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Flashcards

CompTIA Security+ Topic 1

Amber Saxon CompTIA Security+ CompTIA ITF+ English 200 cards

Cards in this deck (200)

  1. 1Sara, the security administrator, must configure the corporate firewall to allow all public IP addresses on the internal interface of the firewall to be translated to one public IP address on the external interface of the same firewall. Which of the following should Sara configure? A. PAT B. NAP C. DNAT D. NACA. PAT
    Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses.
    Most home networks use PAT. In such a scenario, the Internet Service Provider (ISP) assigns a single IP address to the home network's router. When Computer
    X logs on the Internet, the router assigns the client a port number, which is appended to the internal IP address. This, in effect, gives Computer X a unique address. If Computer Z logs on the Internet at the same time, the router assigns it the same local IP address with a different port number. Although both computers are sharing the same public IP address and accessing the Internet at the same time, the router knows exactly which computer to send specific packets to because each computer has a unique internal address.
  2. 2Which of the following devices is MOST likely being used when processing the following? 1 PERMIT IP ANY ANY EQ 80 2 DENY IP ANY ANY A. Firewall B. NIPS C. Load balancer D. URL filterA. Firewall
    Firewalls, routers, and even switches can use ACLs as a method of security management. An access control list has a deny ip any any implicitly at the end of any access control list. ACLs deny by default and allow by exception.
  3. 3The security administrator at ABC company received the following log information from an external party: 10:45:01 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3056, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Directory traversal 10:45:02 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3057, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Account brute force 10:45:03 EST, SRC 10.4.3.7:3058, DST 8.4.2.1:80, ALERT, Port scan The external party is reporting attacks coming from abc-company.com. Which of the following is the reason the ABC companys security administrator is unable to determine the origin of the attack? A. A NIDS was used in place of a NIPS. B. The log is not in UTC. C. The external party uses a firewall. D. ABC company uses PAT.D. ABC company uses PAT.
    PAT would ensure that computers on ABCs LAN translate to the same IP address, but with a different port number assignment. The log information shows the IP address, not the port number, making it impossible to pin point the exact source.
  4. 4Which of the following security devices can be replicated on a Linux based computer using IP tables to inspect and properly handle network based traffic? A. Sniffer B. Router C. Firewall D. SwitchC. Firewall
    IP tables are a user-space application program that allows a system administrator to configure the tables provided by the Linux kernel firewall and the chains and rules it stores.
  5. 5Which of the following firewall types inspects Ethernet traffic at the MOST levels of the OSI model? A. Packet Filter Firewall B. Stateful Firewall C. Proxy Firewall D. Application FirewallB. Stateful Firewall
    Stateful inspections occur at all levels of the network.
  6. 6The Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has mandated that all IT systems with credit card data should be segregated from the main corporate network to prevent unauthorized access and that access to the IT systems should be logged. Which of the following would BEST meet the CISOs requirements? A. Sniffers B. NIDS C. Firewalls D. Web proxies E. Layer 2 switchesC. Firewalls
    The basic purpose of a firewall is to isolate one network from another.
  7. 7Which of the following network design elements allows for many internal devices to share one public IP address? A. DNAT B. PAT C. DNS D. DMZB. PAT
    Port Address Translation (PAT), is an extension to network address translation (NAT) that permits multiple devices on a local area network (LAN) to be mapped to a single public IP address. The goal of PAT is to conserve IP addresses.
    Most home networks use PAT. In such a scenario, the Internet Service Provider (ISP) assigns a single IP address to the home network's router. When Computer
    X logs on the Internet, the router assigns the client a port number, which is appended to the internal IP address. This, in effect, gives Computer X a unique address. If Computer Z logs on the Internet at the same time, the router assigns it the same local IP address with a different port number. Although both computers are sharing the same public IP address and accessing the Internet at the same time, the router knows exactly which computer to send specific packets to because each computer has a unique internal address.
  8. 8Which of the following is the best practice when securing a switch from physical access? A. Disable unnecessary accounts B. Print baseline configuration C. Enable access lists D. Disable unused portsD. Disable unused ports
    Disabling unused switch ports is a simple method many network administrators use to help secure their network from unauthorized access.
    All ports not in use should be disabled. Otherwise, they present an open door for an attacker to enter.
  9. 9Which of the following devices would be MOST useful to ensure availability when there are a large number of requests to a certain website? A. Protocol analyzer B. Load balancer C. VPN concentrator D. Web security gatewayB. Load balancer
    Load balancing refers to shifting a load from one device to another. A load balancer can be implemented as a software or hardware solution, and it is usually associated with a devicea router, a firewall, NAT appliance, and so on. In its most common implementation, a load balancer splits the traffic intended for a website into individual requests that are then rotated to redundant servers as they become available.
  10. 10Pete, the system administrator, wishes to monitor and limit users access to external websites. Which of the following would BEST address this? A. Block all traffic on port 80. B. Implement NIDS. C. Use server load balancers. D. Install a proxy server.D. Install a proxy server.
    A proxy is a device that acts on behalf of other(s). In the interest of security, all internal user interaction with the Internet should be controlled through a proxy server. The proxy server should automatically block known malicious sites. The proxy server should cache often-accessed sites to improve performance.
  11. 11Mike, a network administrator, has been asked to passively monitor network traffic to the companys sales websites. Which of the following would be BEST suited for this task? A. HIDS B. Firewall C. NIPS D. Spam filterC. NIPS
    Network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity.
  12. 12Which of the following should be deployed to prevent the transmission of malicious traffic between virtual machines hosted on a singular physical device on a network? A. HIPS on each virtual machine B. NIPS on the network C. NIDS on the network D. HIDS on each virtual machineA. HIPS on each virtual machine
    Host-based intrusion prevention system (HIPS) is an installed software package which monitors a single host for suspicious activity by analyzing events occurring within that host.
