Quiz
IHS Intro to Anesthesia Meds
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Perguntas do quiz (90)
1What is the most commonly administered pre-operative sedative category?
- ABenzodiazepines
- BOpioids
- CAnticholinergics
- DAntisialogue
2[blank_start]Midazolam[blank_end] is the most commonly administered benzo. Its therapeutic dose is [blank_start]1[blank_end] to [blank_start]2[blank_end] milligrams IV.
- AMidazolam
- B1
- C2
3Which of the following is NOT one of the actions of a benzodiazepine?
- AAnxiety
- BSedation
- CAmnesia
- DAnalgesia
4What category of medications produces analgesia during anesthesia?
- ABenzodiazepines
- BOpioids
- CAntislalogues
- DAnticholinergics
5Which of the following is the typical analgesic of choice?
- AFentanyl
- BMorphine
- CDilaudid
- DDemerol
6What is the pre-operative dose for Fentanyl?
- A25-100 mcg
- B25 to 50 mcg
- C5 to 15 mg
- D20 to 80 mcg
7Which of the following is NOT an advantage of opioid administration?
- AAbsence of direct myocardial depression
- BLess narcotic requirement postoperatively
- CReduction of pain before placing lines pre-operatively
- DDepression of the medullary ventilatory center
8Select all that you would be concerned about when administering an opioid for analgesia:
- ADecreased responsiveness to CO2
- BRelaxation of the peripheral vascular smooth muscle
- CNausea and vomiting
- DRisk of gastric aspiration
- EDirect myocardial depression
- FGreater post-op requirements for pain medications
9What is the recommended dose for morphine?
- A5 to 15 mg
- B2 to 10 mg
- C10 to 20 mg
- D5 to 15 mcg
10[blank_start]Robinol[blank_end] is the typical anticholinergic given.
- ARobinol
11Select all of the known side effects of Robinol.
- AAntislalogue
- BSedative and amnesic
- CCentral nervous system toxicity
- DRelaxation of LES
- EMydriasis and cycloplegia
12Select all of the side effects of scopolamine.
- AAntislalogue
- BSedative and amnesic effects
- CCentral nervous system toxicity
- DRelaxation of LES
- EMydriasis and cycloplegia
13[blank_start]Mydriasis[blank_end] is dilation of the pupil. [blank_start]Scopolamine[blank_end] can cause this.
- AMydriasis
- BScopolamine
14Medications that have an antisialogogue effect are particularly effective for what procedure types?
- AIntraoral procedures
- BBronchoscopy
- CFiberoptic intubations
- DSupine cases
- ELateral cases
15What are the effects of atropine?
- AAntisialagogue
- BSedative and amnesic
- CCentral nervous system toxicity
- DRelaxation of the LES
- EMydriasis and cycloplegia
16[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] are most commonly administered in pediatric patients due to their strong vagal reactions.
- AAnticholinergics
17Which anticholinergic is most commonly associated with producing CNS toxicity?
- AAtropine
- BScopolamine
- CRobinol
18What is the dose for atropine?
- A0.3 to 0.6 mg
- B1 to 6 mg
- C0.3 to 0.6 mcg
- D1 to 6 mcg
19The therapeutic dose for Robinol is [blank_start]0.1[blank_end] mg IV.
- A0.1
20Anticholinergics don't have selective action to receptors. They can cause a blockade of [blank_start]muscarinic[blank_end] receptors in the CNS. As a result, you need to administer an anticholinergic along with a medication like [blank_start]neostigmine[blank_end].
- Amuscarinic
- Bneostigmine
21What conditions should NOT give you pause in administering an anticholinergic?
- ACAD
- BMitral/Aortic stenosis
- CAtrial fibrillation
- DBradycardia
22[blank_start]Proton pump inhibitors[blank_end] suppress acid secretion in response to all primary stimulants: histamine, gastrin, and acetylcholine.
- AProton pump inhibitors
23The three medications in the triple-threat aspiration prophylaxis are: [blank_start]Bicitra[blank_end], [blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end], and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end].
- ABicitra
- BPepcid
- CRaglan
24What is the dose for Bicitra?
- A15 to 30 ml
- B10 to 20 ml
- C1 to 3 ml
- D5 to 15 ml
25What is the dose for Tagamet?
- A200 to 300 mg
- B100 to 150 mg
- C25 to 100 mg
- D250 to 350 mg
26What is the dose for Zantac IV?
- A25 mg
- B50 mg
- C75 mg
- D100 mg
27What is the dose for Pepcid?
- A200 to 300 mg
- B150 mg
- C20 to 40 mg
28An [blank_start]H2 antagonist[blank_end] counters the ability of histamine to induce secretion of gastric fluid with a high concentration of H* ions.
