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Preguntas del test (90)
1A double-keyed lock requires ___________
- AA key to turn the lock on either side of the lock cylinder
- BTwo different keys to operate
- CTwo keys to be turned at the same time
- DA single key for multiple locks
2A metal door with a wood or cardboard core is called a __________
- AKalamein door
- BBi-clad door
- CFire door
- DShock-proof door
3Bolt cutters will cut case-hardened steel.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
4Breaching walls and fllors is difficult, time consuming and usually a last resort.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
5It is always best to "try before you pry" in an effort to minimize property damage.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
6Looking from the outside, if the hinges of a door are not visible, the is a/an __________.
- Ainward-opening door
- Bhollow core door
- Coutward-opening door
- Dkalamein door
7Outward-opening doors are required by the Life Safety Code on which type of occupancy?
- APublic Assembly
- BIndustrial
- CSingle-family dwelling
- DMulti-family dwelling
8The "rabbit tool" is an example of a _____________.
- AHydraulic spreading tool
- BPneumatic spreading tool
- CRotary saw
- DStriking tool
9The entry point for a fire attack will usually be the ___________.
- AFront door
- BRear door
- CSide window
- DFront window
10The following are advantages of wire glass except ______________________.
- AThe wire holds the glass together, requiring removal of the glass as one entire piece.
- BIt keeps objects from breaking through
- CIt deters burglaries.
- DIt can inhibit the spread of fire
11The tool of choice to use in conjunction with a K-tool is the __________.
- AHalligan tool
- BFlat-head axe
- CPick-head axe
- DSledge hammer
12This type of door is usually distinguishable by its lack of a frame and little or no trim.
- ATempered glass
- BPlate glass
- CElectric strike
- DWooden framed door
13What is the tool of choice when forcing inward-swinging doors with electric strikes and magnetic locks?
- AHydraulic spreading device
- BHalligan tool
- CMaul
- DBattering ram
14When broken, this type of glass will form large sharp shards.
- APlate
- BTempered
- CToughened
- DSafety
15Which is true about forcible entry?
- AAlways try the least destructive method, if time allows.
- BAlways try the fastest method.
- CThe fastest method will always be the most destructive.
- DAlways try the least destructive method
16Which of the following is not one of the four typical door locks?
- AThumb-screw
- BMortise
- CRim
- DKey in knob
17Without power, a fail-secure electric strike will __________________.
- ARemain locked
- BUnlock until power is restored
- CUnlock once a minute until power is restored
- DCause a fire
18A basic water shuttle operation consists of three elements, what are they?
- ADump site, fill site, necessary fire apparatus
- BDump site, fill site, the necessary hose
- CDump site, fill site, the necessary firefighters
- DDump site, fill site, the necessary water
19A reverse lay goes from the fire to the water source.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
20As a member of the fire service, there are a few other basic properties you should know about water. A gallon of water weighs about ____________.
- A8.33 lbs
- B62.4 lbs
- C7.48 lbs
- D.434 lbs
21Engine 6 is responding to a working fire on the east side. They are second due and directed by command to lay in to Engine 13 from a nearby hydrant. What size water main are hydrants typically connected to?
- A6-inch
- B4-inch
- C8-inch
- D20-inch
22Establishing an adequate water supply is _______________________.
- AOne of the first critical elements of a successful fire attack
- BSecond only to establishing ground ladders for the points of firefighter egress
- CNot necessary for small bedroom fires in residential structures
- DRequires multiple fire fighters to drag supply line to a distant hydrant
23Hydrant spacing is typically every ________ feet in high fire load areas, and _______ feet in lesser fire loaded areas such as singe-family neighborhoods.
- A300, 500
- B250, 500
- C300, 600
- D350, 550
24Indentify relay pumping in its simplest form.
- AOne pump supplying water through fire hose to another pump.
- BTwo fire crews working together to establish water.
- CAn engine crew feeding water to a ladder truck to extinguish fire.
- DMoving water from a dump tank
25If you bleed the trapped air off of a charged hose line by cracking open the nozzle momentarily and then took a pressure reading at the closed nozzle with no water flowing. What type of pressure reading would you get?
