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Flashcards

Biochemistry Ch. 1-16

Melissa Castaneda English 200 cards

A mixture of asp, asn, and arg is places in the bed where the pH is 7, and the current is turned on. From left to right…

Cards in this deck (200)

  1. 1Functional groups are a. mathematical concepts applied to the topology of molecules b. laboratory teams in industrial laboratories c. sets of atoms that act in concert in chemical rxns d. nonec. sets of atoms that act in concert in chemical rxns
  2. 2Which functional groups are not commonly seen in biomolecules? a. alkyl halides b. amides c. carboxylic acids d. ethers e. phosphate estersa. alkyl halides
  3. 3Prokaryotic cells a. don't have a well defined nucleus b. are smaller than eukaryotic cells c. don't have internal membranes d. all of the aboved. all of the above
  4. 4Ribosomes a. are the site of photosynthesis b. are the site of protein synthesis c. are never bound to membranes d. cannot be seem in the electron microscopeb. are the site of protein synthesis
  5. 5Ribosomes are made up of a. RNA and proteins b. DNA and proteins c. RNA and DNA d. proteins and carbohydratesa. RNA and proteins
  6. 66. Which organelle doesn't contain DNA a. nucleus b. mitochondrion c. rough ER d. chloroplast e. all of these organelles contain DNAc. rough ER
  7. 7Which organelle is involved in the synthesis of ATP? a. nucleus b. mitochondrion c. chloroplast d. ATP is synthesized in both mitochondria and chloroplasts e. ATP is synthesized in all three organellesd. ATP is synthesized in both mitochondria and chloroplasts
  8. 8Which of the following statements about eukaryotic mitochondria is TRUE? a. they play a role in genetics b. they are the site of photosynthesis in green plants c. they have an inner and outer membrane d. they only occur in animals, not plantsc. they have an inner and outer membrane
  9. 9The Golgi apparatus a. occurs in prokaryotes b. its involved in secretion of proteins from the cell c. is part of the chloroplast d. is the site of protein photosynthesisb. its involved in secretion of proteins from the cell
  10. 10Cell walls a. occur in plants and bacteria b. occur in plants and animals c. occur only in plants d. occur only in bacteriaa. occur in plants and bacteria
  11. 11Many of the properties of water can be accounted for by the fact that a. it is polar b. it forms hydrogen bonds c. it is a bent molecule d. all of the aboved. all of the above
  12. 12Ionic compounds are more likely than covalent compounds to dissolve in non-polar solvents a. true b. falseb. false
  13. 13Which of the following is a correct listing of electronegativity values, from low to high? a. C, H, O, N b. N, H, O, C c. H, C, N, O d. H, C, O, Nc. H, C, N, O
  14. 14The water molecule is polar because: a. electrons are not distributed symmetrically in the molecule b. the H atoms are found on one side of the molecule c. hydrogen is less electronegative than oxygen d. the hydrogen atoms are found on one side of the molecule and hydrogen is less electronegative than oxygen e. all of thesee. all of these
  15. 15Which of the following molecules is polar? a. CCl4 b. CH4 c. CO2 d. NH3 e. None of these are polard. NH3
  16. 16How do hydrogen bonds tend to affect the melting and boiling points of substances a. they tend to increase both mp + bp b. they tend to decrease both mp + bp c. they tend to increase mp and decrease bp d. they tend to decrease mp and increase bp e. they don't have any affect on either mp or bpa. they tend to increase both mp + bp
  17. 17Which has a greater pKa, a weak or strong acid? a. weak acid b. strong acid c. they could dissociate about the same d. its impossible to predicta. weak acid
  18. 18A buffer solution at pH 10 has a ratio of [HA]/[A-] of 10. What is the pKa of the acid? a. 8 b. 9 c. 10 d. 11 e. 12d. 11
  19. 19An HCl solution has a pH=3. If you dilute 10mL of the solution to 1000mL, the final pH will be: a. 1 b. 2 c. the pH doesn't change d. 4 e. 5e. 5
  20. 20The ratio of a weak acid and its conjugate base at the point of maximum buffering capacity is a. 1/1 b. 1/10 c. 10/1 d. no definite ratio is neededa. 1/1
  21. 21Given the R-groups in the peptide, ALA-GLN-ARG-SER-HIS, it would likely be: a. very water soluble b. somewhat water soluble c. not very water soluble d. not soluble at all e. you can't tell from the sequencea. very water soluble
  22. 22Which amino acid would be most water soluble at pH=7 a. glutamic acid b. histidine c. isoleucine d. serine e. tyrosinea. glutamic acid
  23. 23What is the charge on the tetrapeptide lys-lys-his-glu at pH 7? a. 0 b. +1 c. +2 d. -1b. +1
  24. 24Which of the following correctly lists the isoelectric pHs of asp, asm, and arg from lowest to highest? a. D N R b. D R N c. R N D d. R D N e. N R D f. N D Ra. D N R
  25. 25Which of the following amino acids has a net charge of +1 at pH 4 and a net charge of pH 8? a. glu b. arg c. his d. tyrc. his
  26. 26What is the increasing order of isoelectric points (low pH to high) for these three amino acids? a. ALA, HIS, ASP b. ASP, ALA, HIS c. HIS, ALA, ASP d. ALA, ASP, HIS e. ASP, HIS, ALAb. ASP, ALA, HIS
  27. 27Which of these amino acids could act as a good buffer at pH= 4.5 a. alanine b. arginine c. asparagine d. cysteine e. aspartic acide. aspartic acid
  28. 28Calculate the pI of ASN: a. 2.5 b. 5.0 c. 5.4 d. 6.0 e. 10.7c. 5.4
