripheral port would you expect to find on a current generation smartphone?For Apple devices, the Lightning port. For Android, it will be USB-C.
  117. 117You are assisting a user with pairing a smartphone to a Bluetooth headset. What step must the user take to start the process?On the smartphone, open the Bluetooth page under Settings. This will make the phone discoverable and enable the user to find nearby devices. If the headset is not found automatically, check if there is a button on the headset to make it discoverable.
  118. 118You are identifying suitable smartphone models to issue to field sales staff. The models must be able to use digital payments. What type of sensor must the devices have?Near-field communications (NFC) allow the user to touch the phone to a point-of-sale terminal to authorize payment in conjunction with a wallet app.
  119. 119Why must a vendor account usually be configured on a smartphone?A vendor account, such as an Apple, Google, or Samsung account, is required to use the app store.
  120. 120Which types of data might require mapping between fields when syncing between applications?Contacts and calendar items.
  121. 121How do you configure an autodiscover-enabled email provider on a smartphone?Just select the provider then enter the email address. If the account is detected, you will be prompted for the password.
  122. 122A company has discovered that an employee has been emailing product design documents to her smartphone and then saving the files to the smartphone’s flash drive. Which technology can be deployed to prevent such policy breaches?Mobile application management (MAM) allows an enterprise to create a protected container as a workspace for corporate apps and data and prevent copying to other storage areas.
  123. 123Several laptops need to be replaced in the next fiscal cycle, but that doesn't begin for several months. You want to improve functionality as much as possible by upgrading or replacing components in some of the laptops that are having problems. Which items are most easily replaced in a laptop?The fixed drive, system memory (RAM), and plug-in wireless card will be the easiest upgradable components to install. If items need repairing, the battery, touchpad, and the keyboard should be straightforward to replace, if you can obtain compatible parts.
  124. 124What is the process for installing memory in a laptop?Verify that the DDR version of the upgrade module is supported by the motherboard. Take antistatic precautions. Locate the memory slot, which is usually accessed via a panel on the back cover. Move the connector up to 45º and insert the memory card, taking care to align it correctly. Push the card flat again.
  125. 125What type of standard adapter card might be used to connect internal FRU devices to the motherboard of a laptop?Mini-PCIe, mSATA, or M.2.
  126. 126A technician is performing a keyboard replacement and asks for your help. The data cable for the old keyboard will not pull out. How should it be removed?This type of flat data connector is secured by a latch. Pop the latch up before trying to remove the cable.
  127. 127You are troubleshooting a laptop display. If the laptop can display an image on an external monitor but not on the built-in one, which component do you know is working, and can you definitively say which is faulty?The graphics adapter is working. The problem must exist either in the cabling to the built-in screen or with a screen component, such as an inverter, backlight, or the display panel itself. Further tests will be required to identify which.
  128. 128You received a user complaint about a laptop being extremely hot to the touch. What actions should you take in response to this issue?Overheating can be a sign that dust and dirt is restricting the necessary airflow within the device, so start by cleaning the ventilation duct with compressed air, and then make sure that the device is getting proper air circulation around the outside of the case, such as by supplying a chiller pad.
  129. 129A user complains that their Bluetooth keyboard, which has worked for the last year, has stopped functioning. What would you suggest is the problem?The batteries in the keyboard have run down—replace them.
  130. 130laptop user reports that they are only getting about two hours of use out of the battery compared to about three hours when the laptop was first supplied to them. What do you suggest?Batteries lose maximum charge over time. It may be possible to recondition the battery or to use power-saving features, but the only real way to restore maximum battery life is to buy a new battery.
  131. 131A laptop user is complaining about typing on their new laptop. They claim that the cursor jumps randomly from place to place. What might be the cause of this?The user could be touching the touchpad while typing, or vibrations could be affecting the touchpad. Update the driver or reduce the sensitivity/disable touch and tap events.
  132. 132Following some past issues with faults arising in print devices because of improper setup procedures, you are updating the company’s work instructions for printer installation. You have noted that technicians must refer to the product instructions, use safe lifting techniques, and ensure removal of packing strips. What additional guidance should you include?Allow the print device to acclimate for a few hours after unboxing to avoid risks from condensation.
  133. 133You use three Windows 10 applications that need to print to a Canon inkjet printer. How many printer drivers must you install?One. Applications rely on the operating system to mediate access to devices. They do not need their own drivers.
  134. 134Users in the marketing department complain that a recently installed printer is not producing accurate color output. What step might resolve the problem?Switch to a PostScript (PS) driver. This is likely to have better support for accurate color models. You might also suggest running a calibration utility.