- AStatic pressure
- BFlow pressure
- CResidual pressure
- DCumulative pressure
26It should be a goal of fire departments to inspect and maintain fire hydrants annually.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
27One cubic foot of water is approximately __________.
- A7.48 gallons
- B62.4 gallons
- C8.33 gallons
- D.434 gallons
28The best practice to prevent water hammer is by always operating valves and nozzles in a ___________________.
- ASlow deliverate and cautious manner
- BRapid motion to stop water flow before damage occurs
- CControlled setting as directed by the company officer
- DWater hammer damage does not occur in systems with hydrants
29The chief officer at a working structure fire should not be concerned at all with establishing a water supply; that is a responsibility of company officers and firefighters. The chief should concentrate on running the incident.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
30The wet barrel hydrant is typically found in freezing climates so that water is quickly available.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
31According to Boise Fire Department SOP 206.05 "water supply", it is not necessary to ensure that an adequate, uniterrupted supply of water is established when placing fire streams in operation.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
32Water in motion as it flow out the nozzle represents flow pressure.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
33Two of the most important physical rules governing water supply are that water seeks it own level and _________________.
- AIs non-compressible
- BIs wet and absorbs heart
- CIs readily available in domestic water supply systems
- DCan contribute to water damage in both residential and commercial buildings
34What is the main access point for the fire department water supply in municipal water systems?
- AHydrants
- BPools, rivers and ponds
- CDump tanks and water tankers
- DWater shuttle operations
35Which type of fire apparatus is built to carry up to 3,500 gallons of water?
- AWater tender
- BSuper pumper
- CEngine
- DLadder
36A CAD system is a _________________.
- AComputer-aided dispatch system
- BComputer-aided design system
- CComputers-added drafting system
- DComputer-automated dispatch system
37A Public Safety Communications Center is also referred to as a PSAP. A PSAP is a Public Safety Answering __________.
- APoint
- BPosition
- CPerson
- DPlace
38A device used to extend the range of a radio signal over a larger geographical; area is called a _____________.
- ARepeater
- BReceiver
- CRanger
- DRedirector
39A powerful radio located in a fixed location is know as a _________.
- ABase radio
- BPortable radio
- CMobile radio
- DRepeater radio
40Ada County fire departments use what type of radio channels on a structure fire?
- A700MHz digital
- BVHF analog
- CUHF analog
- DDuplex analog
41In a simplex radio system how many parties may speak at one time on one channel?
- A1
- B2
- C3
42Documenting the event is part of the communications process.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
43Of the critical information needed by a telecommunicator, what is the minimum need to effect a response?
- ALocation of and nature of the emergency
- BCallers name and contact number
- CConditions at the caller location
- DType of device the caller is using to report the emergency
44Per SOP 205.01, a progress report includes:
- APostion (location), Progress, Needs
- BPosition (location), Progress, Accountability
- CPostion (location), Assignment, Progress
- DAssignment, Progress, Accountability
45Public safety radio communications in the United States is regulated by ___________.
- AThe FCC
- BThe IAFF
- CThe IAFC
- DThe NVFC
46The Nation Fire Protection Association (NFPA) Standard for the Installation, Maintenance, and use of Emergency Communications Systems is known as ___________.
- ANFPA 1221
- BNFPA 1220
- CNFPA 1222
- DNFPA 1212
47The phonetic equivalent of the letters A, B, N, R and Y are:
- AAlpha, Bravo, November, Romeo, Yankee
- BAlpha, Baker, Nora, Roberts, Yellow
- CAdam, Boy, Nora, Robert, Yellow
- DAlpha, Bravo, Nora, Roger, Yankee
48The preferred method of communcations on a radio system is ______________.
- APlain language or clear text
- BPlain english
- CTen-codes
- DFire service jargon
49The radio used by a fire officer on the fireground is a ___________.
- APortable radio
- BBase radio
- CMobile radio
- DRepeater radio
50What items must be communicated initially when transmitting a Mayday (prior to acknowledgement from Command)?
- AMayday, Identifier, Location
- BMayday, Identifier, Situation, Location
- CMayday, Identifier, Situation
- DMayday, Identifier, Situation, Location, Plan
51The rumor mill is a good source of information on what is going on in the fire department.