  29. 29How many possible tetrapeptides can be made using all four of the amino acids D, W, F, and R? a. 4 b. 6 c. 12 d. 24d. 24
  30. 30The peptide bond a. is planar b. can be written as a resonance hybrid c. is the basis of protein structure d. all of the aboved. all of the above
  31. 31Which of the following statements regarding H bonding in secondary structures is true? a. both α helices and β sheets only use intrachain H bonds b. both α helices and β sheets only use interchain H bonds c. α helices only use intrachain H bonds and β sheets can use either intrachain or interchain H bonds d. α helices can use either intrachain or interchain H bonds and β sheets can only use interchain H bondsc. α helices only use intrachain H bonds and β sheets can use either intrachain or interchain H bonds
  32. 32In the β-pleated sheet conformation a. there are H bonds perpendicular to the direction of the polypeptide chain b. the polypeptide chain is almost fully extended c. the polypeptide chains may be hydrogen bonded together in a parallel or antiparallel orientation d. all of the aboved. all of the above
  33. 33Which of the following is the most common function for fibrous proteins? a. enzymes b. structural roles c. carrier molecules d. enzymes and carrier molecules e. all of theseb. structural roles
  34. 34Vitamin C (absorbic acid) prevents scurvy because a. it is involved in the formation of the proper β sheet structure of collagen b. it is involved in the metabolism of heme used in hemoglobin c. it encourages the formation of disulfide linkages in collagen d. it is an unusual amino acid found in the primary structure of collagen e. it is used to hydroxylate prolines in the primary structuree. it is used to hydroxylate prolines in the primary structure
  35. 35Disulfide bonds in proteins occur between the side chains of which of the following amino acid residues? a. glutamine b. lysine c. cysteine d. methioninec. cysteine
  36. 36Heme would be best described as a. motif b. domain c. prosthetic group d. helixc. prosthetic group
  37. 37Why does myoglobin have a histidine that prevents both O2 and CO from binding perpendicularly to the heme plane? a. this increases myoglobin's affinity for O2 b. this increases myoglobin's affinity for CO c. this lessens the difference in myoglobin's affinity for CO versus O2 d. this prevents the iron of the heme from being oxidizedc. this lessens the difference in myoglobin's affinity for CO versus O2
  38. 38Quaternary structure is associated with a. the overall shape of the polypeptide chain b. the sum of secondary and tertiary interactions c. simple proteins with only one subunit d. the relative orientation of one polypeptide to another polypeptide in a multisubunit proteind. the relative orientation of one polypeptide to another polypeptide in a multisubunit protein
  39. 39Which of the following is not a characteristic of hemoglobin? a. it contains two different types of subunits b. it contains a prosthetic group c. it is an allosteric enzyme d. it transports oxygen e. all of these are true for Hbc. it is an allosteric enzyme
  40. 40The affinity of fetal hemoglobin for oxygen a. has not been studied b. is the same as that of adult hemoglobin c. is lower than that of maternal hemoglobin d. is higher than that of maternal hemoglobind. is higher than that of maternal hemoglobin
  41. 41Ammonium sulfate is useful in protein purification because a. it contains nitrogen and sulfur, both of which occur in proteins b. it is sparingly soluble in water, causing proteins to co-precipitate with it c. very pure proteins are obtained when it is used d. it forms ion-dipole interactions with water, making proteins less soluble and more likely to precipitated. it forms ion-dipole interactions with water, making proteins less soluble and more likely to precipitate
  42. 42Which would be best to separate proteins of similar size? a. gel filtration b. affinity chromatography c. cation exchange d. anion exchange e. cation or anion exchangee. cation or anion exchange
  43. 43The order of elution of AAs H, E, & K from a cation exchange column by a pH 6 buffer is a. H E K b. E H K c. K H E d. E K Hb. E H K
  44. 44In all forms of chromatography one way of identifying eluted substances is by a. fluorescence spectroscopy b. comparison with standards c. radioactive labeling d. treating fractions with a reagent that will cause a color changeb. comparison with standards
  45. 45How many bands would be produced when hemoglobin is subjected to SDS-PAGE? a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4b. 2
  46. 46If the amino acid glycine were placed in the bed where the pH is 7, and the current were turned on, it would migrate closest to which of the following positions? a. pH 4 b. pH 6 c. pH 8 d. pH 10b. pH 6If the amino acid glycine were placed in the bed where the pH is 7, and the current were turned on, it would migrate closest to which of ...
  47. 47A mixture of asp, asn, and arg is places in the bed where the pH is 7, and the current is turned on. From left to right, which best represents the final positions of the individual amino acids? a. asp asn arg b. arg asn asp c. asn asp arg d. arg asp asna. asp asn argA mixture of asp, asn, and arg is places in the bed where the pH is 7, and the current is turned on. From left to right, which best repre...