  13. 13Pete, a security administrator, has observed repeated attempts to break into the network. Which of the following is designed to stop an intrusion on the network? A. NIPS B. HIDS C. HIPS D. NIDSA. NIPS
    Network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity. The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it
  14. 14An administrator is looking to implement a security device which will be able not only to detect network intrusions at the organization level, but also help to defend against them. Which of the following is being described here? A. NIDS B. NIPS C. HIPS D. HIDSB. NIPS
    Network-based intrusion prevention system (NIPS) monitors the entire network for suspicious traffic by analyzing protocol activity. The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it
  15. 15In intrusion detection system vernacular, which account is responsible for setting the security policy for an organization? A. Supervisor B. Administrator C. Root D. DirectorB. Administrator
    The administrator is the person responsible for setting the security policy for an organization and is responsible for making decisions about the deployment and configuration of the IDS.
  16. 16When performing the daily review of the system vulnerability scans of the network Joe, the administrator, noticed several security related vulnerabilities with an assigned vulnerability identification number. Joe researches the assigned vulnerability identification number from the vendor website. Joe proceeds with applying the recommended solution for identified vulnerability. Which of the following is the type of vulnerability described? A. Network based B. IDS C. Signature based D. Host basedC. Signature based
    A signature-based monitoring or detection method relies on a database of signatures or patterns of known malicious or unwanted activity. The strength of a signature-based system is that it can quickly and accurately detect any event from its database of signatures.
  17. 17The network security engineer just deployed an IDS on the network, but the Chief Technical Officer (CTO) has concerns that the device is only able to detect known anomalies. Which of the following types of IDS has been deployed? A. Signature Based IDS B. Heuristic IDS C. Behavior Based IDS D. Anomaly Based IDSA. Signature Based IDS
    A signature based IDS will monitor packets on the network and compare them against a database of signatures or attributes from known malicious threats.
  18. 18Joe, the Chief Technical Officer (CTO), is concerned about new malware being introduced into the corporate network. He has tasked the security engineers to implement a technology that is capable of alerting the team when unusual traffic is on the network. Which of the following types of technologies will BEST address this scenario? A. Application Firewall B. Anomaly Based IDS C. Proxy Firewall D. Signature IDSB. Anomaly Based IDS
    Anomaly-based detection watches the ongoing activity in the environment and looks for abnormal occurrences. An anomaly-based monitoring or detection method relies on definitions of all valid forms of activity. This database of known valid activity allows the tool to detect any and all anomalies. Anomaly-based detection is commonly used for protocols. Because all the valid and legal forms of a protocol are known and can be defined, any variations from those known valid constructions are seen as anomalies.
  19. 19Matt, an administrator, notices a flood fragmented packet and retransmits from an email server. After disabling the TCP offload setting on the NIC, Matt sees normal traffic with packets flowing in sequence again. Which of the following utilities was he MOST likely using to view this issue? A. Spam filter B. Protocol analyzer C. Web application firewall D. Load balancerB. Protocol analyzer
    A protocol analyzer is a tool used to examine the contents of network traffic. Commonly known as a sniffer, a protocol analyzer can be a dedicated hardware device or software installed onto a typical host system. In either case, a protocol analyzer is first a packet capturing tool that can collect network traffic and store it in memory or onto a storage device. Once a packet is captured, it can be analyzed either with complex automated tools and scripts or manually.
  20. 20Which the following flags are used to establish a TCP connection? (Choose two.) A. PSH B. ACK C. SYN D. URG E. FINB. ACK
    C. SYN
    To establish a TCP connection, the three-way (or 3-step) handshake occurs:
    1. SYN: The active open is performed by the client sending a SYN to the server. The client sets the segment's sequence number to a random value A.
    2. SYN-ACK: In response, the server replies with a SYN-ACK. The acknowledgment number is set to one more than the received sequence number i.e. A+1, and the sequence number that the server chooses for the packet is another random number, B.
    3. ACK: Finally, the client sends an ACK back to the server. The sequence number is set to the received acknowledgement value i.e. A+1, and the acknowledgement number is set to one more than the received sequence number i.e. B+1.
  21. 21Which of the following components of an all-in-one security appliance would MOST likely be configured in order to restrict access to peer-to-peer file sharing websites? A. Spam filter B. URL filter C. Content inspection D. Malware inspectionB. URL filter
    The question asks how to prevent access to peer-to-peer file sharing websites. You access a website by browsing to a URL using a Web browser or peer-to-peer file sharing client software. A URL filter is used to block URLs (websites) to prevent users accessing the website.
  22. 22Pete, the system administrator, wants to restrict access to advertisements, games, and gambling websites. Which of the following devices would BEST achieve this goal? A. Firewall B. Switch C. URL content filter D. Spam filterC. URL content filter
    URL filtering, also known as web filtering, is the act of blocking access to a site based on all or part of the URL used to request access. URL filtering can focus on all or part of a fully qualified domain name (FQDN), specific path names, specific filenames, specific file extensions, or entire specific URLs. Many URL-filtering tools can obtain updated master URL block lists from vendors as well as allow administrators to add or remove URLs from a custom list.
  23. 23The administrator receives a call from an employee named Joe. Joe says the Internet is down and he is receiving a blank page when typing to connect to a popular sports website. The administrator asks Joe to try visiting a popular search engine site, which Joe reports as successful. Joe then says that he can get to the sports site on this phone. Which of the following might the administrator need to configure? A. The access rules on the IDS B. The pop up blocker in the employee’s browser C. The sensitivity level of the spam filter D. The default block page on the URL filterD. The default block page on the URL filter
    A URL filter is used to block access to a site based on all or part of a URL. There are a number of URL-filtering tools that can acquire updated master URL block lists from vendors, as well as allow administrators to add or remove URLs from a custom list.