- AVerdadero
- BFalso
52What term is used to clear all non-essential communications on the fireground for urgent communications?
- AEmergency traffic
- BMayday
- CTone alert
- DShut up so I can talk
53What term is used to have fire personnel evacuate a structure in rapid retreat, utilizing the closest egress withotu tools and equipment (except hand tools)?
- AAbandon
- BEvacuate
- CWithdraw
- DEmergency traffic
54Which of the following is the standard communication model?
- ASender calls receiver, receiver acknowledges sender, sender transmits message, receiver confirms message.
- BSender transmits message, receiver confirms message, sender acknowledges receiver understood message, receiver reports "over and out".
- CSender transmits message, receiver confirms message, sender confirms receiver understands message.
- DSender sends message, receiver confirms message
55Which term is used on an emergency scene and indicates that you are ready for a new assignment?
- AAvailable
- BIn service
- CTask complete
- DGood to go
56ICS 100. At the incident scene, who handles media inquires?
- APublic Information Officer
- BCommunications Officer
- CExternal Affair Specialist
- DMedia Relations Specialist
57ICS 100. If the Incident Commander designates personnel to provide public information, safety, and liaison services, the personnel are collectively referred to as the:
- ACommand Staff
- BDirector Staff
- CExecutive Staff
- DIncident Staff
58ICS 100. In ICS, the members of the Command Staff assume the title of:
- AOfficer
- BExecutive
- CLeader
- DDirector
59ICS 100. Span of control refers to:
- AThe number of individuals or resources that one supervisor can manage effectively during an incident.
- BThe process fo moving the responsibility for incident command from one Incident Commander to another.
- CAn orderly line of authority that exists without the ranks of the incident management organization
- DThe act of directing, ordering, or controlling by virture of explicit statutory, reulatory, or delegated authority.
60ICS 100. The Operations Section Chief:
- ADirects tactical actions to achieve the incident objectives
- BPrepares and impleents the Incident Commuication Plan
- CCoordinates communication between all responding agencies
- DSets up and maintains all incident facilites and good services
61ICS 100. The difference between a Strike Team and a Task Force is:
- AStrike Teams have similar resources while Task Forces are comprised of mixed resources.
- BStrike Teams report to an Officer while Task Forces report to ladder.
- CStrike Teams are in the Operations Section while Task Forces are in the Planning Section.
- DStrike teams have a lower span of control ration when compared to Task Forces.
62ICS 100. Which of the following organizational entities within the Operations Section may be used to divide an incident geographically?
- ADivisions
- BGroups
- CRegiments
- DUnits
63ICS 100. Who has overall responsibility for managing the on-scene incident?
- AIncident Commander
- BOperations Section Chief
- CEmergency Operations Center Manager
- DAgency Executive
64ICS 100. You are a Group Supervisor wordking in a Branch within the Operations Section. Who is your immediate supervisor?
- ABranch Director
- BBranch Executive Officer
- CBranch Leader
- DBranch Chief
65ICS 200. General Staff position conducts tactical operations, develops the tactical objectives and organization, and directs all tactical resources?
- AOperations Section Chief
- BFinance/Administration Section Chief
- CPlanning Section Chief
- DLogistics Section Chief
66ICS 200. Smith is the Situation Unit Leader. No Planning Section Chief is assigned. Who does Chris Smith report to?
- AIncident Commander
- BNo Direct Supervisor
- COperations Section Chief
- DPublic Information Officer
67ICS 200. Is responsible fo deteming the appropriate tactics for an incident?
- AThe Operations Section
- BThe Planning Section
- CThe Safety Officer
- DThe Deputy Incident Commander
68ICS 200. Level of the ICS organization may have Deputy positions: - Branch - Incident Commander - ___________________
- ASection
- BDivision
- CStaging Area
- DGroup
69ICS 200. The TRUE statement:
- ASpan of control is accomplished by organizing resources into Teams, Divisions, Groups, Branches, or Sections
- BSpan of control should be established without consideration of factor such as the type of incident, nature of the task, hazards, and safety factors.
