Quiz T

1. 1Elements required for a prima facia case for an intentional tort
   
   1. [blank_start]Voluntary act[blank_end]
   2. [blank_start]Specific or general intent[blank_end]
   3. [blank_start]Causation[blank_end]

   1. AVoluntary act
   2. BSpecific or general intent
   3. CCausation
2. 2What intentional torts does the transferred intent doctrine apply to?
   
   1. [blank_start]Assault[blank_end]
   2. [blank_start]Battery[blank_end]
   3. [blank_start]False imprisonment[blank_end]
   4. [blank_start]Trespass to land[blank_end]
   5. [blank_start]Trespass to chattels[blank_end]

   1. AAssault
   2. BBattery
   3. CFalse imprisonment
   4. DTrespass to land
   5. ETrespass to chattels
3. 3What are the elements of battery?
   
   1. [blank_start]Defendant causes[blank_end]
   2. [blank_start]Harmful or offensive contact[blank_end]
   3. [blank_start]To plaintiff's person[blank_end]
   4. [blank_start]And has specific or general intent[blank_end]

   1. ADefendant causes
   2. BHarmful or offensive contact
   3. CTo plaintiff's person
   4. DAnd has specific or general intent
4. 4What is offensive conduct?
   
   Conduct offensive to a person of [blank_start]ordinary[blank_end] [blank_start]sensibility[blank_end].

   1. Aordinary
   2. Bsensibility
5. 5What are the elements of assault?
   
   1. Defendant [blank_start]creates[blank_end]
   2. [blank_start]reasonable[blank_end] [blank_start]apprehension[blank_end] in the plaintiff
   3. of [blank_start]imminent[blank_end] [blank_start]harmful[blank_end] or [blank_start]offensive[blank_end] [blank_start]bodily[blank_end] [blank_start]contact[blank_end] to the plaintiff's person
   4. with [blank_start]specific or general intent[blank_end]

   1. Acreates
   2. Breasonable
   3. Capprehension
   4. Dimminent
   5. Eharmful
   6. Foffensive
   7. Gbodily
   8. Hcontact
   9. Ispecific or general intent
6. 6Words [blank_start]do not[blank_end] constitute assault

   1. Ado not
7. 7What are the elements of false imprisonment?
   
   1. D [blank_start]causes[blank_end]
   2. P's [blank_start]confinement[blank_end] within [blank_start]fixed[blank_end] [blank_start]boundaries[blank_end]
   3. [blank_start]with specific or general intent[blank_end]

   1. Awith specific or general intent
   2. Bcauses
   3. Cconfinement
   4. Dfixed
   5. Eboundaries
8. 8What methods can D use to confine P?
   
   1. [blank_start]physical barriers[blank_end]
   2. [blank_start]force[blank_end]
   3. [blank_start]threats[blank_end]
   4. [blank_start]invalid use of authority[blank_end]
   5. [blank_start]duress[blank_end]
   6. [blank_start]failure[blank_end] to provide a [blank_start]safe means of escape[blank_end]

   1. Aphysical barriers
   2. Bforce
   3. Cthreats
   4. Dinvalid use of authority
   5. Eduress
   6. Ffailure
   7. Gsafe means of escape
9. 9What constitutes confinement?
   
   1. [blank_start]no reasonable means of escape[blank_end]
   2. [blank_start]P is aware or harmed[blank_end]

   1. Ano reasonable means of escape
   2. BP is aware or harmed
10. 10What is the shopkeeper's privilege?
    
    1. [blank_start]Shopkeeper can detain shoplifter[blank_end]
    2. for a [blank_start]reasonable time and manner[blank_end]

    1. AShopkeeper can detain shoplifter
    2. Breasonable time and manner

11. 11What are the elements of intentional infliction of emotion distress?
    
    1. D acts with [blank_start]extreme or outrageous conduct[blank_end]
    2. [blank_start]which causes[blank_end]
    3. [blank_start]severe emotional distress[blank_end]
    4. and [blank_start]intends[blank_end] or is [blank_start]reckless[blank_end] in causing severe emotional distress

    1. Aextreme or outrageous conduct
    2. Bwhich causes
    3. Csevere emotional distress
    4. Dintends
    5. Ereckless
12. 12What is considered extreme or outrageous conduct?
    
    Conduct that a [blank_start]reasonable person[blank_end] regards as [blank_start]intolerable in a civilized society.[blank_end]

    1. Areasonable person
    2. Bintolerable in a civilized society.
13. 13Transferred intent [blank_start]does not[blank_end] apply to intentional infliction of emotional distress.

    1. Adoes not
14. 14Unlike other intentional torts, reckless conduct [blank_start]will[blank_end] satisfy the intent requirement for IIED.