  48. 48If a protein with the sequence FEWPRQVDMARINE is treated with chymotrypsin, what will the products be? a. F EW PRQVMARINE b. FE WPRQVD MARINE c. FEWPR QVDMARINE d. FEWPRQVDM ARINEa. F EW PRQVMARINE
  49. 49If a product with the sequence PQRKYPIG is treated with trypsin, what will the products be? a. PQR KYPIG b. PQRKYPIG c. PQR K YPIG d. PQ R KPIG0c. PQR K YPIG
  50. 50What effect does a catalyst have on the ΔG° of a rxn? a. a catalyst lowers the ΔG° b. a catalyst raises the ΔG° c. a catalyst has no effect on the ΔG° d. it depends on the specific catalystc. a catalyst has no effect on the ΔG°
  51. 51First order kinetics means: a. the rate of a reaction is independent of the amount of reactant measured b. the rate of the reaction varies directly with the amount of reactant measured c. the rate of the reaction caries with the square of the amount of the reactant measured d. more information is needed to answer this question e. none of these is correctb. the rate of the reaction varies directly with the amount of reactant measured
  52. 52In the induced fit model of substrate binding to enzymes a. the substrate changes its conformation to fit the active site b. the active site changes its conformation to fit the substrate c. there is a conformational change in the enzyme when the substrate binds d. there is aggregation of several enzyme molecules when the substrate bindsc. there is a conformational change in the enzyme when the substrate binds
  53. 53In the reaction catalyzed by chymotrypsin, a graph in which the rate is plotted against the concentration of substrate a. is sigmoidal, characteristic of an allosteric enzyme b. shows the cooperative kinetics are observed c. shows that the reaction is zero order d. is hyperbolic, characteristic of an non-allosteric enzymed. is hyperbolic, characteristic of an non-allosteric enzyme
  54. 54When an enzyme is saturated with substrate, a. it will display zero order kinetics b. it will display first order kinetics c. it will display second order kinetics d. it will denature and cease to functiona. it will display zero order kinetics
  55. 55The substrate-enzyme (E-S) complex a. always proceeds to form the products rapidly b. always breaks down to form free enzyme and substrate c. always breaks down to form free enzyme and product d. may break down to form free enzyme and substrate, or free enzyme and productd. may break down to form free enzyme and substrate, or free enzyme and product
  56. 56The steady state of an enzyme reaction is the following: a. rate observed just after mixing the enzyme and the substrate b. the rate observed and Vmax c. the rate of product formation d. the state which exists when E-S complex is forming as fast as it is breaking down e. the state which exists when substrate concentration equals Kmd. the state which exists when E-S complex is forming as fast as it is breaking down
  57. 57If the y-intercept of a Lineweaver-Burk plot= 1.91 (sec/millimole) and the slope=75.3 L/sec, Vmax equals a. 0.0254 millimoles per second b. 0.523 millimoles per second c. 5.23 millimoles per second d. 39.4 millimoles per second e. 75.3 millimoles per secondb. 0.523 millimoles per second
  58. 58If the y-intercept of a Lineweaver-Burk plot= 1.91 (sec/millimole) and the slope= 75.3 L/sec, Km equals a. 0.0254 millimolar (mM) b. 0.523 millimolar (mM) c. 5.23 millimolar (mM) d. 39.4 millimolar (mM) e. 75.3 millimolar (mM)d. 39.4 millimolar (mM)
  59. 59Competitive inhibitors have this effect: a. modifying the Km value b. changing the value for Vmax c. interfering with substrate binding d. this type of inhibitor both changes the Km and interferes with substrate binding e. all of these are correctd. this type of inhibitor both changes the Km and interferes with substrate binding
  60. 60Which of the following is a mechanism of regulating enzyme activity? a. feedback inhibition by product b. addition or removal of phosphate groups from the enzyme c. presence of activators d. activation of zymogens e. all of these regulate enzyme activitye. all of these regulate enzyme activity
  61. 61Which is an example of feedback inhibition? a. the product of the final rxn, F, interacting with E1 b. F interacting with an allosteric site in E4 c. B interacting with an allosteric site in E1 d. all of the intermediates or products in the rxn interacting with the active sire in E1a. the product of the final reaction interacting with E1Which is an example of feedback inhibition? a. the product of the final rxn, F, interacting with E1 b. F interacting with an allosteric s...
  62. 62The concerted and sequential models for the behavior of allosteric enzymes differ in a. the conformational change in the enzyme in one model and not in the other b. the number of predicted binding sites on the enzyme c. the manner in which changes in quaternary structure take place d. the response of the enzyme to changes in temperaturec. the manner in which changes in quaternary structure take place
  63. 63Kinase reactions describe enzymes which a. add phosphate groups to another molecule b. oxidize alcohols to aldehydes c. use NAD+/NADH in their reactions d. transfer groups from one part of a molecule to another e. add or remove double bonds in moleculesa. add phosphate groups to another molecule
  64. 64Zymogens are a. inactive precursors of enzymes which can be activated by the irreversible cleavage of covalent bonds b. inactive forms of enzymes which require phosphorylation by a kinase to become active c. allosteric enzymes that are always in the R state d. allosteric enzymes that are always in the T statea. inactive precursors of enzymes which can be activated by the irreversible cleavage of covalent bonds
  65. 65Which of the following types of amino acids is LEAST LIKELY to be involved in enzyme catalysis? a. those with hydrophilic, neutral side-chains b. those with negatively charged side chains c. those with positively charged side chains d. those with hydrocarbon side chainsd. those with hydrocarbon side chains
  66. 66An important step in elucidating the behavior of an enzyme is a. obtaining a crystalline sample of the enzyme b. insuring that metal ions are always excluded from the enzyme sample c. determining the active site residues d. none of the abovec. determining the active site residues
  67. 67Which of the following amino acid side chains would best serve as a general acid, assuming the protein functions at a pH of 7? a. alanine b. aspartic acid c. lysine d. asparaginec. lysine
  68. 68Important mechanisms of enzymatic catalysis include a. nucleophilic reactions b. general acid-base catalysis c. Lewis acid-base catalysis d. all of the aboved. all of the above
  69. 69A transition state analog is likely to bind to an enzyme a. more tightly than the substrate b. less tightly than the substrate c. about as tightly as the substrate d. at a site other than the catalytic sitea. more tightly than the substrate
  70. 70What characteristic is most used to define lipids? a. ionic charge b. melting point c. solubility d. ability to bind metal ionsc. solubility
