Test
IHS Intro to Anesthesia Meds
Este test tiene tipos de pregunta que se abren en el reproductor de siempre.
Preguntas del test (90)
1What is the most commonly administered pre-operative sedative category?
- ABenzodiazepines
- BOpioids
- CAnticholinergics
- DAntisialogue
2[blank_start]Midazolam[blank_end] is the most commonly administered benzo. Its therapeutic dose is [blank_start]1[blank_end] to [blank_start]2[blank_end] milligrams IV.
- AMidazolam
- B1
- C2
3Which of the following is NOT one of the actions of a benzodiazepine?
- AAnxiety
- BSedation
- CAmnesia
- DAnalgesia
4What category of medications produces analgesia during anesthesia?
- ABenzodiazepines
- BOpioids
- CAntislalogues
- DAnticholinergics
5Which of the following is the typical analgesic of choice?
- AFentanyl
- BMorphine
- CDilaudid
- DDemerol
6What is the pre-operative dose for Fentanyl?
- A25-100 mcg
- B25 to 50 mcg
- C5 to 15 mg
- D20 to 80 mcg
7Which of the following is NOT an advantage of opioid administration?
- AAbsence of direct myocardial depression
- BLess narcotic requirement postoperatively
- CReduction of pain before placing lines pre-operatively
- DDepression of the medullary ventilatory center
8Select all that you would be concerned about when administering an opioid for analgesia:
- ADecreased responsiveness to CO2
- BRelaxation of the peripheral vascular smooth muscle
- CNausea and vomiting
- DRisk of gastric aspiration
- EDirect myocardial depression
- FGreater post-op requirements for pain medications
9What is the recommended dose for morphine?
- A5 to 15 mg
- B2 to 10 mg
- C10 to 20 mg
- D5 to 15 mcg
10[blank_start]Robinol[blank_end] is the typical anticholinergic given.
- ARobinol
11Select all of the known side effects of Robinol.
- AAntislalogue
- BSedative and amnesic
- CCentral nervous system toxicity
- DRelaxation of LES
- EMydriasis and cycloplegia
12Select all of the side effects of scopolamine.
- AAntislalogue
- BSedative and amnesic effects
- CCentral nervous system toxicity
- DRelaxation of LES
- EMydriasis and cycloplegia
13[blank_start]Mydriasis[blank_end] is dilation of the pupil. [blank_start]Scopolamine[blank_end] can cause this.
- AMydriasis
- BScopolamine
14Medications that have an antisialogogue effect are particularly effective for what procedure types?
- AIntraoral procedures
- BBronchoscopy
- CFiberoptic intubations
- DSupine cases
- ELateral cases
15What are the effects of atropine?
- AAntisialagogue
- BSedative and amnesic
- CCentral nervous system toxicity
- DRelaxation of the LES
- EMydriasis and cycloplegia
16[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] are most commonly administered in pediatric patients due to their strong vagal reactions.
- AAnticholinergics
17Which anticholinergic is most commonly associated with producing CNS toxicity?
- AAtropine
- BScopolamine
- CRobinol
18What is the dose for atropine?
- A0.3 to 0.6 mg
- B1 to 6 mg
- C0.3 to 0.6 mcg
- D1 to 6 mcg
19The therapeutic dose for Robinol is [blank_start]0.1[blank_end] mg IV.
- A0.1
20Anticholinergics don't have selective action to receptors. They can cause a blockade of [blank_start]muscarinic[blank_end] receptors in the CNS. As a result, you need to administer an anticholinergic along with a medication like [blank_start]neostigmine[blank_end].
- Amuscarinic
- Bneostigmine
21What conditions should NOT give you pause in administering an anticholinergic?
- ACAD
- BMitral/Aortic stenosis
- CAtrial fibrillation
- DBradycardia
22[blank_start]Proton pump inhibitors[blank_end] suppress acid secretion in response to all primary stimulants: histamine, gastrin, and acetylcholine.
- AProton pump inhibitors
23The three medications in the triple-threat aspiration prophylaxis are: [blank_start]Bicitra[blank_end], [blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end], and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end].
- ABicitra
- BPepcid
- CRaglan
24What is the dose for Bicitra?
- A15 to 30 ml
- B10 to 20 ml
- C1 to 3 ml
- D5 to 15 ml
25What is the dose for Tagamet?
- A200 to 300 mg
- B100 to 150 mg
- C25 to 100 mg
- D250 to 350 mg
26What is the dose for Zantac IV?
- A25 mg
- B50 mg
- C75 mg
- D100 mg
27What is the dose for Pepcid?