- AH2 antagonist
29Which of the following is not a proton pump inhibitor?
- APrilosec
- BProtonix
- CNexium
- DPrevacid
- EPepcid
30[blank_start]Pepcid[blank_end] is the most common H2 antagonist. The typical dose is [blank_start]20[blank_end] to [blank_start]40[blank_end] mg PO.
- APepcid
- B20
- C40
31[blank_start]Prokinetics[blank_end] are responsible for a decrease in gastric fluid volume.
- AProkinetics
32What is the dose for Raglan?
- A5 mg IV
- B10 mg IV
- C15 mg IV
- D20 mg IV
33[blank_start]Anticholinergics[blank_end] and [blank_start]Raglan[blank_end] can work against each other as one can relax the LES and the other can increase LES.
- AAnticholinergics
- BRaglan
34Prokinetics like Reglan alter gastric pH.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
35What is an example of an alpha 2 agonist?
- AClonidine
- BAtropine
- CDecadron
- DHaldol
36What is the dose for Clonidine?
- A0.1 to 0.3 mg
- B1 to 2 mg
- C20 to 40 mg
- D0.1 to 1 mg
37Which of the following isn't an effect of clonidine?
- ACentral-acting anti-hypertensive
- BSedation
- CReduces incidence of MI during surgery
- DTachycardia
38[blank_start]Antihistamines[blank_end] are recommended for pre-medication in patients undergoing high-risk procedures, like radiography dye studies.
- AAntihistamines
39What is NOT an example of a case when you would administer a GI prophylaxis for N/V?
- APatients with a history of PONV
- BLaparoscopic procedures
- CWomen undergoing gynecologic procedures
- DRadiographic dye studies
40Which of the following is not an induction agent?
- ASuccinylcholine
- BPropofol
- CEtomidate
- DBrevital
41The [blank_start]reticular activating system[blank_end] is a polysynaptic pathway that travels from the brainstem to the cerebral cortex that is intimately concerned with the electrical activity of the cerebral cortex.
- Areticular activating system
42It's likely most of the anesthetic agents exert depressant effects on the RAS.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
43What is the induction dose of thiopental?
- A1 to 5 mg/kg
- B3 to 6 mg/kg
- C5 to 10 mg/kg
- D10 to 15 mg/kg
44What should you reconstitute thiopental with?
- AIsotonic sodium chloride
- BLactated ringer's
- CAcidic solution
- DVecuronium
45Accidental intra-arterial injection is a serious concern for [blank_start]thiopental[blank_end].
- Athiopental
46[blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] works through the facilitation of inhibitory neurotransmission mediated by GABA receptor.
- APropofol
47The induction dose for Propofol is:
- A1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
- B100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
- C25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
48The maintenance infusion for general anesthesia for Propofol is:
- A1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
- B100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
- C25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
49The maintenance infusion for sedation for Propofol is:
- A1.5 to 2.5 mg/kg
- B100 to 200 mcg/kg/min
- C25 to 75 mcg/kg/min
50A person with an egg allergy can't receive Propofol.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
51[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] works by binding to a subunit of the GABA type A receptor. This increases its affinity for GABA, which causes depression of the RAS.
- AEtomidate
52What is the induction dosage for Etomidate?
- A0.2 to 0.3 mg/kg
- B1 to 3 mg/kg
- C20 to 40 mg/kg
- D0.1 to 0.5 mg/kg
53Etomidate has minimal effects on the CV system.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
54Both [blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] and [blank_start]Propofol[blank_end] cause pain on injection. You can mix them with lidocaine.
- AEtomidate
- BPropofol
55[blank_start]Etomidate[blank_end] can cause myoclonus.
- AEtomidate
56The induction dose for Brevital is:
- A1 - 3 mg/kg
- B2 - 4 mg/kg
- C5 to 10 mg/kg
- D10 to 15 mg/kg
57Brevital is cleared by the liver at a [blank_start]faster[blank_end] rate than thiopental.
- Afaster
58Sux increases the following:
1. [blank_start]Intraocular[blank_end] pressure
2. [blank_start]Intragastric[blank_end] pressure
3. [blank_start]Intracranial[blank_end] pressure
4. [blank_start]Serum potassium levels[blank_end]- AIntraocular
- BIntragastric
- CIntracranial
- DSerum potassium levels
59The dosage for succinylcholine is:
- A0.5 - 2 mg/kg
- B1 - 1.5 mg/kg
- C2 - 2.5 mg/kg
- D3 - 5 mg/kg
60Succinylcholine is a [blank_start]depolarizing[blank_end] agent.