    1. Awill
15. 15What are the elements of trespass to land?
    
    1. [blank_start]D causes[blank_end]
    2. a [blank_start]physical invasion of P's real property[blank_end]
    3. [blank_start]with specific or general intent[blank_end]

    1. AD causes
    2. Bphysical invasion of P's real property
    3. Cwith specific or general intent
16. 16Mistake of fact is [blank_start]not a defense[blank_end] to trespass

    1. Anot a defense
17. 17What are the elements of trespass to chattels?
    
    1. [blank_start]D causes[blank_end]
    2. an [blank_start]interference[blank_end] with P's [blank_start]right of possession in a chattel[blank_end]
    3. and has [blank_start]specific or general intent[blank_end]

    1. AD causes
    2. Binterference
    3. Cright of possession in a chattel
    4. Dspecific or general intent
18. 18What are two ways that D can interfere with P's right of possession in a chattel?
    
    1. [blank_start]Intermeddling[blank_end]
    2. [blank_start]Dispossession[blank_end]

    1. AIntermeddling
    2. BDispossession
19. 19What are the elements of conversion?
    
    1. [blank_start]D causes[blank_end]
    2. an [blank_start]interference[blank_end] with P's [blank_start]right of possession in a chattel[blank_end]
    3. that [blank_start]deprives P entirely of the use[blank_end] of the chattel
    4. and has [blank_start]specific or general intent[blank_end]

    1. AD causes
    2. Binterference
    3. Cright of possession in a chattel
    4. Ddeprives P entirely of the use
    5. Especific or general intent
20. 20What are 3 defenses to intentional torts?
    
    1. [blank_start]consent[blank_end]
    2. [blank_start]self defense or others[blank_end]
    3. [blank_start]necessity[blank_end]

    1. Aconsent
    2. Bself defense or others
    3. Cnecessity
21. 21When is consent a defense to an intentional tort?
    
    1. [blank_start]Implied or express[blank_end] consent
    2. was [blank_start]valid[blank_end] (no fraud, incapacity)
    3. and [blank_start]D's conduct was in boundaries[blank_end] of P's consent

    1. AImplied or express
    2. Bvalid
    3. CD's conduct was in boundaries
22. 22When is self-defense or others a defense to intentional torts?
    
    1. [blank_start]D reasonably believed[blank_end]
    2. [blank_start]P was going to harm[blank_end] D or others
    3. and D used only [blank_start]proportion[blank_end] and [blank_start]reasonably necessary[blank_end] force to protect himself

    1. AD reasonably believed
    2. BP was going to harm
    3. Cproportion
    4. Dreasonably necessary
23. 23[blank_start]Deadly force[blank_end] cannot be used to prevent harm to property

    1. ADeadly force
24. 24A [blank_start]reasonable mistake[blank_end] as to the existence of danger is allowed in self-defense.

    1. Areasonable mistake
25. 25Can D use self defense if D started the fight?
    
    If [blank_start]D was initial agressor, no self defense[blank_end].
    Unless
    P responded to [blank_start]nondeadly force with deadly force[blank_end].

    1. AD was initial agressor, no self defense
    2. Bnondeadly force with deadly force
26. 26Can a D use deadly force to prevent harm to property?
    
    No, [blank_start]D can use R force[blank_end] if [blank_start]R necessary to prevent harm to property[blank_end].

    1. AD can use R force
    2. BR necessary to prevent harm to property
27. 27D can claim the defense of [blank_start]necessity[blank_end] if he entered P's land or interfered with P's personal property, provided that the D does so [blank_start]to prevent an injury[blank_end] or some [blank_start]other severe harm[blank_end].

    1. Anecessity
    2. Bto prevent an injury
    3. Cother severe harm
28. 28When is the necessity defense private?
    
    [blank_start]Private necessity[blank_end] is available if D acts [blank_start]to benefit a limited number of people[blank_end].
    D must pay for the [blank_start]actual damages he caused[blank_end].
    But landowner [blank_start]cannot use force to exclude D[blank_end] from his property.

    1. APrivate necessity
    2. Bto benefit a limited number of people
    3. Cactual damages he caused
    4. Dcannot use force to exclude D
29. 29When is the necessity defense public?
    
    D can claim [blank_start]public necessity[blank_end] if he [blank_start]acted for the public good.[blank_end]
    D [blank_start]is not liable[blank_end] for the [blank_start]property damage[blank_end] he caused.

    1. Apublic necessity
    2. Bacted for the public good.
    3. Cis not liable
    4. Dproperty damage
30. 30What are the elements for a prima facie case for negligence?
    
