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Pharmacology II (100 Flash Cards)

ACAPUN INSTITUTE Flashcards: Pharmacology Praxis Spanish 100 cards

Pharmacology II (100 Flash Cards)

Cards in this deck (100)

  1. 1-lamidecarbonic anhydrase inhibitor
    acetazolamide, methazolamide
    Used to treat epilepsy, glaucoma, and altitude sickness
    -lamide
  2. 2-mabmonoclonal antibody
    adalimumab, omalizumab
    A type of immunotherapy where antibodies are developed to attack a specific antigen. Frequently used to treat rheumatoid arthritis, cancer, and transplant rejection.
    -mab
  3. 3-mycinMacrolide antibiotic
    azithromycin, clarithromycin, clindamycin, erythromycin
    Mostly work on Gram-positive bacteria. Macrolide antibiotics prevent bacterial protein synthesis by binding to the *50S ribosomal subunit*
    -mycin
  4. 4-azoleantifungal
    fluconazole, ketoconazole
    Azole antifungals inhibit the enzyme necessary to convert lanosterol to ergosterol, which is necessary for a functional fungal membrane.
    -azole
  5. 5-ololβ-blockers
    atenolol, metoprolol, propanolol
    Used to treat cardiac arrythmias and hypertension.
    -olol
  6. 6-olonecorticosteroid
    fluocinolone, prednisolone, triamcinolone
    Reduces inflammation and immune response
    -olone
  7. 7-onidecorticosteroid
    fluocinonide
    Anti-inflammatory agents
    -onide
  8. 8-parinanticoagulant
    heparin, tinzaparin, enoxaparin
    Treats DVT, pulmonary embolism, and unstable angina.
    Prevents clotting by *inhibiting Factor Xa* in the clotting cascade
    -parin
  9. 9-praminetricyclic antidepressant (TCA)
    clomipramine, imipramine, trimipramine
    Early antidepressant drugs that are now mostly replaced by newer drugs like SSRIs, SNRIs, and NRIs that have an improved side effect profile.
    -pramine
  10. 10pred-corticosteroid
    prednisone, prednisolone
    Immunosuppressant and anti-inflammatory drugs used to treat many autoimmune diseases
    pred-
  11. 11-prilACE inhibitor
    captopril, lisinopril
    Antihypertensives that lower BP by reducing the activity of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
    -pril
  12. 12-sartanangiotensin II receptor blocker
    losartan, valsartan
    Treats HTN and CHF by reducing activity of the renin-angiotensin-aldosterone system.
    -sartan
  13. 13-semideloop diuretic
    furosemide, torsemide
    Treats HTN and edema due to CHF or renal insufficiency. These drugs inhibit Na+, Cl-, and K+ reabsorption at the loop of Henle, resulting in more elimination of water by the kidney.
    Indicated for patients with impaired kidney function
    -semide
  14. 14-setronserotonin (5-HT3) antagonist
    odansetron, dolasetron
    5-HT3 antagonist drugs are antiemetics used to prevent nausea and vomiting, particularly after chemotherapy.
    -setron
  15. 15-statinHMG-CoA reductase inhibitor (Statins)
    atorvastatin, lovastatin, simvastatin
    Statins are lipid-lowering drugs that work by inhibiting HMG-CoA reductase, which is necessary for cholesterol synthesis.
    *Statins must not be taken with grapefruit juice, which inhibits CYP enzymes required to activate the drug*
    -statin
  16. 16sulfa-sulfonamide antibiotic
    sulfacetamide, sulfadiazine, sulfamethoxazole
    Contraindicated for use in patients allergic to sulfa drugs
    sulfa-
  17. 17-tadineAnti-influenza A medication
    amantadine, rimantadine
    Inhibit influenza's viral replication by preventing uncoating of the virus' envelope and capsid.
    -tadine
  18. 18-terolbronchodilator (β-agonist)
    albuterol, formoterol, levalbuterol
    Treat asthma and COPD by stimulating β2 receptors, resulting in relaxation of bronchioles.
    -terol
  19. 19-thiazidethiazide diuretic
    hydrochlorothiazide
    Drugs used to treat HTN and edema (usually caused by heart, liver, or kidney failure). Thiazide diuretics prevent reabsorption of Na+ at the distal convoluted tubule, thereby increasing water excretion.
    *Works best for patients with normal kidney function* (loop diuretics are indicated for patients with impaired kidney function)
    -thiazide
  20. 20-tinibantineoplastic (kinase inhibitor)
    crizotinib, gefitinib, imatinib
    Used to treat cancer. Work by inhibiting protein kinases, which are used by cells to phosphorylate proteins to activate them.