- A200 to 300 mg
- B150 mg
- C20 to 40 mg
28An [blank_start]H2 antagonist[blank_end] counters the ability of histamine to induce secretion of gastric fluid with a high concentration of H* ions.
- AH2 antagonist
29Which of the following is not a proton pump inhibitor?
- APrilosec
- BProtonix
- CNexium
- DPrevacid
- EPepcid
30[blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end] is the most common H2 antagonist. The typical dose is [blank_start]20[blank_end] to [blank_start]40[blank_end] mg PO.
- APepcid
- B20
- C40
31[blank_start]Prokinetics[blank_end] are responsible for a decrease in gastric fluid volume.
- AProkinetics
32What is the dose for Raglan?
- A5 mg IV
- B10 mg IV
- C15 mg IV
- D20 mg IV
33[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end] can work against each other as one can relax the LES and the other can increase LES.
- AAnticholinergics
- BRaglan
34Prokinetics like Reglan alter gastric pH.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
35What is an example of an alpha 2 agonist?
- AClonidine
- BAtropine
- CDecadron
- DHaldol
36What is the dose for Clonidine?
- A0.1 to 0.3 mg
- B1 to 2 mg
- C20 to 40 mg
- D0.1 to 1 mg
37Which of the following isn't an effect of clonidine?
- ACentral-acting anti-hypertensive
- BSedation
- CReduces incidence of MI during surgery
- DTachycardia
38[blank_start]Antihistamines[blank_end] are recommended for pre-medication in patients undergoing high-risk procedures, like radiography dye studies.
- AAntihistamines
39What is NOT an example of a case when you would administer a GI prophylaxis for N/V?
- APatients with a history of PONV
- BLaparoscopic procedures
- CWomen undergoing gynecologic procedures
- DRadiographic dye studies
40Which of the following is not an induction agent?
- ASuccinylcholine
- BPropofol
- CEtomidate
- DBrevital
41The [blank_start]reticular activating system[blank_end] is a polysynaptic pathway that travels from the brainstem to the cerebral cortex that is intimately concerned with the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.
- Areticular activating system
42It's likely most of the anesthetic agents exert depressant effects on the RAS.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
43What is the induction dose of thiopental?
- A1 to 5 mg/kg
- B3 to 6 mg/kg
- C5 to 10 mg/kg
- D10 to 15 mg/kg
44What should you reconstitute thiopental with?
- AIsotonic sodium chloride
- BLactated ringer's
- CAcidic solution
- DVecuronium
45Accidental intra-arterial injection is a serious concern for [blank_start]thiopental[blank_end].
- Athiopental
46[blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] works through the facilitation of inhibitory neurotransmission mediated by GABA receptor.
- APropofol
47The induction dose for Propofol is:
- A1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
- B100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
- C25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
48The maintenance infusion for general anesthesia for Propofol is:
- A1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
- B100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
- C25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
49The maintenance infusion for sedation for Propofol is:
- A1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
- B100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
- C25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
50A person with an egg allergy can't receive Propofol.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
51[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] works by binding to a subunit of the GABA type A receptor. This increases its affinity for GABA, which causes depression of the RAS.
- AEtomidate
52What is the induction dosage for Etomidate?
- A0.2 to 0.3 mg/kg
- B1 to 3 mg/kg
- C20 to 40 mg/kg
- D0.1 to 0.5 mg/kg
53Etomidate has minimal effects on the CV system.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
54Both [blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] and [blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] cause pain on injection. You can mix them with lidocaine.
- AEtomidate
- BPropofol
55[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] can cause myoclonus.
- AEtomidate
56The induction dose for Brevital is:
- A1 - 3 mg/kg
- B2 - 4 mg/kg
- C5 to 10 mg/kg
- D10 to 15 mg/kg
57Brevital is cleared by the liver at a [blank_start]faster[blank_end] rate than thiopental.
- Afaster
58Sux increases the following:
1. [blank_start]Intraocular[blank_end] pressure
2. [blank_start]Intragastric[blank_end] pressure
3. [blank_start]Intracranial[blank_end] pressure
4. [blank_start]Serum potassium levels[blank_end]- AIntraocular
- BIntragastric
- CIntracranial
- DSerum potassium levels
59The dosage for succinylcholine is:
- A0.5 - 2 mg/kg
- B1 - 1.5 mg/kg
- C2 - 2.5 mg/kg
- D3 - 5 mg/kg
60Succinylcholine is a [blank_start]depolarizing[blank_end] agent.