    1. [blank_start]Duty[blank_end]
    2. [blank_start]Breach[blank_end]
    3. [blank_start]Causation[blank_end]
    4. [blank_start]Damages[blank_end]

    1. ADuty
    2. BBreach
    3. CCausation
    4. DDamages
31. 31A duty of care is owed to all [blank_start]foreseeable[blank_end] Ps that [blank_start]may be harmed[blank_end] by D's breach
    
    Majority - [blank_start]foreseeable zone of danger[blank_end]
    Minority - [blank_start]everyone harmed[blank_end]
    

    1. Aforeseeable
    2. Bmay be harmed
    3. Cforeseeable zone of danger
    4. Deveryone harmed
32. 32When is there an affirmative duty to act?
    
    1. D places D in [blank_start]danger[blank_end]
    2. D has [blank_start]special relationship[blank_end] to P
    3. D has [blank_start]duty to act[blank_end] affirmatively imposed by law, OR
    4. D attempts to [blank_start]help or rescue P[blank_end]

    1. Adanger
    2. Bspecial relationship
    3. Cduty to act
    4. Dhelp or rescue P
33. 33A good samaritan is [blank_start]liable[blank_end] for injuries caused by his failure to [blank_start]exercise reasonable care[blank_end] in his [blank_start]aid[blank_end] or rescue.

    1. Aliable
    2. Bexercise reasonable care
    3. Caid
34. 34What is the standard of care owed by D to P?
    
    D owes P the standard of care of [blank_start]a reasonably prudent person[blank_end] under [blank_start]similar circumstances[blank_end] as measured by an [blank_start]objective[blank_end] standard.

    1. Aa reasonably prudent person
    2. Bsimilar circumstances
    3. Cobjective
35. 35D is presumed to have [blank_start]average[blank_end] mental abilities and [blank_start]knowledge[blank_end].

    1. Aaverage
    2. Bknowledge
36. 36The standard of care for a disabled person is that of [blank_start]a reasonably prudent disabled person[blank_end] under [blank_start]similar circumstances[blank_end] as measured by an [blank_start]objective[blank_end] standard.

    1. Aa reasonably prudent disabled person
    2. Bsimilar circumstances
    3. Cobjective
37. 37To what standard of care are drunk people held to?
    
    [blank_start]Sober people[blank_end]

    1. ASober people
38. 38When does the default standard of care (R person) not apply?
    
    1. [blank_start]Children[blank_end]
    2. [blank_start]Professionals[blank_end]
    3. [blank_start]Doctors[blank_end]
    4. [blank_start]Landowners[blank_end]
    5. [blank_start]Negligence per se[blank_end]

    1. AChildren
    2. BProfessionals
    3. CDoctors
    4. DLandowners
    5. ENegligence per se
39. 39Children are held to the standard of care of [blank_start]a reasonably prudent child[blank_end] of similar [blank_start]age[blank_end], [blank_start]experience[blank_end], and [blank_start]intelligence[blank_end] under the circumstances, unless the child engages in an [blank_start]adult[blank_end] activity.

    1. Aa reasonably prudent child
    2. Bage
    3. Cexperience
    4. Dintelligence
    5. Eadult
40. 40Professionals' standard of care
    
    A [blank_start]professional[blank_end] is expected to have the [blank_start]knowledge[blank_end] and [blank_start]skill[blank_end] of a member of their profession in [blank_start]good standing[blank_end] in [blank_start]similar communities[blank_end].

    1. Aprofessional
    2. Bknowledge
    3. Cskill
    4. Dgood standing
    5. Esimilar communities
41. 41Physicians are held to a [blank_start]national[blank_end] standard of care and have a duty to [blank_start]disclose the risks of treatment[blank_end] to enable patients [blank_start]to give informed consent[blank_end].

    1. Anational
    2. Bdisclose the risks of treatment
    3. Cto give informed consent
42. 42Psychotherapists have a duty [blank_start]to warn potential victims[blank_end] of of a patient's [blank_start]serious threats of harm[blank_end] if the patient has the apparent [blank_start]intent and ability[blank_end] to carry out the threats and the [blank_start]victims are readily identifiable[blank_end].

    1. Ato warn potential victims
    2. Bserious threats of harm
    3. Cintent and ability
    4. Dvictims are readily identifiable
43. 43What duty of care does a landowner owe anticipated trespassers?
    
    Landowners owe [blank_start]anticipated trespassers[blank_end] a duty [blank_start]to warn[blank_end] of hidden dangers that pose a risk of [blank_start]serious bodily harm[blank_end] (but only [blank_start]artificial conditions[blank_end] the landowner is [blank_start]aware[blank_end] of)

    1. Aanticipated trespassers
    2. Bto warn
    3. Cserious bodily harm
    4. Dartificial conditions
    5. Eaware
44. 44Landowners [blank_start]owe no duty[blank_end] to undiscovered trespassers.

    1. Aowe no duty
45. 45What duty do landowners owe to licensees?
    
    Landowners owe licensees a [blank_start]duty to warn[blank_end] them of [blank_start]hidden dangers[blank_end] that pose an [blank_start]unreasonable risk of harm[blank_end] (applies to [blank_start]artificial and natural[blank_end] conditions), but no duty to [blank_start]inspect the property[blank_end].