    -tinib
  21. 21-trelprogestin (synthetic female hormones)
    desogestrel, etonogestrel, levnorgestrel
    Used for hormonal contraceptives
    -trel
  22. 22-triptanAnti-migraine drugs (selective 5-HT receptor agonist)
    almotriptan, rizatriptan, sumatriptan
    Triptan drugs treat acute migraines after initial onset
    -triptan
  23. 23-tylinetricyclic antidepressant
    amitriptyline, nortriptyline, protriptyline
    Older drugs used to treat depression and mood disorders. Not really used much anymore because newer drugs have fewer side effects.
    -tyline
  24. 24-vudinenucleoside analog antiviral
    lamivudine, savudine, zidovudine
    Antiviral drugs used to treat hepatitis B, hepatitis C, herpes simplex, and HIV.
    zidovudine = AZT
    -vudine
  25. 25-zepambenzodiazepine
    clonazepam, diazepam, lorazepam, temazepam
    BZDs are have sedative, hypnotic, anxiolytic, anticonvulsant, and amnesic actions. Frequently used to treat anxiety.
    -zepam
  26. 26-zolambenzodiazepine
    alprazolam (xanax), midazolam, triazolam
    Anti-anxiety meds
    -zolam
  27. 27-zosinalpha blocker
    doxazosin, prazosin, terazosin
    Used to treat prostatic hyperplasia, hypertension, and PTSD.
    -zosin
  28. 28"-caine"local anesthetic"-caine"
  29. 29"-coxib"cyclooxygenase (COX)-2 inhibitors (eg, celecoxib)...inhibit inflammation and pain, different than NSAIDs which block COX-1 AND COX-2, common for arthritis"-coxib"
  30. 30"-dipine"dihydropyridine calcium channel blockers (eg, nifedipine)...these relax the muscles of heart and blood vessels, treating angina and hypertension, think "pine tree"=relaxed, de-stressed"-dipine"
  31. 31"-dronate"bisphosphonate (eg, alendronate, Fosamax)...treats osteoporosis or Paget's Disease, could cause bisphosphonate-associated osteonecrosis of the jaw, think about an old woman with osteoporosis flying a drone"-dronate"
  32. 32"-fungin"glucan synthesis inhibitor, antifungal (eg, caspofungin)...can treat a candida infection in the blood"-fungin"
  33. 33"-gliptin"dipeptidyl peptidase-4 (DPP-4) inhibitor drug for type 2 diabetes (eg, sitagliptin)...lowers blood sugar, think about a diabetic patient drinking LIPTON sugary tea and needing this drug"-gliptin"
  34. 34"-glitazone"peroxisome proliferator activated receptor gamma (PPAR-gamma) activator for type 2 diabetes (eg pioglitazone), think about a diabetic patient eating a calZONE and needing this drug"-glitazone"
  35. 35"-grel"P2Y12 adenosine diphosphate (ADP) receptor inhibitor in platelets (eg, clopidogrel, Plavix)
    -prevents heart attack and stroke, makes patients more susceptible to bleeding and bruising
    -think "grel"="gel". this is an anti-gel for platelets.
    "-grel"
  36. 36"-olol"beta-adrenergic receptor blocker (eg, propranolol)
    -treats arrythmia, protects heart from second heart attack, treats hypertension
    -"olol" looks like two backwards b's for beta-blocker
    "-olol"
  37. 37"-ilol" or "-alol"beta-adrenergic receptor blocker that also blocks alpha-1-adrenergic receptors (eg, carvedilol)....by blocking the alpha-1 receptors, it causes vasodilation of skin/brain vessels"-ilol" or "-alol"
  38. 38"-mab"monoclonal antibodies (eg, infliximab)
    -works against TNF-alpha (part of immune reaction) to treat autoimmune diseases
    -can treat rheumatoid arthritis, ankylosing spondylitis, Crohn's disease, plaque psoriasis, and ulcerative colitis.