  71. 71What does amphipathic mean? a. having both positive and negative charge b. having both acid and base properties c. having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions d. having 2 stereoisomers e. they all yield about the same amount of energy per gramc. having both hydrophilic and hydrophobic regions
  72. 72What kinds of bonds do lipase break in order to release fatty acids from triacylglycerols? a. esters b. C-C single bonds c. C-C double bonds d. there are no fatty acids in triacylglycerols to releasea. esters
  73. 73a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4b. 2a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
  74. 74a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4d. 4a. 1 b. 2 c. 3 d. 4
  75. 75Membrane lipids in a lipid bilayer are held together by a. hydrophobic interactions b. H bonds c. electrostatic forces d. covalent bondsa. hydrophobic interactions
  76. 76How does the presence of cis double bonds in fatty acids affect membrane fluidity? a. they tend to increase the fluidity b. they tend to decrease the fluidity c. they don't have any specific effect in fluiditya. they tend to increase the fluidity
  77. 77The distribution of lipids in membranes is a. uneven, with bulkier molecules on the exterior b. characterized by even distribution of the molecules c. distinguished by the absence of cholesterol d. not well understooda. uneven, with bulkier molecules on the exterior
  78. 78Which of the following is NOT a function characteristic of membrane proteins a. transport b. catalytic activity c. blood clotting d. receptor sitesc. blood clotting
  79. 79Which of the following treatments would be most useful in separating an integral membrane protein from the lipid component of a cell membrane? a. change the pH b. add a salt c. add a detergent d. add a mixture of proteases e. none; you can't separate an integral membrane protein from the lipidc. add detergent
  80. 80Which of the following is the best phrase to describe the modern view of membrane structure? a. membranes are lipid-lipid bilayers b. membranes are lipid-lipid bilayers with associated proteins c. membranes are composed solely of lipids and proteins d. membranes are a fluid mosaic of lipids and proteins e. membranes are found only in eukaryotic cellsd. membranes are a fluid mosaic of lipids and proteins
  81. 81Facilitated diffusion requires a. channel protein through which the transported substance passes without binding b. a carrier protein to which the transported substance binds c. a receptor protein d. an expenditure of energy by the cellb. a carrier protein to which the transported substance binds
  82. 82In the operation of the sodium potassium pump a. conformational changes in membrane proteins are inhibited b. the ions involved bind to the lipid portion of the membrane c. a membrane protein is phosphorylated with ATP as the source of the phosphate group d. a membrane protein is phosphorylated with ADP as the source of the phosphate groupc. a membrane protein is phosphorylated with ATP as the source of the phosphate group
  83. 83What distinguishes primary from secondary active transport? a. the requirement for protein b. the linkage to ATP hydrolysis c. the number of kinds of molecules or ions transported d. the relative direction of transportb. the linkage to ATP hydrolysis
  84. 84Which of the following methods of transport across a membrane does NOT require a protein? a. passive transport b. facilitated transport c. active transport d. simple diffusiond. simple diffusion
  85. 85What distinguishes nucleotides from nucleosides? a. nucleosides lack the phosphate group b. nucleosides lack the sugar group c. nucleosides lack a nitrogenous basea. nucleosides lack the phosphate group
  86. 86The fundamental differences between RNA and DNA are a. the organic bases only b. bases, ribose units, and the phosphodiester linkage c. bases, ribose units, and the glycosidic bond type d. bases and the ribose units onlyd. bases and the ribose units only
  87. 87Which is the dominant form of DNA found in the cell? a. A b. B c. Z d. Hb. B
  88. 88Histones contain large amounts of which of the following amino acids? a. histidine b. glutamic acid c. lysine d. leucine e. tryptophanc. lysine
  89. 89Hydrophobic bonding via pi-clouds is referred to as a. Base stacking b. propeller twist c. hyperchromicity d. supercoilinga. base stacking
  90. 90Which conclusion can be drawn from the experimental observation that a single strand of DNA contains 2100 dA residues and 1800 dT residues? a. there must have been some loss of material in the extraction because the number of dA and dT residues must be the same b. This is a palindromic sequence c. There must be 2100 dT and 1800 dA residues on the complementary strand d. none of the abovec. There must be 2100 dT and 1800 dA residues on the complementary strand
  91. 91The strands in the double helix a. both run in the same 3->5 direction (parallel) b. have their 5->3 directions opposed (anti parallel) c. can be either parallel or anti-parallel d. are perpendicular to one anotherb. have their 5->3 directions opposed (anti parallel)
  92. 92Base pairs with a propeller twist a. are found only in Z-DNA b. have optimum base stacking c. bind water in the minor groove d. have stronger H bonds than base pairs without a propellerb. have optimum base stacking
  93. 93Supercoiling of DNA a. is not observed in prokaryotes b. requires the action of topoisomerase enzymes c. doesn't require ATP d. is not observed in eukaryotesb. requires the action of topoisomerase enzymes
  94. 94A solution of double-stranded DNA is heated. Which of the following occurs as the DNA reaches its melting point? a. the amount of UV absorbance increases, but the wavelength does not change b. the wave length of absorbance changes, but the amount doesn't c. both the amount and wavelength of UV absorbance changes d. Neither the amount of wavelength of UV absorbance changesa. the amount of UV absorbance increases, but the wavelength does not change
  95. 95What is the requirement for a template strand in DNA replication? a. it serves as a guide in determining the next nucleotide to be added according to the Watson-Crick base pairing scheme b. It serves as the start point for the new DNA strand c. It allows the DNA polymerase to move along it easily d. It is a substrate for the 3->5 exonuclease activitya. it serves as a guide in determining the next nucleotide to be added according to the Watson-Crick base pairing scheme
  96. 96In the central dogma, the ordinary flow of genetic information a. replication -> translation -> transcription b. replication -> transcription -> translation c. transcription -> translation -> replication d. transcription -> replication -> translation e. translation -> transcription -> replicationb. replication -> transcription -> translation