  24. 24Layer 7 devices used to prevent specific types of html tags are called: A. Firewalls B. Content filters C. Routers D. NIDSB. Content filters
    A content filter is a type of software designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorized to access, particularly when used to limit material delivered over the Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means. Because the user and the OSI layer interact directly with the content filter, it operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model.
  25. 25Pete, an employee, attempts to visit a popular social networking site but it is blocked. Instead, a page is displayed notifying him that this site cannot be visited. Which of the following is MOST likely blocking Petes access to this site? A. Internet content filter B. Firewall C. Proxy server D. Protocol analyzerA. Internet content filter
    Web filtering software is designed to restrict or control the content a reader is authorized to access, especially when utilized to restrict material delivered over the
    Internet via the Web, e-mail, or other means.
  26. 26A review of the companys network traffic shows that most of the malware infections are caused by users visiting gambling and gaming websites. The security manager wants to implement a solution that will block these websites, scan all web traffic for signs of malware, and block the malware before it enters the company network. Which of the following is suited for this purpose? A. ACL B. IDS C. UTM D. FirewallC. UTM
    An all-in-one appliance, also known as Unified Threat Management (UTM) and Next Generation Firewall (NGFW), is one that provides a good foundation for security. A variety is available; those that you should be familiar with for the exam fall under the categories of providing URL filtering, content inspection, or malware inspection.
    Malware inspection is the use of a malware scanner to detect unwanted software content in network traffic. If malware is detected, it can be blocked or logged and/ or trigger an alert.
  27. 27Which of the following is BEST at blocking attacks and providing security at layer 7 of the OSI model? A. WAF B. NIDS C. Routers D. SwitchesA. WAF
    A web application firewall (WAF) is an appliance, server plugin, or filter that applies a set of rules to an HTTP conversation. Generally, these rules cover common attacks such as cross-site scripting (XSS) and SQL injection. By customizing the rules to your application, many attacks can be identified and blocked. The effort to perform this customization can be significant and needs to be maintained as the application is modified.
    As the protocols used to access a web server (typically HTTP and HTTPS) run in layer 7 of the OSI model, then web application firewall (WAF) is the correct answer.
  28. 28Which of the following should the security administrator implement to limit web traffic based on country of origin? (Choose three.) A. Spam filter B. Load balancer C. Antivirus D. Proxies E. Firewall F. NIDS G. URL filteringD. Proxies
    E. Firewall
    G. URL filtering
    A proxy server is a server that acts as an intermediary for requests from clients seeking resources from other servers.
    Firewalls manage traffic using a rule or a set of rules.
    A URL is a reference to a resource that specifies the location of the resource. A URL filter is used to block access to a site based on all or part of a URL.
  29. 29A security engineer is reviewing log data and sees the output below: POST: /payload.php HTTP/1.1 - HOST: localhost - Accept: */* Referrer: http://localhost/ ******* HTTP/1.1 403 Forbidden - Connection: close - Log: Access denied with 403. Pattern matches form bypass Which of the following technologies was MOST likely being used to generate this log? A. Host-based Intrusion Detection System B. Web application firewall C. Network-based Intrusion Detection System D. Stateful Inspection Firewall E. URL Content FilterB. Web application firewall
    A web application firewall is a device, server add-on, virtual service, or system filter that defines a strict set of communication rules for a website and all visitors. Its intended to be an application-specific firewall to prevent cross-site scripting, SQL injection, and other web application attacks.
  30. 30An administrator would like to review the effectiveness of existing security in the enterprise. Which of the following would be the BEST place to start? A. Review past security incidents and their resolution B. Rewrite the existing security policy C. Implement an intrusion prevention system D. Install honey pot systemsC. Implement an intrusion prevention system
    The main functions of intrusion prevention systems are to identify malicious activity, log information about this activity, attempt to block/stop it, and report it.
  31. 31A company has proprietary mission critical devices connected to their network which are configured remotely by both employees and approved customers. The administrator wants to monitor device security without changing their baseline configuration. Which of the following should be implemented to secure the devices without risking availability? A. Host-based firewall B. IDS C. IPS D. HoneypotAn intrusion detection system (IDS) is a device or software application that monitors network or system activities for malicious activities or policy violations and produces reports to a management station. IDS come in a variety of "flavors" and approach the goal of detecting suspicious traffic in different ways. There are network based (NIDS) and host based (HIDS) intrusion detection systems. Some systems may attempt to stop an intrusion attempt but this is neither required nor expected of a monitoring system. Intrusion detection and prevention systems (IDPS) are primarily focused on identifying possible incidents, logging information about them, and reporting attempts. In addition, organizations use IDPSes for other purposes, such as identifying problems with security policies, documenting existing threats and deterring individuals from violating security policies. IDPSes have become a necessary addition to the security infrastructure of nearly every organization.
    IDPSes typically record information related to observed events, notify security administrators of important observed ev
  32. 32Which of the following firewall rules only denies DNS zone transfers? A. deny udp any any port 53 B. deny ip any any C. deny tcp any any port 53 D. deny all dns packetsC. deny tcp any any port 53
    DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers.
  33. 33A security administrator suspects that an increase in the amount of TFTP traffic on the network is due to unauthorized file transfers, and wants to configure a firewall to block all TFTP traffic. Which of the following would accomplish this task? A. Deny TCP port 68 B. Deny TCP port 69 C. Deny UDP port 68 D. Deny UDP port 69D. Deny UDP port 69
    Trivial File Transfer Protocol (TFTP) is a simple file-exchange protocol that doesnt require authentication. It operates on UDP port 69.