    "-mab"
  39. 39"-onium" or "-urium"quaternary ammonium compounds, usually competitive, peripherally acting skeletal muscle relaxers (eg, pancuronium)
    -binds nicotinic acetylcholine receptor at neuromuscular junction which prevents acetylocholine from binding
    "-onium" or "-urium"
  40. 40"-osin"alpha-1-adrenergic receptor blockers (eg, prazosin)
    -vasodilation of skin and GI tract smooth muscle
    -think of a devil "sinning" by being lazy and laying on the couch digesting a bag of Doritos
    "-osin"
  41. 41"-oxacin"fluoroquinolone antibacterial (eg, moxifloxacin)
    -may treat pneumonia, sinusitis
    -think of an "ox" that has pneumonia
    "-oxacin"
  42. 42"-parin"heparin or low molecular weight heparin (eg, tinzaparin)
    -treats deep vein thrombosis and pulmonary embolism
    "-parin"
  43. 43"-prazole"proton pump inhibitor (eg, esomeprazole)
    -"omeprazole"= Omesec, Prilosec
    -treats heartburn, damaged esophagus, stomach ulcers, gastroesophogeal reflux disease (GERD)
    -think "get a prize" for not having heartburn
    "-prazole"
  44. 44"-penem"carbapenem beta-lactam antibacterial (eg, ertapenem)
    -treats pneumonia and urinary tract, skin, diabetic foot, gynecological, pelvic, and abdominal infections that are caused by bacteria
    -"penem" sounds like "PNEUMonia"
    "-penem"
  45. 45"-pril" or "-prilat"angiotensin-converting enzyme (ACE) inhibitors (eg, captopril)
    -can treat high blood pressure and heart failure
    -think "ACE", play cards in A*pril*
    "-pril" or "-prilat"
  46. 46"-sartan"angiotensin II receptor blockers (eg, losartan)
    -treats high blood pressure
    -think "sartan"="satan"= gives you high BP
    "-sartan"
  47. 47"-statin"3-hydroxy-3-methylglutaryl coenzyme A (HMG-CoA) reductase inhibitor antilipid drugs (eg, lovastatin)
    -reduces levels of cholesterol
    "-statin"
  48. 48"-teplase"Cell surface receptor types"-teplase"
  49. 49Type 1 dose response curves are ___________, and useful for determining characteristics of _____________ and ____________.Graded, agonists, antagonistsType 1 dose response curves are ___________, and useful for determining characteristics of _____________ and ____________.
  50. 50The maximal effect of a drugIntrinsic activityThe maximal effect of a drug
  51. 51The effect of a drug as a function of level of binding to its receptorEfficacyThe effect of a drug as a function of level of binding to its receptor
  52. 52-The attractiveness of a drug to its receptor -Measured by the dissociation constant, KdAffinity-The attractiveness of a drug to its receptor -Measured by the dissociation constant, Kd
  53. 53The lower the Kd, the [lower/higher] the affinityHigherThe lower the Kd, the [lower/higher] the affinity
  54. 54-The response to a drug over a given range of concentrations -Measured by the effective concentration of the drug leading to its half maximal effect, EC50Potency-The response to a drug over a given range of concentrations -Measured by the effective concentration of the drug leading to its half max...
  55. 55The effective concentration of a drug leading to its half maximal effectEC50The effective concentration of a drug leading to its half maximal effect
  56. 56-These type of drugs have intrinsic activity -They elicit a response from the tissueAgonists-These type of drugs have intrinsic activity -They elicit a response from the tissue
  57. 57These type of drugs have no intrinsic activity They do not elicit a "graded response" aloneAntagonistsThese type of drugs have no intrinsic activity They do not elicit a "graded response" alone
  58. 58The y-axis of a Type 1 graded dose response curveGraded response %The y-axis of a Type 1 graded dose response curve
  59. 59Type 2 Dose Response CurveQuantalType 2 Dose Response Curve
  60. 60Y axis of Type 2 Dose Response curveQuantity of subjects responding to a drugY axis of Type 2 Dose Response curve
  61. 61Therapeutic indexLd50/Ed50
    An estimate of the margin of safety for a drug
    Therapeutic index
  62. 62Weak acids tend to concentrate in areas of low/high pHHigh pH
    Think weak acid, strong base
    Weak acids tend to concentrate in areas of low/high pH
  63. 63Weak bases tend to concentrate in areas of low/high pHLow pH
    Think strong acid/weak base
    Weak bases tend to concentrate in areas of low/high pH
  64. 64Weak acids are excreted more rapidly at lower/higher pH because they are concentrated in the ____________ of the kidney tubuleHigher, lumenWeak acids are excreted more rapidly at lower/higher pH because they are concentrated in the ____________ of the kidney tubule
  65. 65A drug made active by metabolismProdrugA drug made active by metabolism
  66. 66Phase reaction of drug metabolism involving oxidation, reduction, hydrolysisPhase 1Phase reaction of drug metabolism involving oxidation, reduction, hydrolysis
  67. 67Phase reaction of drug metabolism involving conjugation, in which a substituent is added to a drug. The most common type is glucuronide conjugation.Phase 2Phase reaction of drug metabolism involving conjugation, in which a substituent is added to a drug. The most common type is glucuronide c...