- Adepolarizing
61Name the four M's of succinylcholine:
1. [blank_start]Malignant hyperthermia[blank_end]
2. [blank_start]Myalgias[blank_end]
3. [blank_start]Myocardium[blank_end]
4. [blank_start]Myopathies[blank_end]- AMalignant hyperthermia
- BMyalgias
- CMyocardium
- DMyopathies
62Medications like vecuronium, rocuronium, pancuronium, and cistracurium are [blank_start]nondepolarizing[blank_end] blocking drugs.
- Anondepolarizing
63What is the incubation dose for vecuronium?
- A0.08 to 0.1 mg/kg
- B1 to 8 mg/kg
- C5 to 15 mg/kg
64How long does an intubating dose of vecuronium last?
- A5 minutes
- B10 minutes
- C20 minutes
- Done hour
65What type of patient wouldn't be a good candidate for vecuronium?
- ACardiac dysfunction
- BLiver/Kidney dysfunction
- CDiabetes
- DLung disease
66What is the intubation dose for Rocuronium?
- A0.1 mg/kg
- B1 mg/kg
- C2 mg/kg
- D5 mg/kg
67Rocuronium has a longer duration of intubating dose than vecuronium.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
68Intubating dose for Atracurium is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.5[blank_end] mg/kg.
- A0.4
- B0.5
69The intubation dose for Cisatracurium (Nimbex) is:
- A0.2 mg/kg
- B1 mg/kg
- C5 mg/kg
- D10 mg/kg
70Cisatracurium is less potent than atracurium.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
71Which two neuromuscular agents are those that are eliminated via Hoffman elimination:
- AAtracurium and Cisatracurium
- BVecuronium and Rocuronium
- CAtracurium and Rocuronium
- DCisatracurium and Rocuronium
72Which of the following is NOT an action of inhaled anesthetics?
- AImmobility
- BAmnesia
- CCNS Depression
- DAnalgesia
- EMuscle relaxation
73MAC stands for [blank_start]minimum alveolar concentration[blank_end].
- Aminimum alveolar concentration
74The MAC of nitrous oxide is [blank_start]105[blank_end] percent.
- A105
75Nitrous oxide shouldn't be avoided in patients with the following:
- AAt-risk for nausea and vomiting
- BIn pregnancy
- CWith suspected bowel blockage
- DAt-risk for diffusion into air-containing cavities
76Nitrous oxide is more soluble than nitrogen in the blood.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
77The MAC of isoflurane (Forane) is [blank_start]1.2[blank_end] percent.
- A1.2
78Non depolarizing NMBAs are potentiated by [blank_start]isoflurane[blank_end].
- Aisoflurane
79The MAC of desflurane is [blank_start]6[blank_end] percent.
- A6
80The only difference between isoflurane and desflurane is the substitution of a [blank_start]fluorine[blank_end] atom for isoflurane's [blank_start]chlorine[blank_end] atom.
- Afluorine
- Bchlorine
81Which anesthetic gas requires a special, electrically heated vaporizer?
- ADesflurane
- BIsoflurane
- CSevoflurane
- DNitrous oxide
82Wakeup times for [blank_start]desflurane[blank_end] are 50 percent less than those observed following isoflurane.
- Adesflurane
83The MAC of sevoflurane is [blank_start]2[blank_end] percent.
- A2
84[blank_start]Sevoflurane[blank_end] is an excellent induction agent for pediatric patients because it is non-pungent.
- ASevoflurane
85Which of the following is not a disadvantage of sevoflurane?
- AProduction of compound A
- BShouldn't be used in longer cases
- CHigher fresh gas flows of at least 2 liters
- DIs degraded by desiccated CO2 absorbent into potentially clinically significant levels of carbon monoxide
86[blank_start]Non depolarizing[blank_end] muscle relaxants act by competing with ACh for nicotinic cholinergic receptors for binding sites, which results in a blockade of neuromuscular transmission.
- ANon depolarizing
- BDepolarizing
87Neostigmine is an [blank_start]anticholinesterase[blank_end]. It works by inhibiting the amount of acetylcholine available to compete with nondepolarizing agents.
- Aanticholinesterase
88The dosage for neostigmine is [blank_start]0.4[blank_end] to [blank_start]0.8[blank_end] mg/kg.
- A0.8
- B0.4
89Neostigmine's duration is [blank_start]one hour[blank_end], give or take.
- Aone hour
90Sugammadex (Bridion) is FDA-approved to reverse [blank_start]rocuronium[blank_end] and [blank_start]vecuronium[blank_end].
- Arocuronium
- Bvecuronium
Informações
- Descrição
- Quiz sobre IHS Intro to Anesthesia Meds, criado por Rachel Nall em 07-06-2016.
- Autor
- Rachel Nall
- Idioma
- English
- Visualizações
- 86
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