    1. Aduty to warn
    2. Bhidden dangers
    3. Cunreasonable risk of harm
    4. Dartificial and natural
    5. Einspect the property
46. 46What is a licensee?
    
    A person who [blank_start]lawfully enters[blank_end] the landowner's property for [blank_start]his own benefit[blank_end], such as [blank_start]social guests[blank_end].

    1. Alawfully enters
    2. Bhis own benefit
    3. Csocial guests
47. 47What duty do landowners owe invitees?
    
    Landowners owe invitees a duty [blank_start]to reasonably inspect[blank_end] the land for [blank_start]hidden dangers[blank_end] that pose [blank_start]an unreasonable risk of harm[blank_end], and to [blank_start]make safe any discovered dangers[blank_end].

    1. Ato reasonably inspect
    2. Bhidden dangers
    3. Can unreasonable risk of harm
    4. Dmake safe any discovered dangers
48. 48An invitee is [blank_start]a person the landowner invites[blank_end] for the [blank_start]landowner's own benefit[blank_end] or mutual benefit with the invitee.

    1. Aa person the landowner invites
    2. Blandowner's own benefit
49. 49What standard applies to landowners in states that reject the traditional approach distinctions between licensees and invitees?
    
    Duty of [blank_start]reasonable care to all entrants[blank_end]

    1. Areasonable care to all entrants
50. 50What is the attractive nuisance doctrine?
    
    Landowners owe child trespassers a duty to [blank_start]warn them of artificial conditions[blank_end] on the land if:
    
    1. the landowner should know the [blank_start]children are likely to trespass[blank_end] where the artificial conditions are
    2. the landowner should know the [blank_start]artificial condition[blank_end] poses an [blank_start]unreasonable risk[blank_end] of [blank_start]serious bodily injury[blank_end]
    3. due to children's [blank_start]age[blank_end], they [blank_start]do not appreciate the danger[blank_end] involved, and
    4. the [blank_start]risk of harm outweighs[blank_end] the [blank_start]expense of making the condition safe[blank_end]

    1. Awarn them of artificial conditions
    2. Bchildren are likely to trespass
    3. Cartificial condition
    4. Dunreasonable risk
    5. Eserious bodily injury
    6. Fage
    7. Gdo not appreciate the danger
    8. Hrisk of harm outweighs
    9. Iexpense of making the condition safe
51. 51A violation of a statute that imposes a duty for the benefit of others constitutes [blank_start]negligence per se[blank_end] if the plaintiff
    1. is in the [blank_start]class of people protected by the statue[blank_end] and
    2. [blank_start]suffers the type of harm[blank_end] the statute [blank_start]protects against[blank_end]
    

    1. Anegligence per se
    2. Bclass of people protected by the statue
    3. Csuffers the type of harm
    4. Dprotects against
52. 52The D is [blank_start]liable[blank_end] under negligence per se if his [blank_start]violation of the statute[blank_end] was the [blank_start]proximate cause[blank_end] of the [blank_start]plaintiff's injury[blank_end].

    1. Aliable
    2. Bviolation of the statute
    3. Cproximate cause
    4. Dplaintiff's injury
53. 53What does res ipsa loquitor mean?
    
    [blank_start]The thing speaks for itself[blank_end]

    1. AThe thing speaks for itself
54. 54Res ipsa loquitor is applied when an element of [blank_start]negligence is difficult to prove[blank_end], but the [blank_start]circumstances[blank_end] make it obvious that it was the [blank_start]cause of harm[blank_end].
    
    P must show that harm
    1. [blank_start]does not[blank_end] ordinarily [blank_start]occur without negligence[blank_end]
    2. was caused by something within [blank_start]D's exclusive control[blank_end]
    3. was [blank_start]not caused by P[blank_end] (in some jxns)

    1. Anegligence is difficult to prove
    2. Bcircumstances
    3. Ccause of harm
    4. Ddoes not
    5. Eoccur without negligence
    6. FD's exclusive control
    7. Gnot caused by P
55. 55To prove negligence, P must show that D's conduct was both the [blank_start]actual[blank_end] and [blank_start]proximate[blank_end] cause of P's injury.

    1. Aactual
    2. Bproximate
56. 56How can a P prove actual cause?
    
    P must show her injury would not have occurred [blank_start]but for D's breach[blank_end] (if [blank_start]but for[blank_end] can't be shown, courts will use a [blank_start]substantial factor[blank_end] test)

    1. Abut for D's breach
    2. Bbut for
    3. Csubstantial factor
57. 57How can P prove proximate cause?
    
    P shows her injury was a [blank_start]foreseeable result of D's conduct[blank_end].
    