  97. 97Semiconservative replication implies that a. each of the new double stranded DNA molecules contains one of the original intact strands and one completely new strand b. one of the new double stranded DNA molecules contains both of the original strands, while the other contains two new strands c. each of the new double stranded DNA molecules contains strands that are composed of segments of original and newly synthesized materials d. nonea. each of the new double stranded DNA molecules contains one of the original intact strands and one completely new strand
  98. 98All of the following describe the general mechanism of DNA synthesis, EXCEPT a. one strand is made 5->3 while the other strand is made 3->5 in short discontinuous segments b. strands become separated during synthesis c. synthesis occurs in both directions from the starting site of synthesis d. synthesis of DNA is very accurate process e. all of these are correcta. one strand is made 5->3 while the other strand is made 3->5 in short discontinuous segments
  99. 99Since DNA synthesis is bidirectional from the origin, the number of new strands being made simultaneously in E. coli is: a. one b. two c. three d. four e. the answer cannot be determined from this informationd. four
  100. 100How do origins of replication differ in eukaryotes and prokaryotes? a. eukaryotes have several origins, while prokaryotes typically have one b. prokaryotes have several origins, while eukaryotes typically have one c. only prokaryotes have origins of replication d. nonea. eukaryotes have several origins, while prokaryotes typically have one
  101. 101Semiconservative replication of DNA was established experimentally by a. gel electrophoresis b. UV spectroscopy c. column chromatography d. density gradient centrifugationd. density gradient centrifugation
  102. 102The direction of synthesis of DNA is a. 5->3 on both strands b. 3->5 on both strands c. from the 5->3 on one strand and from the 3->5 on the other strand d. nonea. 5->3 on both strands
  103. 103An important process in the synthesis of new DNA is a. proofreading and repair b. unwinding of double helix c. protection of single stranded regions from nuclease action d. all of the aboved. all of the above
  104. 104Which of the following best describes the process of DNA replication in prokaryote? a. replication begins at a unique site and proceeds in one direction all the way around a typically circular chromosome b. replication begins at a unique site and proceeds in two directions, meeting about halfway around a typically circular chromosome c. replication begins at multiple sites, spreading outward until the entire typically circular chromosome is replicated d. replication begins at multiple sites, spreading outward until the entire typically linear chromosome is replicationb. replication begins at a unique site and proceeds in two directions, meeting about halfway around a typically circular chromosome
  105. 105Which of the following is NOT a function of DNA Pol III? a. polymerization b. ligating the final products c. proofreading d. clamping onto the template e. all of theseb. ligating the final products
  106. 106The following enzyme is responsible for the bulk of DNA synthesis during replication a. DNA Pol I b. DNA Pol II c. DNA Pol III d. DNA Pol IV e. all 4 can make lots of DNA rapidlyc. DNA Pol III
  107. 107The universal features of DNA replication include all of the following EXCEPT a. release PPi from the nucleoside triphosphate b. synthesis from the 5->3 end c. base pairing of A to T and G to C d. use of a primer e. all of these describe DNA synthesise. all of these describe DNA synthesis
  108. 108In E.coli, a. the leading strand is synthesized in one piece while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously b. the leading strand is synthesized discontinuously while the lagging strand is synthesized in one piece c. both the leading and lagging strands are synthesized in one piece d. both the leading and lagging strands are synthesized discontinuouslya. the leading strand is synthesized in one piece while the lagging strand is synthesized discontinuously
  109. 109E.coli replication on the lagging strand a. is carried out by DNA polymerase I b. is initially synthesized as Okazaki fragments c. is synthesized continuously d. has this DNA strand synthesized in a 3->5 directionb. is initially synthesized as Okazaki fragments
  110. 110Which of the following statements describes a difference between replication of DNA and transcription of RNA? a. nucleoside triphosphates are the precursors for replication but nucleoside diphosphates are used for transcription b. Both stands of DNA are copied in replication, but only one is copied in transcription c. base pairing is used to copy the sequence in replication but not in transcription d. the chain grows from the 5-> 3 end in replication but 3->5 in transcriptionb. Both stands of DNA are copied in replication, but only one is copied in transcription
  111. 111Which of the following statements concerning RNA transcription is false? a. the release of pyrophosphate from a nucleoside triphosphate drives the rxn b. RNA is synthesized from the 5->3 end c. DNA to RNA base pairing includes A to U and G to C d. Transcription requires the use of a primerd. Transcription requires the use of a primer
  112. 112How do the core enzyme and the holoenzyme of RNA polymerase differ in E.coli a. the holoenzyme includes the sigma subunit, the core enzyme doesn't b. the core enzyme includes the sigma subunit, the holoenzyme doesn't c. the holoennzyme transcribes from an RNA template, the core enzyme from a DNA template d. the core enzyme transcribes from an RNA template, the holoenzyme from a DNA templatea. the holoenzyme includes the sigma subunit, the core enzyme doesn't
  113. 113At what point does the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase released from the core enzyme? a. prior to the incorporation of any nucleotides into an RNA strand b. after transcription begins and about 10 nucleotides have been added to the RNA chain c. just prior to chain termination d. never, it is an intrinsic part of the core enzymeb. after transcription begins and about 10 nucleotides have been added to the RNA chain
  114. 114RNA synthesis begins at the base in the DNA sequence designated by the following number: a. +1 b. 0 c. -1 d. -10 region e. it varies among genesa. +1
  115. 115What is the function of the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase in E.Coli? a. it recognizes the promoters where transcription should begin b. it contains the active site for synthesis of RNA c. it ensures proper processtivity of the polymerase, so it doesn't stop prematurely d. it is involved in chain terminationa. it recognizes the promoters where transcription should begin
  116. 116Which of the following is NOT a property of the sigma subunit? a. tells the RNA Poly where to sit down b. it helps point the RNA Pol in the proper direction c. it causes the RNA Pol to bind tightly to the DNA d. it stays with the RNA Pol throughout synthesisd. it stays with the RNA Pol throughout synthesis