  34. 34Sara, a security technician, has received notice that a vendor coming in for a presentation will require access to a server outside of the network. Currently, users are only able to access remote sites through a VPN connection. How could Sara BEST accommodate the vendor? A. Allow incoming IPSec traffic into the vendor’s IP address. B. Set up a VPN account for the vendor, allowing access to the remote site. C. Turn off the firewall while the vendor is in the office, allowing access to the remote site. D. Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.D. Write a firewall rule to allow the vendor to have access to the remote site.
    Firewall rules are used to define what traffic is able pass between the firewall and the internal network. Firewall rules block the connection, allow the connection, or allow the connection only if it is secured. Firewall rules can be applied to inbound traffic or outbound traffic and any type of network.
  35. 35A technician is deploying virtual machines for multiple customers on a single physical host to reduce power consumption in a data center. Which of the following should be recommended to isolate the VMs from one another? A. Implement a virtual firewall B. Install HIPS on each VM C. Virtual switches with VLANs D. Develop a patch management guideC. Virtual switches with VLANs
    A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments.
  36. 36A router has a single Ethernet connection to a switch. In the router configuration, the Ethernet interface has three sub-interfaces, each configured with ACLs applied to them and 802.1q trunks. Which of the following is MOST likely the reason for the sub-interfaces? A. The network uses the subnet of 255.255.255.128. B. The switch has several VLANs configured on it. C. The sub-interfaces are configured for VoIP traffic. D. The sub-interfaces each implement quality of service.B. The switch has several VLANs configured on it.
    A subinterface is a division of one physical interface into multiple logical interfaces. Routers commonly employ subinterfaces for a variety of purposes, most common of these are for routing traffic between VLANs. Also, IEEE 802.1Q is the networking standard that supports virtual LANs (VLANs) on an Ethernet network.
  37. 37Joe, a technician at the local power plant, notices that several turbines had ramped up in cycles during the week. Further investigation by the system engineering team determined that a timed .exe file had been uploaded to the system control console during a visit by international contractors. Which of the following actions should Joe recommend? A. Create a VLAN for the SCADA B. Enable PKI for the MainFrame C. Implement patch management D. Implement stronger WPA2 WirelessA. Create a VLAN for the SCADA
    VLANs are used for traffic management. VLANs can be used to isolate traffic between network segments. This can be accomplished by not defining a route between different VLANs or by specifying a deny filter between certain VLANs (or certain members of a VLAN). Any network segment that doesnt need to communicate with another in order to accomplish a work task/function shouldnt be able to do so
  38. 38The security administrator needs to manage traffic on a layer 3 device to support FTP from a new remote site. Which of the following would need to be implemented? A. Implicit deny B. VLAN management C. Port security D. Access control listsD. Access control lists
    In the OSI model, IP addressing and IP routing are performed at layer 3 (the network layer). In this question we need to configure routing. When configuring routing, you specify which IP range (in this case, the IP subnet of the remote site) is allowed to route traffic through the router to the FTP server.
    Traffic that comes into the router is compared to ACL entries based on the order that the entries occur in the router. New statements are added to the end of the list. The router continues to look until it has a match. If no matches are found when the router reaches the end of the list, the traffic is denied. For this reason, you should have the frequently hit entries at the top of the list. There is an implied deny for traffic that is not permitted.
  39. 39Matt, the network engineer, has been tasked with separating network traffic between virtual machines on a single hypervisor. Which of the following would he implement to BEST address this requirement? (Choose two.) A. Virtual switch B. NAT C. System partitioning D. Access-list E. Disable spanning tree F. VLANA. Virtual switch
    F. VLAN
    A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. A virtual switch is a software application that allows communication between virtual machines. A combination of the two would best satisfy the question.
  40. 40A database administrator contacts a security administrator to request firewall changes for a connection to a new internal application. The security administrator notices that the new application uses a port typically monopolized by a virus. The security administrator denies the request and suggests a new port or service be used to complete the applications task. Which of the following is the security administrator practicing in this example? A. Explicit deny B. Port security C. Access control lists D. Implicit denyC. Access control lists
    Traffic that comes into the router is compared to ACL entries based on the order that the entries occur in the router. New statements are added to the end of the list. The router continues to look until it has a match. If no matches are found when the router reaches the end of the list, the traffic is denied. For this reason, you should have the frequently hit entries at the top of the list. There is an implied deny for traffic that is not permitted.
  41. 41An administrator needs to connect a router in one building to a router in another using Ethernet. Each router is connected to a managed switch and the switches are connected to each other via a fiber line. Which of the following should be configured to prevent unauthorized devices from connecting to the network? A. Configure each port on the switches to use the same VLAN other than the default one B. Enable VTP on both switches and set to the same domain C. Configure only one of the routers to run DHCP services D. Implement port security on the switchesD. Implement port security on the switches
    Port security in IT can mean several things:
    The physical control of all connection points, such as RJ-45 wall jacks or device ports, so that no unauthorized users or unauthorized devices can attempt to connect into an open port.
    The management of TCP and User Datagram Protocol (UDP) ports. If a service is active and assigned to a port, then that port is open. All the other 65,535 ports
    (of TCP or UDP) are closed if a service isnt actively using them.
    Port knocking is a security system in which all ports on a system appear closed. However, if the client sends packets to a specific set of ports in a certain order, a bit like a secret knock, then the desired service port becomes open and allows the client software to connect to the service.
  42. 42At an organization, unauthorized users have been accessing network resources via unused network wall jacks. Which of the following would be used to stop unauthorized access? A. Configure an access list. B. Configure spanning tree protocol. C. Configure port security. D. Configure loop protection.C. Configure port security.