  68. 68Most metabolism of drugs occurs in the ________, and can be microsomal or nonmicrosomal.LiverMost metabolism of drugs occurs in the ________, and can be microsomal or nonmicrosomal.
  69. 69Three types of excretion in the kidneyGlomerular filtration, active tubular secretion, passive tubular transfer (from blood to lumen or lumen to blood (reabsorption)).Three types of excretion in the kidney
  70. 70k * t1/2 First order Rate constant * half time0.693k * t1/2 First order Rate constant * half time
  71. 71Cp0 * Vd Concentration in plasma at time 0 * volume of distributionDoseCp0 * Vd Concentration in plasma at time 0 * volume of distribution
  72. 72k * Vd First order rate constant * volume of distributionClearancek * Vd First order rate constant * volume of distribution
  73. 73If the same mg of a drug are eliminated every hour, independent of the concentration, this is ________ order kineticsZeroIf the same mg of a drug are eliminated every hour, independent of the concentration, this is ________ order kinetics
  74. 74If the same fraction of a drug is eliminated every hour which Is proportional to the drug's concentration, this is _______ order kineticsFirstIf the same fraction of a drug is eliminated every hour which Is proportional to the drug's concentration, this is _______ order kinetics
  75. 75-Transporter responsible for reducing a drug's accumulation -Found in the liverP-glycoprotein-Transporter responsible for reducing a drug's accumulation -Found in the liver
  76. 76-Enzyme in liver that does metabolism -microsomalCytochrome P-450-Enzyme in liver that does metabolism -microsomal
  77. 77Induction/inhibition of metabolism is a reaction to certain drugs by which the # of liver cytochrome enzymes increases, resulting in an increase/decrease in effect of other drugInduction, decreaseInduction/inhibition of metabolism is a reaction to certain drugs by which the # of liver cytochrome enzymes increases, resulting in an i...
  78. 78Induction/inhibition of metabolism is a reaction to certain drugs by which one drug either competes for metabolism of another or directly inhibits metabolizing enzymesInhibition (could also inhibit P-glycoprotein transporters)Induction/inhibition of metabolism is a reaction to certain drugs by which one drug either competes for metabolism of another or directly...
  79. 79The rate of metabolism is dictated by the ________________ isozyme profile of the patientCytochrome p-450The rate of metabolism is dictated by the ________________ isozyme profile of the patient
  80. 80An adverse effect that occurs within the therapeutic Dose range of the drugSide effectAn adverse effect that occurs within the therapeutic Dose range of the drug
  81. 81-An adverse drug reaction that is due to a genetic change usually involving a change in enzyme activity -occur rarely in population -could be an allergy or sensitivityIdiosyncratic reaction-An adverse drug reaction that is due to a genetic change usually involving a change in enzyme activity -occur rarely in population -coul...
  82. 82If a pt is taking itroconazole (anti fungal), clarithromycin (abx for skin and respiratory system), or a cytochrome P-450 inhibitor , what dental drugs could interact?diazepam (Valium) or triazolam (Halcion) (increased sedation due to reduced metabolism of benzodiazepines)If a pt is taking itroconazole (anti fungal), clarithromycin (abx for skin and respiratory system), or a cytochrome P-450 inhibitor , wha...
  83. 83If a pt isn't taking antacids, what dental drug might be affected?Tetracycline (commonly treats acne or bacterial infections) (reduced absorption of tetracycline)If a pt isn't taking antacids, what dental drug might be affected?
  84. 84If a pt is taking anticoagulants (Heparin, warfarin), what dental drug should be used with caution?Aspirin (increased bleeding tendency)If a pt is taking anticoagulants (Heparin, warfarin), what dental drug should be used with caution?
  85. 85If a pt is taking probenecid (reduces Uric acid with gout), what dental drug can decrease the effect of Probenecid?AspirinIf a pt is taking probenecid (reduces Uric acid with gout), what dental drug can decrease the effect of Probenecid?
  86. 86If a person is taking methotrexate (immunosuppressive drug for cancer, arthritis, or psoriasis), what dental drug could cause increased methotrexate toxicity?AspirinIf a person is taking methotrexate (immunosuppressive drug for cancer, arthritis, or psoriasis), what dental drug could cause increased m...