  117. 117The promoter site is A. the start site for transcription in DNA B. the binding site for regulatory proteins that stimulate transcription C. the general region of DNA downstream from the start site D. the site on DNA at which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcriptionD. the site on DNA at which RNA polymerase binds to initiate transcription
  118. 118Which of the following offers the best description of a Pribnow box? a. promoter consensus sequence located at approximately -35 b. promoter consensus sequence located at approximately -10 c. sequence forming a hairpin loop signaling the termination of transcription d. a sequence immediately surrounding the start site of transcriptionb. promoter consensus sequence located at approximately -10
  119. 119Initiation of RNA biosynthesis involves a. recognition of the promoter region by the sigma subunit of RNA polymerase b. conversion of the closed-promoter complex to the open-promoter complex c. binding of one of the sigma subunits of RNA polymerase to each strand of DNA d. incorporation of four pyrimidine nucleotides in successionb. conversion of the closed-promoter complex to the open-promoter complex
  120. 120Which of the following best describes the order of events at the promoter? a. open complex->closed complex-> transcription initiation b. closed complex->open complex-> transcription initiation c. open complex ->transcription initiation-> closed complex d. transcription initiation -> open complex-> closed complexb. closed complex->open complex-> transcription initiation
  121. 121Chain termination occurs in vivo when: a. RNA Pol gets to the end of the DNA b. the factor called rho binds to the DNA c. A hairpin loops forms in the template d. Either a hairpin loop forms or rho is involvedd. Either a hairpin loop forms or rho is involved
  122. 122Which of the following is the best description of an operon? a. an enhancer that positively regulates gene expression b. a silencer that negatively regulates gene expression c. a binding element for the sigma factor d. a group of genes under the control of a common promoterd. a group of genes under the control of a common promoter
  123. 123A mutation in the lac A gene would result in a. continuous production of the proteins encoded by the three structural genes b. continuous production of the lac repressor c. normal operation of the lac operon but with an alteration in the proteins encoded by the lac A gene d. no transcription from the lac operonc. normal operation of the lac operon but with an alteration in the proteins encoded by the lac A gene
  124. 124Which of the conditions would result in the greatest amount of transcription of the lac operon [glucose][lactose] a. high high b. low low c. high low d. low highd. low high
  125. 125Which category of RNA carries amino acids for the process of translation? a. mRNA b. rRNA c. snRNA d. tRNAd. tRNA
  126. 126As in RNA and DNA synthesis, the synthesis of proteins follows the following steps, except: A. Activation of monomers B. Initiation C. Elongation D. Termination E. All of these are involved in all polymer synthesisE. All of these are involved in all polymer synthesis
  127. 127Which of the following statements concerning the genetic code is false? a. it's based on triplets b. non-overlapping c. commas are used d. it is degeneratec. commas are used
  128. 128What type of assay using tRNAs and ribosomes enables complete determination of the genetic code? a. filter binding assays b. high performance chromatography c. electrophoresis d. density gradient centrifugationa. filter binding assays
  129. 129Which of the following is not a key advantage of wobble in the codon anticodon reaction a. it allows for fewer tRNAs in the cell b. it allows for making more than one protein from the same coding sequence c. it allows for a certain amount of mutation in the mRNA without affecting the protein sequence d. all of these are advantages of wobbleb. it allows for making more than one protein from the same coding sequence
  130. 130What is the maximum number of amino acids that can be specified by a codon consisting of a sequence of two bases? a. 4 b. 8 c. 16 d. 20c. 16
  131. 131Using the genetic code, indicate which polypeptides would be synthesized if poly(UGG) were used as a synthetic mRNA? a. poly (gly) b. poly (trp) c. poly (trp-val-gly) d. poly (trp), poly(val), poly(gly)d. poly (trp), poly(val), poly(gly)
  132. 132The genetic code is said to be degenerate. This means that: a. each codon codes for more than one amino acid b. each anticodon can interact with many different triplet sequences in the mRNA, which may differ in any or all of the three nucleotides c. many of the amino acids are coded for by different codons d. the code is universally used by virtually all speciesc. many of the amino acids are coded for by different codons
  133. 133The process of amino acid activation a. involves the formation of a peptide bond between the amino acid and tRNA b. takes place by formation of a mixed anhydride of the amino acid and tRNA c. involves the formation of an ester bond between the amino acid and tRNA d. nonec. involves the formation of an ester bond between the amino acid and tRNA
  134. 134The initial step in the formation of an aminoacyl-tRNA is A. esterification of the tRNA B. activation of the amino acid by reaction with ATP C. activation of the tRNA by reaction with ATP D. interaction of the mRNA with the tRNAB. activation of the amino acid by reaction with ATP
  135. 135Which of the following best describes electrophoretic gels used for DNA? a. most separations are done horizontally, while sequencing gels are typically run vertically b. most separations are done vertically while sequencing gels are typically run horizontally c. most electrophoretic gels are run horizontally, whether for separation or sequencing d. most electrophoretic gels are run vertically, whether for separation or sequencinga. most separations are done horizontally, while sequencing gels are typically run vertically
  136. 136Migration of DNA during electrophoresis is based a. mostly on the size of the molecule, since the ration of charge to mass is approximately the same, no matter how large the DNA is b. mostly on the charge of the molecule, since the ration of charge to mass is approximately the same, no matter how large the DNA is c. mostly on the charge to mass ration since this can vary greatly among pieces of DNA d. on parameters not understood wella. mostly on the size of the molecule, since the ration of charge to mass is approximately the same, no matter how large the DNA is
  137. 137The natural function of restriction endonucleases is to a. protect bacterial cells from invasion by viruses (bacteriophages) b. help bacteriophages infect cells c. regulate gene expression from specific promoters d. remove chromatin from histonesa. protect bacterial cells from invasion by viruses (bacteriophages)