    1. Aforeseeable result of D's conduct
58. 58What is an intervening cause?
    
    An [blank_start]outside action[blank_end] that [blank_start]contributes[blank_end] to P's harm [blank_start]after D's breach[blank_end] has occurred.
    
    If it is unforeseeable, it is a [blank_start]superseding cause[blank_end] and D's liability is [blank_start]cut off from that point forward[blank_end].

    1. Aoutside action
    2. Bcontributes
    3. Cafter D's breach
    4. Dsuperseding cause
    5. Ecut off from that point forward
59. 59The Fireman's Rule bars lawsuits by [blank_start]police and firefighters[blank_end] from [blank_start]collecting damages[blank_end] that occur [blank_start]in the course of duties[blank_end] even if they were due to [blank_start]negligence[blank_end].
    
    

    1. Apolice and firefighters
    2. Bcollecting damages
    3. Cin the course of duties
    4. Dnegligence
60. 60Under the eggshell plaintiff rule, D is liable for [blank_start]all harm suffered by P[blank_end], even if [blank_start]P suffers from a condition[blank_end] that [blank_start]aggravated the harm[blank_end]

    1. Aall harm suffered by P
    2. BP suffers from a condition
    3. Caggravated the harm
61. 61Under respondeat superior, [blank_start]principal may be liable[blank_end] [blank_start]for agent's torts[blank_end] if
    1. an [blank_start]employer-employee relationship exists[blank_end], and
    2. commission of the tort is [blank_start]within the agent's scope of employment[blank_end]
    
    

    1. Aprincipal may be liable
    2. Bfor agent's torts
    3. Cemployer-employee relationship exists
    4. Dwithin the agent's scope of employment
62. 62The more [blank_start]control[blank_end] that a [blank_start]principal exercises[blank_end] of over the [blank_start]agent's work[blank_end], the more an agent will be considered an [blank_start]employee[blank_end].

    1. Acontrol
    2. Bprincipal exercises
    3. Cagent's work
    4. Demployee
63. 63Employee's conduct will be considered within the scope of employment if employee's conduct was
    1. something he was [blank_start]hired to perform[blank_end]
    2. within the employee's [blank_start]authorized time and space limits[blank_end]
    3. for the [blank_start]employer's benefit[blank_end]
    4. [blank_start]foreseeable[blank_end]

    1. Ahired to perform
    2. Bauthorized time and space limits
    3. Cemployer's benefit
    4. Dforeseeable
64. 64Employer remains liable for employee's [blank_start]detour[blank_end], but not [blank_start]frolic[blank_end] (a major [blank_start]deviation from scope of employment[blank_end])

    1. Adetour
    2. Bfrolic
    3. Cdeviation from scope of employment
65. 65Employers are not liable to employees' intentional torts unless
    1. [blank_start]authorized by employer[blank_end]
    2. within [blank_start]scope of employment in employee's work[blank_end]

    1. Aauthorized by employer
    2. Bscope of employment in employee's work
66. 66Business partners are liable for their partner's torts if they are [blank_start]committed[blank_end] within the [blank_start]scope of the business's purpose[blank_end].

    1. Acommitted
    2. Bscope of the business's purpose
67. 67What are the 3 ways that a plaintiff can recover for NIED?
    1. [blank_start]Zone of Danger[blank_end]
    2. [blank_start]Bystander Recovery[blank_end]
    3. [blank_start]Special Relationship[blank_end]

    1. AZone of Danger
    2. BBystander Recovery
    3. CSpecial Relationship
68. 68What must plaintiff prove to recover for Negligent Infliction of Emotional Distress under zone of danger?
    
    1. D [blank_start]negligently[blank_end] caused [blank_start]a threat of physical impact[blank_end]
    2. P was within the [blank_start]zone of danger[blank_end] of the [blank_start]physical impact[blank_end], and
    3. [blank_start]Threat[blank_end] of the [blank_start]impact[blank_end] caused [blank_start]emotional distress[blank_end]

    1. Anegligently
    2. Ba threat of physical impact
    3. Czone of danger
    4. Dphysical impact
    5. EThreat
    6. Fimpact
    7. Gemotional distress
69. 69What must plaintiff prove to recover for negligent infliction of emotional distress under bystander recovery?
    
    1. D [blank_start]negligently[blank_end] [blank_start]inflicted[blank_end] [blank_start]bodily[blank_end] [blank_start]injury[blank_end] to another
    2. P is [blank_start]closely related[blank_end]
    3. P was [blank_start]present at the scene[blank_end], and
    4. P [blank_start]personally observed[blank_end] the injury
    
    Some jxns require the bystander plaintiff to manifest [blank_start]physical symptoms[blank_end] after witnessing the injury.

    1. Anegligently
    2. Binflicted
    3. Cbodily
    4. Dinjury
    5. Eclosely related
    6. Fpresent at the scene
    7. Gpersonally observed
    8. Hphysical symptoms
70. 70What must a plaintiff prove in order to recover for NIED under special relationship?
    