    Port security in IT can mean several things. It can mean the physical control of all connection points, such as RJ-45 wall jacks or device ports, so that no unauthorized users or unauthorized devices can attempt to connect into an open port. This can be accomplished by locking down the wiring closet and server vaults and then disconnecting the workstation run from the patch panel (or punch-down block) that leads to a rooms wall jack. Any unneeded or unused wall jacks can (and should) be physically disabled in this manner. Another option is to use a smart patch panel that can monitor the MAC address of any device connected to each and every wall port across a building and detect not just when a new device is connected to an empty port, but also when a valid device is disconnected or replaced by an invalid device.
  43. 43On Monday, all company employees report being unable to connect to the corporate wireless network, which uses 802.1x with PEAP. A technician verifies that no configuration changes were made to the wireless network and its supporting infrastructure, and that there are no outages. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause for this issue? A. Too many incorrect authentication attempts have caused users to be temporarily disabled. B. The DNS server is overwhelmed with connections and is unable to respond to queries. C. The company IDS detected a wireless attack and disabled the wireless network. D. The Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service server certificate has expired.D. The Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service server certificate has expired.
    The question states that the network uses 802.1x with PEAP. The 802.1x authentication server is typically an EAP-compliant Remote Access Dial-In User Service
    (RADIUS). A RADIUS server will be configured with a digital certificate. When a digital certificate is created, an expiration period is configured by the Certificate
    Authority (CA). The expiration period is commonly one or two years.
    The question states that no configuration changes have been made so its likely that the certificate has expired.
  44. 44A company determines a need for additional protection from rogue devices plugging into physical ports around the building. Which of the following provides the highest degree of protection from unauthorized wired network access? A. Intrusion Prevention Systems B. MAC filtering C. Flood guards D. 802.1xD. 802.1x
    IEEE 802.1x is an IEEE Standard for Port-based Network Access Control (PNAC). It is part of the IEEE 802.1 group of networking protocols and provides an authentication mechanism to wireless devices connecting to a LAN or WLAN.
  45. 45While configuring a new access layer switch, the administrator, Joe, was advised that he needed to make sure that only devices authorized to access the network would be permitted to login and utilize resources. Which of the following should the administrator implement to ensure this happens? A. Log Analysis B. VLAN Management C. Network separation D. 802.1xD. 802.1x
    802.1x is a port-based authentication mechanism. Its based on Extensible Authentication Protocol (EAP) and is commonly used in closed-environment wireless networks. 802.1x was initially used to compensate for the weaknesses of Wired Equivalent Privacy (WEP), but today its often used as a component in more complex authentication and connection-management systems, including Remote Authentication Dial-In User Service (RADIUS), Diameter, Cisco Systems
    Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+), and Network Access Control (NAC).
  46. 46A network administrator wants to block both DNS requests and zone transfers coming from outside IP addresses. The company uses a firewall which implements an implicit allow and is currently configured with the following ACL applied to its external interface. PERMIT TCP ANY ANY 80 - PERMIT TCP ANY ANY 443 - Which of the following rules would accomplish this task? (Choose two.) A. Change the firewall default settings so that it implements an implicit deny B. Apply the current ACL to all interfaces of the firewall C. Remove the current ACL D. Add the following ACL at the top of the current ACLDENY TCP ANY ANY 53 E. Add the following ACL at the bottom of the current ACLDENY ICMP ANY ANY 53 F. Add the following ACL at the bottom of the current ACLDENY IP ANY ANY 53A. Change the firewall default settings so that it implements an implicit deny
    F. Add the following ACL at the bottom of the current ACLDENY IP ANY ANY 53
    Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you arent specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, youre denied access by default. Implicit deny is the default response when an explicit allow or deny isnt present.
    DNS operates over TCP and UDP port 53. TCP port 53 is used for zone transfers. These are zone file exchanges between DNS servers, special manual queries, or used when a response exceeds 512 bytes. UDP port 53 is used for most typical DNS queries.
  47. 47Users are unable to connect to the web server at IP 192.168.0.20. Which of the following can be inferred of a firewall that is configured ONLY with the following ACL? PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 80 PERMIT TCP ANY HOST 192.168.0.10 EQ 443 A. It implements stateful packet filtering. B. It implements bottom-up processing. C. It failed closed. D. It implements an implicit deny.D. It implements an implicit deny.
    Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you arent specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, youre denied access by default. Implicit deny is the default response when an explicit allow or deny isnt present.
  48. 48The Human Resources department has a parent shared folder setup on the server. There are two groups that have access, one called managers and one called staff. There are many sub folders under the parent shared folder, one is called payroll. The parent folder access control list propagates all subfolders and all subfolders inherit the parent permission. Which of the following is the quickest way to prevent the staff group from gaining access to the payroll folder? A. Remove the staff group from the payroll folder B. Implicit deny on the payroll folder for the staff group C. Implicit deny on the payroll folder for the managers group D. Remove inheritance from the payroll folderB. Implicit deny on the payroll folder for the staff group
    Implicit deny is the default security stance that says if you arent specifically granted access or privileges for a resource, youre denied access by default.
  49. 49A company has several conference rooms with wired network jacks that are used by both employees and guests. Employees need access to internal resources and guests only need access to the Internet. Which of the following combinations is BEST to meet the requirements? A. NAT and DMZ B. VPN and IPSec C. Switches and a firewall D. 802.1x and VLANsD. 802.1x and VLANs
    802.1x is a port-based authentication mechanism. Its based on Extensible Authentication
    Protocol (EAP) and is commonly used in closed-environment wireless networks. 802.1x was initially used to compensate for the weaknesses of Wired Equivalent
    Privacy (WEP), but today its often used as a component in more complex authentication and connection-management systems, including Remote Authentication
    Dial-In User Service (RADIUS), Diameter, Cisco Systems Terminal Access Controller Access-Control System Plus (TACACS+), and Network Access Control
    (NAC).
    A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. By default, all ports on a switch are part of VLAN 1. But as the switch administrator changes the VLAN assignment on a port-by-port basis, various ports can be grouped together and be distinct from other VLAN port designations. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.