- Adepolarizing
61Name the four M's of succinylcholine:
1. [blank_start]Malignant hyperthermia[blank_end]
2. [blank_start]Myalgias[blank_end]
3. [blank_start]Myocardium[blank_end]
4. [blank_start]Myopathies[blank_end]- AMalignant hyperthermia
- BMyalgias
- CMyocardium
- DMyopathies
62Medications like vecuronium, rocuronium, pancuronium, and cistracurium are [blank_start]nondepolarizing[blank_end] blocking drugs.
- Anondepolarizing
63What is the incubation dose for vecuronium?
- A0.08 to 0.1 mg/kg
- B1 to 8 mg/kg
- C5 to 15 mg/kg
64How long does an intubating dose of vecuronium last?
- A5 minutes
- B10 minutes
- C20 minutes
- Done hour
65What type of patient wouldn't be a good candidate for vecuronium?
- ACardiac dysfunction
- BLiver/Kidney dysfunction
- CDiabetes
- DLung disease
66What is the intubation dose for Rocuronium?
- A0.1 mg/kg
- B1 mg/kg
- C2 mg/kg
- D5 mg/kg
67Rocuronium has a longer duration of intubating dose than vecuronium.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
68Intubating dose for Atracurium is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.5[blank_end] mg/kg.
- A0.4
- B0.5
69The intubation dose for Cisatracurium (Nimbex) is:
- A0.2 mg/kg
- B1 mg/kg
- C5 mg/kg
- D10 mg/kg
70Cisatracurium is less potent than atracurium.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
71Which two neuromuscular agents are those that are eliminated via Hoffman elimination:
- AAtracurium and Cisatracurium
- BVecuronium and Rocuronium
- CAtracurium and Rocuronium
- DCisatracurium and Rocuronium
72Which of the following is NOT an action of inhaled anesthetics?
- AImmobility
- BAmnesia
- CCNS Depression
- DAnalgesia
- EMuscle relaxation
73MAC stands for [blank_start]minimum alveolar concentration[blank_end].
- Aminimum alveolar concentration
74The MAC of nitrous oxide is [blank_start]105[blank_end] percent.
- A105
75Nitrous oxide shouldn't be avoided in patients with the following:
- AAt-risk for nausea and vomiting
- BIn pregnancy
- CWith suspected bowel blockage
- DAt-risk for diffusion into air-containing cavities
76Nitrous oxide is more soluble than nitrogen in the blood.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
77The MAC of isoflurane (Forane) is [blank_start]1.2[blank_end] percent.
- A1.2
78Non depolarizing NMBAs are potentiated by [blank_start]isoflurane[blank_end].
- Aisoflurane
79The MAC of desflurane is [blank_start]6[blank_end] percent.
- A6
80The only difference between isoflurane and desflurane is the substitution of a [blank_start]fluorine[blank_end] atom for isoflurane's [blank_start]chlorine[blank_end] atom.
- Afluorine
- Bchlorine
81Which anesthetic gas requires a special, electrically heated vaporizer?
- ADesflurane
- BIsoflurane
- CSevoflurane
- DNitrous oxide
82Wakeup times for [blank_start]desflurane[blank_end] are 50 percent less than those observed following isoflurane.
- Adesflurane
83The MAC of sevoflurane is [blank_start]2[blank_end] percent.
- A2
84[blank_start]Sevoflurane[blank_end] is an excellent induction agent for pediatric patients because it is non-pungent.
- ASevoflurane
85Which of the following is not a disadvantage of sevoflurane?
- AProduction of compound A
- BShouldn't be used in longer cases
- CHigher fresh gas flows of at least 2 liters
- DIs degraded by desiccated CO2 absorbent into potentially clinically significant levels of carbon monoxide
86[blank_start]Non depolarizing[blank_end] muscle relaxants act by competing with ACh for nicotinic cholinergic receptors for binding sites, which results in a blockade of neuromuscular transmission.
- ANon depolarizing
- BDepolarizing
87Neostigmine is an [blank_start]anticholinesterase[blank_end]. It works by inhibiting the amount of acetylcholine available to compete with nondepolarizing agents.
- Aanticholinesterase
88The dosage for neostigmine is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.8[blank_end] mg/kg.
- A0.8
- B0.4
89Neostigmine's duration is [blank_start]one hour[blank_end], give or take.
- Aone hour
90Sugammadex (Bridion) is FDA-approved to reverse [blank_start]rocuronium[blank_end] and [blank_start]vecuronium[blank_end].
- Arocuronium
- Bvecuronium
Información
- Descripción
- Test sobre IHS Intro to Anesthesia Meds, creado por Rachel Nall el 07/06/2016.
- Autor
- Rachel Nall
- Idioma
- English
- Visitas
- 86
- Valoración
- 5,0 de 5 · 1 valoración Valora este test