- CSpan of control may be extended beyond 1:10 in order to ensure that more resources can be deployed on complex, large incidents.
- DSpan of control is less of a factor of concern for incidents that are resolved within the initial operational period.
70ICS 200. Within the ICS organization can be established:
- AGeographically or functionally
- BWithin Groups to organize resources
- CAlong agency jurisdictional lines
- DUnder the supervision of a Leader
71ICS 200. Representatives from Assiting or Cooperating Agencies and Organizations coordinate through:
- ALiason officer
- BPublic Information Officer
- CLogistics Sections Chief
- DOperations Section Chief
72________________ means that each individual involved in incident operations will be assigned to only one supervisor.
- AUnity of Command
- BSupervisor Authority
- CSpan of Control
- DUnified Command
73After aeration, the discharged foam product is called _______ foam.
- AFinished
- BMixed
- CAerated
- DAspirated
74All of the following are possible causes of foam generating problems EXCEPT ONE, CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.
- AAttaching the eductor directly to the apparatus discharge
- BPartially closed nozzle
- CFailure to match eductor and nozzle flow
- DNozzle is too high above the eductor
75Foam is effective on flammable liquid fires for all of the following reason EXCEPT ON, CHOOSE THE EXCEPTION.
- AIt dilutes the fuel
- BIt forms an oxygen-excluding blanket
- CIt seperates the vapors from the heat source
- DIt cools the fuel
76In addition to extinguishing flammable liquid fires, what else can class B foams be used for?
- ATo suppress vapor emission from unignited fuels
- BFor extinguishing charged electrical equipment
- CAs a detergent for haz-mat decontamination applications
- DAs a smothering agent for class D fires
77Portable foam extinguishers are examples of _________ systems.
- APremixed
- BInduction
- CDraft
- DVenturi proportioned
78Raw liquid foam as it comes from the manufacturer is known as:
- AFoam concentrate
- BChemical foam
- CUndiluted foam solution
- DFoam solution
79The application rate for AFF and FFFP is ________ gpm of foam solution per square foot of ignited hydrocarbon fuel.
- A.10
- B.01
- C1.0
- D10
80What foam formulation is effective on polar solvents?
- AAlcohol resistant AFFF
- BProtein
- CFluoroprotein
- DFilm forming fluoroprotein
81What is adding foam concentrate to a fire apparatus tank at the time it is needed called?
- ABatch mixing
- BPremixing
- CTank mixing
- DReady mixing
82What is batch-mixing foam most appropriate for?
- AClass A foam
- BClass B foam
- CCar fires
- DFoam requiring a mechanical generator
83What is the term for the mixture of foam concentrate and water before air has been added?
- AFoam solution
- BUn-aerated foam
- CFoam mix
- DProportioned foam
84Which appliance mixes the correct amount of foam concentrate with water?
- AProportioner
- BAerator
- CVenturi device
- DAspirator
85Which is one of the sides of the foam tetrahedron?
- AMechanical agitation
- BProportioning
- CAerating
- DEducting
86Which is the usual foam application method for aboveground storage tank fires?
- ARain-down
- BRoll-on
- CBank-down
- DSubsurface injection
87Which one of these is an example of a hydrocarbon fuel?
- ABenzene
- BAcetone
- CLacuer thinner
- DKetones
88Which statement about an in-line foam eductor is correct?
- AIt uses the venturi priniciple to draft foam concentrate
- BThere are two types, mechanical and manifold-driven
- CThe eductor draws air into the foam solution
- DThe pickup tube tends to clog easily
89Which type of foam can be used to reduce the surface tension of water?
- AClass A
- BHigh Expansion
- CFluoroprotein
- DProtein
90Why are regular foams ineffective on polar solvents?
- AThe foam mixes into the solvent
- BThe solvent has too high a vapor pressure
- CThe solvent floats on the foam
- DThe solvent floats on the foam solution
Información
- Descripción
- Quiz on Untitled, created by Jesse Clark on 15/09/2016.
- Autor
- Jesse Clark
- Idioma
- English
- Visitas
- 117
- Etiquetas
- Valoración
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