  50. 50Matt, the IT Manager, wants to create a new network available to virtual servers on the same hypervisor, and does not want this network to be routable to the firewall. How could this BEST be accomplished? A. Create a VLAN without a default gateway. B. Remove the network from the routing table. C. Create a virtual switch. D. Commission a stand-alone switch.C. Create a virtual switch.
    A Hyper-V Virtual Switch implements policy enforcement for security, isolation, and service levels.
  51. 51A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) is tasked with outsourcing the analysis of security logs. These will need to still be reviewed on a regular basis to ensure the security of the company has not been breached. Which of the following cloud service options would support this requirement? A. SaaS B. MaaS C. IaaS D. PaaSB. MaaS
    Monitoring-as-a-service (MaaS) is a cloud delivery model that falls under anything as a service (XaaS). MaaS allows for the deployment of monitoring functionalities for several other services and applications within the cloud.
  52. 52Joe, a security administrator, believes that a network breach has occurred in the datacenter as a result of a misconfigured router access list, allowing outside access to an SSH server. Which of the following should Joe search for in the log files? A. Failed authentication attempts B. Network ping sweeps C. Host port scans D. Connections to port 22D. Connections to port 22
    Log analysis is the art and science of reviewing audit trails, log files, or other forms of computer-generated records for evidence of policy violations, malicious events, downtimes, bottlenecks, or other issues of concern.
    SSH uses TCP port 22. All protocols encrypted by SSH also use TCP port 22, such as SFTP, SHTTP, SCP, SExec, and slogin.
  53. 53An organization does not have adequate resources to administer its large infrastructure. A security administrator wishes to combine the security controls of some of the network devices in the organization. Which of the following methods would BEST accomplish this goal? A. Unified Threat Management B. Virtual Private Network C. Single sign on D. Role-based managementA. Unified Threat Management
    When you combine a firewall with other abilities (intrusion prevention, antivirus, content filtering, etc.), what used to be called an all-in-one appliance is now known as a unified threat management (UTM) system. The advantages of combining everything into one include a reduced learning curve (you only have one product to learn), a single vendor to deal with, andtypicallyreduced complexity.
  54. 54A company has established a network-level connection with several business partners to facilitate business transactions. Each business partner interacts with the same four application servers within the company. Which of the following defense types should the company implement to protect the remainder of the organization from those partners? A. DMZ B. IDS C. VPN D. NACA. DMZ
  55. 55A security administrator is segregating all web-facing server traffic from the internal network and restricting it to a single interface on a firewall. Which of the following BEST describes this new network? A. VLAN B. Subnet C. VPN D. DMZD. DMZ
    A DMZ or demilitarized zone (sometimes referred to as a perimeter network) is a physical or logical subnetwork that contains and exposes an organization's external-facing services to a larger and untrusted network, usually the Internet. The purpose of a DMZ is to add an additional layer of security to an organization's local area network (LAN); an external network node only has direct access to equipment in the DMZ, rather than any other part of the network. The name is derived from the term "demilitarized zone", an area between nation states in which military operation is not permitted.
  56. 56Which of the following devices would MOST likely have a DMZ interface? A. Firewall B. Switch C. Load balancer D. ProxyA. Firewall
    The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.
  57. 57A security analyst needs to ensure all external traffic is able to access the companys front-end servers but protects all access to internal resources. Which of the following network design elements would MOST likely be recommended? A. DMZ B. Cloud computing C. VLAN D. VirtualizationA. DMZ
    A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.
  58. 58Which of the following network architecture concepts is used to securely isolate at the boundary between networks? A. VLAN B. Subnetting C. DMZ D. NATC. DMZ
    A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.
  59. 59When designing a new network infrastructure, a security administrator requests that the intranet web server be placed in an isolated area of the network for security purposes. Which of the following design elements would be implemented to comply with the security administrators request? A. DMZ B. Cloud services C. Virtualization D. SandboxingA. DMZ
    A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.
  60. 60Which of the following BEST describes a demilitarized zone? A. A buffer zone between protected and unprotected networks. B. A network where all servers exist and are monitored. C. A sterile, isolated network segment with access lists. D. A private network that is protected by a firewall and a VLAN.A. A buffer zone between protected and unprotected networks.
    A demilitarized zone (DMZ) is an area of a network that is designed specifically for public users to access. The DMZ is a buffer network between the public untrusted Internet and the private trusted LAN. Often a DMZ is deployed through the use of a multihomed firewall.
  61. 61Which of the following would allow the organization to divide a Class C IP address range into several ranges? A. DMZ B. Virtual LANs C. NAT D. SubnettingD. Subnetting
    Subnetting is a dividing process used on networks to divide larger groups of hosts into smaller collections.
  62. 62Which of the following IP addresses would be hosts on the same subnet given the subnet mask 255.255.255.224? (Choose two.) A. 10.4.4.125 B. 10.4.4.158 C. 10.4.4.165 D. 10.4.4.189 E. 10.4.4.199C. 10.4.4.165
    D. 10.4.4.189
    With the given subnet mask, a maximum number of 30 hosts between IP addresses 10.4.4.161 and 10.4.4.190 are allowed. Therefore, option C and D would be hosts on the same subnet, and the other options would not.
    References:
  63. 63Which of the following would the security engineer set as the subnet mask for the servers below to utilize host addresses on separate broadcast domains? Server 1: 192.168.100.6 - Server 2: 192.168.100.9 - Server 3: 192.169.100.20 - A. /24 B. /27 C. /28 D. /29 E. /30D. /29
  64. 64Which of the following is BEST used to break a group of IP addresses into smaller network segments or blocks? A. NAT B. Virtualization C. NAC D. SubnettingD. Subnetting
    Subnetting is a dividing process used on networks to divide larger groups of hosts into smaller collections.