  138. 138A palindrome is a. a DNA sequence that contains only one kind of base b. a DNA sequence that contains only two kinds of bases c. a sequence that reads the same left to right or from right to left d. none of the abovec. a sequence that reads the same left to right or from right to left
  139. 139A single clone of interest can be distinguished from others in a mixture of clones by a. testing the clones for antibiotic resistance b. mobility of the clones in gel electrophoresis c. a specific probe, usually a labeled complementary DNA d. resistance to damage by UV lightc. a specific probe, usually a labeled complementary DNA
  140. 140A plasmid is a. virus that infect bacteria b. a piece of DNA derived from two or more sources c. a small circular DNA that is not a part of bacterial chromosome d. an artificially created cytoplasmc. a small circular DNA that is not a part of bacterial chromosome
  141. 141a. 1,2,3,4,5 b. 2,3,5,1,4 c. 5,4,3,2,1 d. 4,2,3,5,1 e. 2,3,5,4,1d. 4,2,3,5,1a. 1,2,3,4,5 b. 2,3,5,1,4 c. 5,4,3,2,1 d. 4,2,3,5,1 e. 2,3,5,4,1
  142. 142How does an expression vector differ from a regular cloning vector? a. an expression vector does not have an origin of replication b. an expression vector is always a linear molecule, while a cloning vector may be circular c. an expression vector has the ability to have the inserted DNA be transcribed d. an expression vector must be of viral origin, so that it can infect a cell naturallyc. an expression vector has the ability to have the inserted DNA be transcribed
  143. 143The c in cDNA stands for a. complete b. circular c. complementary d. confusingc. complementary
  144. 144A DNA library consists of a. all the DNA of an organism divided up and cloned in suitable vectors b. an alphabetical list of all the genes in an organism c. a set of reference books on genetics d. nonea. all the DNA of an organism divided up and cloned in suitable vectors
  145. 145If mRNA is converted to DNA, digested with restriction enzymes, and cloned into suitable vectors, the resultant library is called a a. DNA library b. cDNA library c. mRNA library d. none of theseb. cDNA library
  146. 146The following item was the most important one for the development of PCR as a commercially and widely used procedure a. Taq DNA polymerase b. heat resistant DNA c.heat resistant primers for DNA synthesis d. robotic machines to run the PCR procedure e, heat resistant nucleoside triphosphate substratesa. Taq DNA polymerase
  147. 147A feature of the Sanger-Coulson method for sequencing is a. chemical modification of all bases b. no need to use gel electrophoresis c. use of triple helical DNA d. direct reading of the sequence of basesd. direct reading of the sequence of bases
  148. 148RNA is sequenced by a. exactly the same methods as those used for proteins b. exactly the same methods as those used for DNA c. sequencing the complementary DNA produced by the reverse transcriptase reaction d. a combination of analytical ultracentrifugation and UV spectroscopyc. sequencing the complementary DNA produced by the reverse transcriptase reaction
  149. 149The capsid of a virus is composed of a. DNA or RNA b. protein c. lipid d. carbohydrateb. protein
  150. 150What is the function of protein spikes on a virus? a. they protect the genome b. they are involved with incorporation of the genome into that of host (lysogeny) c. they transcribe the RNA genome into a DNA copy d. they help the virus attach to the hostd. they help the virus attach to the host
  151. 151A virus life cycle that involves the incorporation of the viral DNA into the host chromosome is a. lysogeny b. lytic c, oncogenic d. non-existenta. lysogeny
  152. 152What happens to the DNA copy of the retroviral RNA genome after it is produced? a. it is incorporated into the host's DNA b. it is transcribed to produce mRNAs c. it is wrapped in a capsid for export from the cell d. it is replicated as a plasmida. it is incorporated into the host's DNA
  153. 153Which of the following best described the function of reverse transcriptase? a. it is involved in viral attachment to a host cell b. it uses RNA template to make a double stranded DNA c. it uses DNA to synthesize RNA in the 3->5 direction d. it joins the gene segments that code for antibodiesb. it uses RNA template to make a double stranded DNA
  154. 154Autoimmune diseases result from a failure a. of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself b. to produce T cells c. to produce B cells d. of a lysogenic virus to incorporate its genome into that of the hosta. of the immune system to distinguish self from nonself
  155. 155Which of the following cell types kills cells that have been infected by viruses or that are cancerous a. NK cells b. dendritic cells c. T cells d. B cellsa. NK cells
  156. 156Which of the following cells actually makes antibodies a. T cells b. B cells c. NK cells d. dendriticb. B cells
  157. 157An epitope is a. a disease causing organism b. binding site for an antigen on an antibody c. class of plasma cell d. a protein secreted by T cells to activate the growth of other cellsb. binding site for an antigen on an antibody
  158. 158A viral genome is composed of a. DNA b. RNA c. DNA or RNA d. proteinc. DNA or RNA
  159. 159—a. the reaction will proceed in the forward in direction to reach equilibriuma. the reaction will proceed in the forward in direction to reach equilibrium
  160. 160—a. [FAD] > [FADH2]a. [FAD] > [FADH2]
  161. 161—a. ΔG < 0 (i.e., its negative)a. ΔG < 0 (i.e., its negative)
  162. 162Metabolism refers to a. the breakdown of larger molecules into smaller ones b. the production of larger molecules from smaller ones c. both of the above d. none of the abovec. both of the above
  163. 163The production of larger molecules from smaller ones is called a. metabolism b. catabolism c. anabolism d. nonec. anabolism
  164. 164In general, catabolism a. releases energy b. absorbs energy c. neither absorbs nor releases energya. releases energy
  165. 165An oxidizing agent a. loses oxygen b. gains oxygen c. loses electrons d. gains electionsd. gains electrons
  166. 166Which is the oxidizing agent? a. ethanol b. NAD+ c. acetylaldehyde d. NADH e. H+b. NAD+Which is the oxidizing agent? a. ethanol b. NAD+ c. acetylaldehyde d. NADH e. H+
  167. 167Which molecule is reduced? a. ethanol b. NAD+ c. acetaldehyde d. NADH e. H+b. NAD+Which molecule is reduced? a. ethanol b. NAD+ c. acetaldehyde d. NADH e. H+
  168. 168Which molecule loses electrons? a. ethanol b. NAD+ c. acetaldehyde d. NADH e. H+a. ethanolWhich molecule loses electrons? a. ethanol b. NAD+ c. acetaldehyde d. NADH e. H+
  169. 169During reduction a. electrons are lost b. electrons are gained c. electrons may either be lost or gained d. hydrogen is formedb. electrons are gained
  170. 170—b. -18 kJ/molb. -18 kJ/mol
  171. 171Haworth projection formulas a. are representations of the cyclic form of sugars b. can show the distinction between the α and β anomers c. both of the above d. neither of the abovec. both of the above