    1. A [blank_start]pre-existing[blank_end] [blank_start]relationship[blank_end] exists between the P and D, and
    2. D [blank_start]negligently[blank_end] [blank_start]mishandles a corpse[blank_end] or provides [blank_start]false medical information[blank_end]

    1. Apre-existing
    2. Brelationship
    3. Cnegligently
    4. Dmishandles a corpse
    5. Efalse medical information
71. 71Under joint and several liability, each defendant is [blank_start]independently[blank_end] [blank_start]liable[blank_end] for the [blank_start]entire[blank_end] [blank_start]damages[blank_end] resulting from the tort, and the plaintiff can collect the [blank_start]full[blank_end] [blank_start]value[blank_end] of a judgment against [blank_start]any[blank_end] [blank_start]one[blank_end] [blank_start]defendant[blank_end].

    1. Aindependently
    2. Bliable
    3. Centire
    4. Ddamages
    5. Efull
    6. Fvalue
    7. Gany
    8. Hone
    9. Idefendant
72. 72Contribution allows a [blank_start]D[blank_end] who pays [blank_start]more[blank_end] [blank_start]than[blank_end] [blank_start]his[blank_end] [blank_start]share[blank_end] [blank_start]of[blank_end] [blank_start]damages[blank_end] to recover from the other defendants their [blank_start]percentage[blank_end] [blank_start]share[blank_end] [blank_start]of[blank_end] [blank_start]fault[blank_end].

    1. AD
    2. Bmore
    3. Cthan
    4. Dhis
    5. Eshare
    6. Fof
    7. Gdamages
    8. Hpercentage
    9. Iof
    10. Jfault
    11. Kshare
73. 73Alternative liability allows a [blank_start]plaintiff[blank_end] to [blank_start]shift[blank_end] the [blank_start]burden of proving causation[blank_end] to the [blank_start]defendants[blank_end] if P can't [blank_start]identify[blank_end] which [blank_start]caused his harm[blank_end].

    1. Aplaintiff
    2. Bshift
    3. Cburden of proving causation
    4. Ddefendants
    5. Eidentify
    6. Fcaused his harm
74. 74Indemnification allows a [blank_start]passive tortfeasor[blank_end] who was [blank_start]forced to pay damages[blank_end] to [blank_start]recover complete reimbursement[blank_end] from an [blank_start]active tortfeasor[blank_end].

    1. Apassive tortfeasor
    2. Bforced to pay damages
    3. Crecover complete reimbursement
    4. Dactive tortfeasor
75. 75What are the three defenses to negligence?
    
    1. [blank_start]Contributory negligence[blank_end]
    2. [blank_start]Comparative fault[blank_end]
    3. [blank_start]Assumption of the risk[blank_end]

    1. AContributory negligence
    2. BComparative fault
    3. CAssumption of the risk
76. 76In a [blank_start]contributory negligence[blank_end] jurisdiction, the plaintiff cannot recover damages if his own negligence contributed to his injury in any way, unless the defendant
    1. engaged in [blank_start]wanton and willful misconduct[blank_end], or
    2. had [blank_start]last clear chance[blank_end] to avoid injuring the plaintiff
    
    Contributory negligence is not a valid defense for [blank_start]intentional torts[blank_end]

    1. Awanton and willful misconduct
    2. Blast clear chance
    3. Ccontributory negligence
    4. Dintentional torts
77. 77What are the two approaches to comparative fault?
    
    1. [blank_start]Pure comparative[blank_end] negligence - recovery limited by [blank_start]P's own negligence[blank_end]
    2. [blank_start]Modified comparative[blank_end] negligence - recovery limited by [blank_start]P's negligence[blank_end] and must be [blank_start]more[blank_end] [blank_start]at fault[blank_end] [blank_start]than D[blank_end]

    1. APure comparative
    2. BModified comparative
    3. CP's own negligence
    4. DP's negligence
    5. Emore
    6. Fat fault
    7. Gthan D
78. 78Assumption of risk is a defense to negligence if a party [blank_start]knowingly[blank_end] and [blank_start]willingly[blank_end] assumes the risk for [blank_start]his own purposes[blank_end]. May be [blank_start]express[blank_end] or [blank_start]implied[blank_end].

    1. Aknowingly
    2. Bwillingly
    3. Chis own purposes
    4. Dexpress
    5. Eimplied
79. 79Under strict liability, D is liable for damages regardless of how [blank_start]careful[blank_end] they were.
    
    There are 3 categories of strict liability
    
    1. [blank_start]Animals[blank_end]
    2. [blank_start]Abnormally dangerous activities[blank_end]
    3. [blank_start]Defective products[blank_end]

    1. Acareful
    2. BAnimals
    3. CAbnormally dangerous activities
    4. DDefective products
80. 80There is [blank_start]no[blank_end] strict liability for harm caused by [blank_start]domestic[blank_end] animals unless the owner [blank_start]should know[blank_end] of it's [blank_start]dangerous propensity[blank_end].