  65. 65A small company can only afford to buy an all-in-one wireless router/switch. The company has 3 wireless BYOD users and 2 web servers without wireless access. Which of the following should the company configure to protect the servers from the user devices? (Choose two.) A. Deny incoming connections to the outside router interface. B. Change the default HTTP port C. Implement EAP-TLS to establish mutual authentication D. Disable the physical switch ports E. Create a server VLAN F. Create an ACL to access the serverE. Create a server VLAN
    F. Create an ACL to access the server
    We can protect the servers from the user devices by separating them into separate VLANs (virtual local area networks).
    The network device in the question is a router/switch. We can use the router to allow access from devices in one VLAN to the servers in the other VLAN. We can configure an ACL (Access Control List) on the router to determine who is able to access the server.
    In computer networking, a single layer-2 network may be partitioned to create multiple distinct broadcast domains, which are mutually isolated so that packets can only pass between them via one or more routers; such a domain is referred to as a virtual local area network, virtual LAN or VLAN.
    This is usually achieved on switch or router devices. Simpler devices only support partitioning on a port level (if at all), so sharing VLANs across devices requires running dedicated cabling for each VLAN. More sophisticated devices can mark packets through tagging, so that a single interconnect (trunk) may be used to transport data for multiple VLANs.
    Grouping
  66. 66A network engineer is setting up a network for a company. There is a BYOD policy for the employees so that they can connect their laptops and mobile devices. Which of the following technologies should be employed to separate the administrative network from the network in which all of the employees devices are connected? A. VPN B. VLAN C. WPA2 D. MAC filteringB. VLAN
    A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.
  67. 67Pete, a network administrator, is capturing packets on the network and notices that a large amount of the traffic on the LAN is SIP and RTP protocols. Which of the following should he do to segment that traffic from the other traffic? A. Connect the WAP to a different switch. B. Create a voice VLAN. C. Create a DMZ. D. Set the switch ports to 802.1q mode.B. Create a voice VLAN.
    It is a common and recommended practice to separate voice and data traffic by using VLANs. Separating voice and data traffic using VLANs provides a solid security boundary, preventing data applications from reaching the voice traffic. It also gives you a simpler method to deploy QoS, prioritizing the voice traffic over the data.
  68. 68An administrator connects VoIP phones to the same switch as the network PCs and printers. Which of the following would provide the BEST logical separation of these three device types while still allowing traffic between them via ACL? A. Create three VLANs on the switch connected to a router B. Define three subnets, configure each device to use their own dedicated IP address range, and then connect the network to a router C. Install a firewall and connect it to the switch D. Install a firewall and connect it to a dedicated switch for each device typeA. Create three VLANs on the switch connected to a router
    A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.
  69. 69An administrator needs to segment internal traffic between layer 2 devices within the LAN. Which of the following types of network design elements would MOST likely be used? A. Routing B. DMZ C. VLAN D. NATC. VLAN
    A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.
  70. 70Pete, a security administrator, is informed that people from the HR department should not have access to the accounting department’s server, and the accounting department should not have access to the HR department’s server. The network is separated by switches. Which of the following is designed to keep the HR department users from accessing the accounting department’s server and vice-versa? A. ACLs B. VLANs C. DMZs D. NATSB. VLANs
    A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches. VLANs are used for traffic management. Communications between ports within the same VLAN occur without hindrance, but communications between VLANs require a routing function.
  71. 71According to company policy an administrator must logically keep the Human Resources department separated from the Accounting department. Which of the following would be the simplest way to accomplish this? A. NIDS B. DMZ C. NAT D. VLAND. VLAN
    A virtual local area network (VLAN) is a hardware-imposed network segmentation created by switches.
  72. 72Review the following diagram depicting communication between PC1 and PC2 on each side of a router. Analyze the network traffic logs which show communication between the two computers as captured by the computer with IP 10.2.2.10. DIAGRAM - PC1 PC2 - [192.168.1.30]--[INSIDE 192.168.1.1 router OUTSIDE 10.2.2.1]--[10.2.2.10] LOGS 10:30:22, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, SYN 10:30:23, SRC 10.2.2.10:80, DST 10.2.2.1:3030, SYN/ACK 10:30:24, SRC 10.2.2.1:3030, DST 10.2.2.10:80, ACK Given the above information, which of the following can be inferred about the above environment? A. 192.168.1.30 is a web server. B. The web server listens on a non-standard port. C. The router filters port 80 traffic. D. The router implements NAT.D. The router implements NAT.
    Network address translation (NAT) allows you to share a connection to the public Internet via a single interface with a single public IP address. NAT maps the private addresses to the public address. In a typical configuration, a local network uses one of the designated "private" IP address subnets. A router on that network has a private address (192.168.1.1) in that address space, and is also connected to the Internet with a "public" address (10.2.2.1) assigned by an Internet service provider.
  73. 73An administrator wishes to hide the network addresses of an internal network when connecting to the Internet. The MOST effective way to mask the network address of the users would be by passing the traffic through a: A. stateful firewall B. packet-filtering firewall C. NIPS D. NATD. NAT
    NAT serves as a basic firewall by only allowing incoming traffic that is in response to an internal systems request.
  74. 74A security analyst is reviewing firewall logs while investigating a compromised web server. The following ports appear in the log: 22, 25, 445, 1433, 3128, 3389, 6667 Which of the following protocols was used to access the server remotely? A. LDAP B. HTTP C. RDP D. HTTPSC. RDP
    RDP uses TCP port 3389.
  75. 75Which of the following is a programming interface that allows a remote computer to run programs on a local machine? A. RPC B. RSH C. SSH D. SSLA. RPC
    Remote Procedure Call (RPC) is a programming interface that allows a remote computer to run programs on a local machine.