  87. 87If a person is a chronic alcoholic, which dental drug could cause increased liver toxicity?Acetaminophen (Tylenol)If a person is a chronic alcoholic, which dental drug could cause increased liver toxicity?
  88. 88if a pt is taking cholinesterase inhibitors (these inhibit breakdown of ACh, thereby increasing neuromuscular transmission for myasthenia gravis), what dental drug should be used with caution?Local anesthetic (these reduce the ACh inhibitor effect)if a pt is taking cholinesterase inhibitors (these inhibit breakdown of ACh, thereby increasing neuromuscular transmission for myasthenia...
  89. 89The rate of drug metabolism can vary greatly, depending on the _______________ isozyme profile of the pt.Cytochrome P-450The rate of drug metabolism can vary greatly, depending on the _______________ isozyme profile of the pt.
  90. 90If a pt has a genetic condition of *NADH-methemoglobin reductase deficiency*, which 2 anesthetics do you want to avoid that could cause methemoglobinemia?Benzocaine, prilocaineIf a pt has a genetic condition of *NADH-methemoglobin reductase deficiency*, which 2 anesthetics do you want to avoid that could cause m...
  91. 91If a pt has a genetic condition of *G6P dehydrogenase deficiency*, which 3 drugs do you want to avoid that could cause a response of hemolytic anemia?Aspirin, primaquine (treats, prevents malaria), sulfonamides (antimicrobials)If a pt has a genetic condition of *G6P dehydrogenase deficiency*, which 3 drugs do you want to avoid that could cause a response of hemo...
  92. 92If a pt has a genetic condition of *abnormal heme synthesis*, which drugs do you want to avoid that could induce porphyria (build-up of red blood cell proteins)?Barbiturates (sedatives, anxiolytics, anticonvulsants), sulfonamides (antimicrobials)If a pt has a genetic condition of *abnormal heme synthesis*, which drugs do you want to avoid that could induce porphyria (build-up of r...
  93. 93If a pt has a genetic condition of *low plasma cholinesterase activity*, which anesthetic do you want to avoid which could cause local anesthetic toxicity?Procaine (and other ester local anesthetics)If a pt has a genetic condition of *low plasma cholinesterase activity*, which anesthetic do you want to avoid which could cause local an...
  94. 94If a pt has a genetic condition of *altered muscle calcium homeostasis*, which type of anesthetics (2) do you want to avoid which could cause malignant hyperthermia?Volatile inhalation anesthetics, succinylcholine (causes paralysis for general anesthesia)If a pt has a genetic condition of *altered muscle calcium homeostasis*, which type of anesthetics (2) do you want to avoid which could c...
  95. 95If a pt has a *prolonged Q-T interval* genetic condition, which 2 classes of drugs do you want to avoid which could cause "Torsades de pointes" (tachycardia)?Antipsychotics, antiarrhythmicsIf a pt has a *prolonged Q-T interval* genetic condition, which 2 classes of drugs do you want to avoid which could cause "Torsades de po...
  96. 96Drug testing phase (I-IV) that uses normal volunteers, and assess safety and pharmacokinetics.Phase IDrug testing phase (I-IV) that uses normal volunteers, and assess safety and pharmacokinetics.
  97. 97Drug testing phase (I-IV) that uses patients who could benefit from the drug. Assesses *clinical efficacy*, pharmacokinetics, and safety.Phase IIDrug testing phase (I-IV) that uses patients who could benefit from the drug. Assesses *clinical efficacy*, pharmacokinetics, and safety.
  98. 98Drug testing phase (I-IV) that uses a larger # of pts, involving several medical centers. Safety and clinical efficacy are assessed.Phase IIIDrug testing phase (I-IV) that uses a larger # of pts, involving several medical centers. Safety and clinical efficacy are assessed.
  99. 99Drug testing phase (I-IV) that is post-marketing surveillance. Safety, patterns of use, and new indications are assessed.Phase IVDrug testing phase (I-IV) that is post-marketing surveillance. Safety, patterns of use, and new indications are assessed.
  100. 100What are the risk categories of drugs with pregnancy, from the safest to the most risk for fetuses?A, B, C, D, XWhat are the risk categories of drugs with pregnancy, from the safest to the most risk for fetuses?

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Praxis Flashcards: Pharmacology Flashcards on Pharmacology II (100 Flash Cards), created by ACAPUN INSTITUTE on 13/07/2021.
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