    1. Ano
    2. Bdomestic
    3. Cshould know
    4. Ddangerous propensity
81. 81What are domestic animals?
    
    Domestic animals have been [blank_start]trained[blank_end] over time to live and breed in a [blank_start]tame[blank_end] condition ([blank_start]cats[blank_end], [blank_start]dogs[blank_end], [blank_start]farm animals[blank_end])

    1. Atrained
    2. Btame
    3. Ccats
    4. Ddogs
    5. Efarm animals
82. 82What are wild animals?
    
    Animals whose [blank_start]species or class[blank_end] is not usually kept in the [blank_start]service[blank_end] of [blank_start]mankind[blank_end].
    Owners of wild animals are [blank_start]strictly liable[blank_end] for harm caused by the animal, regardless of [blank_start]safety precautions[blank_end] taken by the owner, except if the harm is caused to [blank_start]trespassers[blank_end].

    1. Aspecies or class
    2. Bservice
    3. Cmankind
    4. Dstrictly liable
    5. Esafety precautions
    6. Ftrespassers
83. 83The elements of abnormally dangerous activities are:
    
    1. [blank_start]inherently dangerous[blank_end]
    2. [blank_start]inappropriate[blank_end] for the [blank_start]location[blank_end]
    3. virtually [blank_start]impossible to make safe[blank_end], and
    4. of l[blank_start]ittle value[blank_end] to the [blank_start]community[blank_end]

    1. Ainherently dangerous
    2. Binappropriate
    3. Clocation
    4. Dimpossible to make safe
    5. Eittle value
    6. Fcommunity
84. 84What must a plaintiff prove to recover under products liability?
    
    1. Product was [blank_start]defective[blank_end] in [blank_start]manufacture[blank_end], [blank_start]design[blank_end], or [blank_start]failure to warn[blank_end]
    2. [blank_start]Defect existed[blank_end] when [blank_start]product left D's control[blank_end], and
    3. Defect caused P's injury when product was [blank_start]used[blank_end] in a [blank_start]foreseeable[blank_end] way

    1. Adefective
    2. Bmanufacture
    3. Cdesign
    4. Dfailure to warn
    5. EDefect existed
    6. Fproduct left D's control
    7. Gused
    8. Hforeseeable
85. 85A defect in manufacture requires the plaintiff to show that the product
    1. [blank_start]deviated[blank_end] from its [blank_start]intended design[blank_end], and
    2. [blank_start]failed[blank_end] to [blank_start]conform[blank_end] to the [blank_start]manufacturer's own design[blank_end].

    1. Adeviated
    2. Bintended design
    3. Cfailed
    4. Dconform
    5. Emanufacturer's own design
86. 86What are the two tests for design defects?
    
    1. Under the [blank_start]consumer expectation[blank_end] test, P must show that product is [blank_start]less safe[blank_end] than the [blank_start]ordinary consumer[blank_end] would expect.
    2. Under the [blank_start]risk-utility test,[blank_end] P must show that product's [blank_start]risks[blank_end] [blank_start]outweigh its benefits[blank_end] and that there is a [blank_start]reasonable alternative design[blank_end]

    1. Aconsumer expectation
    2. Bless safe
    3. Cordinary consumer
    4. Drisk-utility test,
    5. Erisks
    6. Foutweigh its benefits
    7. Greasonable alternative design
87. 87What must plaintiff prove under failure to warn to recover for strict product liability?
    
    1. P was not [blank_start]warned[blank_end] of the [blank_start]risks[blank_end] regarding [blank_start]use of the product[blank_end]
    2. risks are not [blank_start]obvious[blank_end] to [blank_start]an ordinary user[blank_end], and
    3. [blank_start]designer/manufacturer[blank_end] was [blank_start]aware[blank_end] of the risk

    1. Awarned
    2. Brisks
    3. Cuse of the product
    4. Dobvious
    5. Ean ordinary user
    6. Fdesigner/manufacturer
    7. Gaware
88. 88Who may pursue a products liability claim?
    
    Any person [blank_start]foreseeably injured[blank_end] by a [blank_start]defective product[blank_end] may pursue a products liability claim.