  135. 135True or false? To enable printer sharing via Windows, the print device must be connected to the Windows PC via an Ethernet or Wi-Fi link.False—any print device can be shared via printer properties. The print device can be connected to the Windows print server over USB, Bluetooth, Ethernet, or Wi-Fi. Other clients connect to the printer via the share, however, so the Windows PC must be kept on to facilitate printing.
  136. 136What configuration information does a user need to use a print device connected to the same local network?The print device's IP address or host name. You might note that vendor utilities can search for a connected device on the local network, so "None" could also be a correct answer.
  137. 137To minimize paper costs, a department should use the duplex printing option on a shared printer by default. The print device is already configured with an automatic duplex finishing unit. What additional step should you take to try to ensure duplex printing?Set duplex mode as the default under Printing Preferences.
  138. 138What must you do before installing a new toner cartridge into a printer?Remove the packing strips. The printer should also be turned off, and the old cartridge should be removed and placed into a sealed bag for recycling.
  139. 139Which components are provided as part of a laser printer maintenance kit?The main component is a new fuser assembly. The kit will also usually contain a transfer/secondary charge roller plus paper transport rollers for each tray (pickup rollers and a new separation pad).
  140. 140What types of paper/stationery can dot matrix printers use that laser and inkjet printers cannot?Multi-part or continuous tractor-fed stationery and carbon copy paper.
  141. 141You have been asked to perform basic maintenance on a printer in the Research and Development area. The dot matrix printer used to create shipping documents seems to be printing lighter than normal, and one of the pins seems to not be connecting near the center of the print head as there are blank areas in some letters and images. What maintenance should you perform?Using the steps in the printer documentation, replace the ribbon in the printer and clean the print head. If this does not fix the problem, replace the print head.
  142. 142A thermal printer used to create labels for parts bins, kits, and boxes is jammed due to a label coming loose during printing. How should you resolve this problem?Open the printer and locate the label that came off the backing. Remove the label, and if there is any sticky residue, clean it with isopropyl alcohol (IPA) applied to a swab. Ensure the roll of labels is properly loaded and that there are no loose labels that might come loose again.
  143. 143What considerations for locating a 3-D printer do you have to make?The 3-D print process is sensitive to movement and vibration, so the printer must be located on a firm and stable surface. The process can also be affected by dust and the ambient temperature and humidity (especially variations and drafts). Finally, some printer types are fully exposed, so there is some risk of burns from the high-heat elements. Ideally, the printer should not be accessible to untrained staff.
  144. 144A user reports that the printed output is not up to the usual standards for her printer. You will need to resolve this issue so she can print her report. What is the overall process for troubleshooting this issue?Print out a test page to see if you can reproduce the problem the user reported. If you see the same problem as reported by the user, identify the print defect, based on the type of printer, to resolve the problem. Document the steps you took to resolve the problem.
  145. 145How would you track down the source of a paper jam?Check the error message reported by the printer (this may be shown on the printer's console). It may indicate the location of the stuck pages. Otherwise, visually inspect the various feed and output mechanisms.
  146. 146Paper is repeatedly jamming in an inkjet printer. What could be causing this?The paper might not be loaded squarely, there might be too much paper loaded into the tray, or the paper is creased or dirty.
  147. 147laser printer is producing white stripes on the paper. What could be causing this?Poorly distributed toner or a damaged/worn transfer corona wire. If the secondary corona does not apply a charge evenly across the paper, less toner is attracted from the drum to the part of the sheet where charging failed. Note that if there are repetitive white or black marks (rather than stripes) that do not smudge, the issue is more likely to be dirt or grease on the drum.
  148. 148What effect does a dirty primary charge roller have on laser printing?It leaves black stripes on the paper. If the roller does not apply the correct charge evenly to the drum, toner is attracted to the place where the charging failed, creating a black stripe all the way down the page.
  149. 149You have been asked to perform basic maintenance on an inkjet printer. One of the users noticed that the colors are not printing correctly and that the bottom of some letters are not printing. What would you do?Try using the printer's built-in cleaning cycle and then replacing the ink cartridge. If these do not work, try using an aftermarket cleaning product. Try using the printer properties sheet to check for print head alignment, color settings, and other settings.
  150. 150If print jobs do not appear at the printer and the queue is clear, what could you try first to solve the problem?Cycle the power on the printer.

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Fichas sobre Sin título, creado por daniel jaska el 27/12/2022.
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