  172. 172Which of the following is not a function of carbohydrates? a. they are major energy sources b. they play key roles in processes that take place on the surface cells c. they are used in structural roles d. they are catalytic components of enzymesd. they are catalytic components of enzymes
  173. 173The simplest ketotriose is a. glyceraldehyde b. dihydroxyacetone c. ribose d. glucose e. sucroseb. dihydroxyacetone
  174. 174For a D-sugar, the α anomer in a Haworth projection a. has an upward projection (on the same side as the terminal CH2OH group) b. has a downward projection (on the opposite side from the terminal CH2OH group) c. may be either up or down, it depends on the individual sugar d. non-existent; anomers are a consideration only in Fischer projectionsb. has a downward projection (on the opposite side from the terminal CH2OH group)
  175. 175Diastereomers are a. mirror-image, nonsuperimposable steroisomers b. non-mirror-image, nonsuperimposable steroisomers c. steroisomers with one or more double bonds d. none of the aboveb. non-mirror-image, nonsuperimposable steroisomers
  176. 176Epimers are a. stereoisomers that differ from each other in their configuration at two or more carbon atoms b. stereoisomers that differ from each other in their configuration at a single carbon atom c. the α and β forms of cyclic sugars d. two related compounds, pyran and furanb. stereoisomers that differ from each other in their configuration at a single carbon atom
  177. 177How many stereoisomers are possible for an aldopentose? a. 4 b. 8 c. 12 d. 16b. 8
  178. 178How many enantiomeric pairs are possible for an aldohexose? a. 2 b. 4 c. 8 d. 16c. 8
  179. 179Aldose can form which type of cyclic structure a. hemiacetal b. hemiketal c. both hemiacetal and hemiketal d. neither hemiacetal and hemikatela. hemiacetal
  180. 180The cyclic form of sugars a. has one more chiral center (anomeric carbon) than the open chain form b. loses a chiral center compared to the open chain form c. isn't usually found in nature d. has one more carbon atom than the open chain form e. has one less carbon atom than the open chain forma. has one more chiral center (anomeric carbon) than the open chain form
  181. 181—c. α(2-4)c. α(2-4)
  182. 182—b. acetalb. acetal
  183. 183—d. there is more than one nonreducing end on this carbohydrated. there is more than one nonreducing end on this carbohydrate
  184. 184Which lettered subunit is the reducing end? a. A b. B c. C d. there is more than one nonreducing end on this carbohydrate e. there are no nonreducing ends on this carbohydratec.CWhich lettered subunit is the reducing end? a. A b. B c. C d. there is more than one nonreducing end on this carbohydrate e. there are no...
  185. 185Which best described bond #3 a. α [1,3] b. β [1,3] c. α [2,4] d. β [2,4] e. none of the abovec. α [2,4]Which best described bond #3 a. α [1,3] b. β [1,3] c. α [2,4] d. β [2,4] e. none of the above
  186. 186The carbohydrate shown is a. monosaccharide b. a ketose c. a hexose d. all of the above e. none of the aboved. all of the aboveThe carbohydrate shown is a. monosaccharide b. a ketose c. a hexose d. all of the above e. none of the above
  187. 187The carbohydrate shown is a. the D isomer b. the L isomer c. both D and L d. neither D and L e. it's impossible to tell from a picture which isomer this isa. the D isomerThe carbohydrate shown is a. the D isomer b. the L isomer c. both D and L d. neither D and L e. it's impossible to tell from a picture wh...
  188. 188#1 #2#2#1 #2
  189. 189The enantiomer of D-glucose is a. D-fructose b. D-glucose c. L-glucose d. L-idose e. D-galactosec. L-glucoseThe enantiomer of D-glucose is a. D-fructose b. D-glucose c. L-glucose d. L-idose e. D-galactose
  190. 190Epimers of D-glucose include a. D-glucose and L-glucose b. D-glucose and L-glucose c. L-glucose and L-idose d. L-idose and D-galactose e. L-glucose and D-galactosed. L-idose and D-galactoseEpimers of D-glucose include a. D-glucose and L-glucose b. D-glucose and L-glucose c. L-glucose and L-idose d. L-idose and D-galactose e....
  191. 191Diasteromers of D-glucose include all of these except: a. D-fructose b. L-glucose c. L-idose d. D-galactose e. all of thesea. D-fructose
  192. 192Isomers of sugars in which the position of ketone and aldehyde groups have been changed are called a. anomers b. diastereoisomers c. enantiomers d. epimers e. nonee. none
  193. 193Which carbon of the open chain form of a sugar becomes the anomeric carbon in the cyclic form? a. the carbonyl carbon b. the highest numbered chiral center c. the highest numbered carbon d. depends on the individual sugara. the carbonyl carbon
  194. 194The α and β forms of the same sugar are called a. anomers b. diastereomers c. enantiomers d. epimers e. nonea. anomers
  195. 195A pyranose is a sugar that a. contains a 5-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure b. contains a 6-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure c. is a five-carbon open chain sugar d. is a six-carbon open chain sugarb. contains a 6-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure
  196. 196A furanose is a sugar that a. contains a 5-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure b. contains a 6-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure c. is a five-carbon open chain sugar d. is a six-carbon open chain sugara. contains a 5-membered ring as part of its cyclic structure
  197. 197For a D-sugar, any group that is written to the right of the carbon in a Fischer projection a. has an upward projection in a Haworth projection b. has an downward projection in a Haworth projection c. may be either up or down in a Haworth projection, it depends on the individual sugar d. is missing from a Haworth projection e. galactose and fructoseb. has an downward projection in a Haworth projection
  198. 198In bacterial cell walls a. polysaccharides form nonspecific mixtures with proteins b. polysaccharides are hydrogen bonded together c. peptides form crosslinks between polysaccharides d. oligosaccharides form crosslinks between proteinsc. peptides form crosslinks between polysaccharides
  199. 199The linkage between the glucose residues in amylopectin and glycogen is a. for the main chain α (1->4) and β (1->4) for the branches b. for the main chain α (1->6) and α (1->4) for the branches c. for the main chain α (1->4) and α (1->6) for the branches d. for the main chain β (1->4) and β (1->6) for the branches e. the linkage between the glucose residues is variablec. for the main chain α (1->4) and α (1->6) for the branches
  200. 200Glycogen is a. polysaccharide storage polymer found in plants b. a linear polysaccharide c. highly branched polysaccharide found in animals d. a synthetic sugar substitutec. highly branched polysaccharide found in animals

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Flashcards on Biochemistry Ch. 1-16, created by Melissa Castaneda on 07/12/2018.
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