    1. Aforeseeably injured
    2. Bdefective product
89. 89Who can a products liability claim be brought against?
    
    A products liability claim may be brought against a [blank_start]merchant[blank_end] who is in the [blank_start]chain of distribution.[blank_end]

    1. Amerchant
    2. Bchain of distribution
90. 90Who is considered a merchant?
    
    Any person or entity who [blank_start]routinely[blank_end] [blank_start]deals[blank_end] in [blank_start]goods of the type[blank_end]

    1. Aroutinely
    2. Bdeals
    3. Cgoods of the type
91. 91What are the elements of defamation?
    
    1. [blank_start]D publishes[blank_end]
    2. a [blank_start]defamatory statement[blank_end]
    3. [blank_start]of or concerning the plaintiff[blank_end]
    4. causing [blank_start]damage to the plaintiff's reputation[blank_end]

    1. AD publishes
    2. Bdefamatory statement
    3. Cof or concerning the plaintiff
    4. Ddamage to the plaintiff's reputation
92. 92How can a plaintiff prove that a defamatory statement was published?
    
    The statement was [blank_start]communicated[blank_end] to a [blank_start]third party[blank_end] who [blank_start]understands[blank_end] the content of the statement.

    1. Acommunicated
    2. Bthird party
    3. Cunderstands
93. 93What is a defamatory statement?
    
    A statement that is [blank_start]false[blank_end] and [blank_start]not an opinion[blank_end].

    1. Afalse
    2. Bnot an opinion
94. 94How can a plaintiff prove that a defamatory statement is "of or concerning the plaintiff?"
    
    A [blank_start]reasonable person[blank_end] must [blank_start]believe[blank_end] that the defamatory statement [blank_start]referred[blank_end] to this [blank_start]particular plaintiff.[blank_end]

    1. Areasonable person
    2. Bbelieve
    3. Creferred
    4. Dparticular plaintiff
95. 95If the plaintiff is a public official of public figure suing for defamation, what additional elements must he prove?
    
    D [blank_start]knew[blank_end] the [blank_start]statement[blank_end] was [blank_start]false[blank_end], or acted with [blank_start]reckless disregard[blank_end] for the [blank_start]truth[blank_end].
    
    

    1. Aknew
    2. Bstatement
    3. Cfalse
    4. Dreckless disregard
    5. Etruth
96. 96What additional element must a plaintiff prove if he is a private person and the defamatory statement is of public concern?
    
    1. [blank_start]statement was false[blank_end] , and
    2. speaker was at least [blank_start]negligent[blank_end]

    1. Astatement was false
    2. Bnegligent
97. 97What kind of damages can a plaintiff recover for defamation if he is a public official or figure?
    
    Only [blank_start]actual[blank_end] [blank_start]proven[blank_end] damages, not [blank_start]punitive[blank_end] or [blank_start]presumed[blank_end] damages.

    1. Aactual
    2. Bproven
    3. Cpunitive
    4. Dpresumed
98. 98What kind of damages can a plaintiff recover for defamation if he is a private individual and the statement is a matter of public concern?
    
    [blank_start]Actual[blank_end] [blank_start]proven[blank_end] damages, unless P can show [blank_start]malice[blank_end] (D [blank_start]knew[blank_end] the statement was [blank_start]false[blank_end] or acted with [blank_start]reckless[blank_end] [blank_start]disregard for the truth[blank_end])

    1. AActual
    2. Bproven
    3. Cmalice
    4. Dknew
    5. Efalse
    6. Freckless
    7. Gdisregard for the truth
99. 99What is libel?
    
    Libel is a [blank_start]written[blank_end] or [blank_start]recorded[blank_end] statement. Recovery is allowed [blank_start]without[blank_end] [blank_start]proof[blank_end] of [blank_start]concrete[blank_end] [blank_start]measurable[blank_end] [blank_start]harm[blank_end].
    

    1. Awritten
    2. Brecorded
    3. Cwithout
    4. Dproof
    5. Econcrete
    6. Fmeasurable
    7. Gharm
100. 100What is slander?
     
     Slander is a [blank_start]spoken[blank_end] statement that is [blank_start]not recorded[blank_end]. P can only recover [blank_start]special[blank_end] damages ([blank_start]actual[blank_end] [blank_start]economic[blank_end] loss), unless [blank_start]slander per se[blank_end] applies.

     1. Aspoken
     2. Bnot recorded
     3. Cspecial
     4. Dactual
     5. Eeconomic
     6. Fslander per se
101. 101What are the four types of statements that fall under slander per se?
     
     Statements
     1. that [blank_start]impugn[blank_end] P's [blank_start]business integrity[blank_end] or [blank_start]skill[blank_end]
     2. of [blank_start]unchastity[blank_end] about an [blank_start]unmarried woman[blank_end]
     3. of P having a [blank_start]loathsome disease[blank_end]
     4. attributing a [blank_start]crime[blank_end] of [blank_start]moral turpitude[blank_end] to P

     1. Aimpugn
     2. Bbusiness integrity
     3. Cskill
     4. Dunchastity
     5. Eunmarried woman
     6. Floathsome disease
     7. Gcrime
     8. Hmoral turpitude

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Quiz on Quiz T, created by V vv on 18/12/2018.

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