  76. 76Which of the following would Pete, a security administrator, MOST likely implement in order to allow employees to have secure remote access to certain internal network services such as file servers? A. Packet filtering firewall B. VPN gateway C. Switch D. RouterB. VPN gateway
    VPNs are usually employed to allow remote access users to connect to and access the network, and offer connectivity between two or more private networks or
    LANs. A VPN gateway (VPN router) is a connection point that connects two LANs via a non-secure network such as the Internet.
  77. 77Which of the following should be performed to increase the availability of IP telephony by prioritizing traffic? A. Subnetting B. NAT C. Quality of service D. NACC. Quality of service
    Quality of Service (QoS) facilitates the deployment of media-rich applications, such as video conferencing and Internet Protocol (IP) telephony, without adversely affecting network throughput.
  78. 78An auditor is given access to a conference room to conduct an analysis. When they connect their laptops Ethernet cable into the wall jack, they are not able to get a connection to the Internet but have a link light. Which of the following is MOST likely causing this issue? A. Ethernet cable is damaged B. The host firewall is set to disallow outbound connections C. Network Access Control D. The switch port is administratively shutdownC. Network Access Control
    Network Access Control (NAC) means controlling access to an environment through strict adherence to and implementation of security policies. The goals of NAC are to prevent/reduce zero-day attacks, enforce security policy throughout the network, and use identities to perform access control.
  79. 79A computer is put into a restricted VLAN until the computers virus definitions are up-to-date. Which of the following BEST describes this system type? A. NAT B. NIPS C. NAC D. DMZC. NAC
    Network Access Control (NAC) means controlling access to an environment through strict adherence to and implementation of security policies. The goals of NAC are to prevent/reduce zero-day attacks, enforce security policy throughout the network, and use identities to perform access control.
  80. 80Which of the following is required to allow multiple servers to exist on one physical server? A. Software as a Service (SaaS) B. Platform as a Service (PaaS) C. Virtualization D. Infrastructure as a Service (IaaS)C. Virtualization
    Virtualization allows a single set of hardware to host multiple virtual machines.
  81. 81A corporation is looking to expand their data center but has run out of physical space in which to store hardware. Which of the following would offer the ability to expand while keeping their current data center operated by internal staff? A. Virtualization B. Subnetting C. IaaS D. SaaSA. Virtualization
    Virtualization allows a single set of hardware to host multiple virtual machines.
  82. 82The server administrator has noted that most servers have a lot of free disk space and low memory utilization. Which of the following statements will be correct if the server administrator migrates to a virtual server environment? A. The administrator will need to deploy load balancing and clustering. B. The administrator may spend more on licensing but less on hardware and equipment. C. The administrator will not be able to add a test virtual environment in the data center. D. Servers will encounter latency and lowered throughput issues.B. The administrator may spend more on licensing but less on hardware and equipment.
    Migrating to a virtual server environment reduces cost by eliminating the need to purchase, manage, maintain and power physical machines. The fewer physical machines you have, the less money it costs.
  83. 83Due to limited resources, a company must reduce their hardware budget while still maintaining availability. Which of the following would MOST likely help them achieve their objectives? A. Virtualization B. Remote access C. Network access control D. Blade serversA. Virtualization
    Because Virtualization allows a single set of hardware to host multiple virtual machines, it requires less hardware to maintain the current scenario.
  84. 84Pete, a security engineer, is trying to inventory all servers in a rack. The engineer launches RDP sessions to five different PCs and notices that the hardware properties are similar. Additionally, the MAC addresses of all five servers appear on the same switch port. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. The system is running 802.1x. B. The system is using NAC. C. The system is in active-standby mode. D. The system is virtualized.D. The system is virtualized.
    Virtualization allows a single set of hardware to host multiple virtual machines.
  85. 85Which of the following offers the LEAST amount of protection against data theft by USB drives? A. DLP B. Database encryption C. TPM D. Cloud computingD. Cloud computing
    Cloud computing refers to performing data processing and storage elsewhere, over a network connection, rather than locally. Because users have access to the data, it can easily be copied to a USB device.
  86. 86A companys business model was changed to provide more web presence and now its ERM software is no longer able to support the security needs of the company. The current data center will continue to provide network and security services. Which of the following network elements would be used to support the new business model? A. Software as a Service B. DMZ C. Remote access support D. Infrastructure as a ServiceA. Software as a Service
    Software as a Service (SaaS) allows for on-demand online access to specific software applications or suites without having to install it locally. This will allow the data center to continue providing network and security services.
  87. 87The Chief Information Officer (CIO) has mandated web based Customer Relationship Management (CRM) business functions be moved offshore to reduce cost, reduce IT overheads, and improve availability. The Chief Risk Officer (CRO) has agreed with the CIOs direction but has mandated that key authentication systems be run within the organizations network. Which of the following would BEST meet the CIO and CROs requirements? A. Software as a Service B. Infrastructure as a Service C. Platform as a Service D. Hosted virtualization serviceA. Software as a Service
    Software as a Service (SaaS) is a software distribution model in which applications are hosted by a vendor or service provider and made available to customers over a network, typically the Internet.
  88. 88An IT director is looking to reduce the footprint of their companys server environment. They have decided to move several internally developed software applications to an alternate environment, supported by an external company. Which of the following BEST describes this arrangement? A. Infrastructure as a Service B. Storage as a Service C. Platform as a Service D. Software as a ServiceA. Infrastructure as a Service
    Cloud users install operating-system images and their application software on the cloud infrastructure to deploy their applications. In this model, the cloud user patches and maintains the operating systems and the application software.
  89. 89Which of the following offerings typically allows the customer to apply operating system patches? A. Software as a service B. Public Clouds C. Cloud Based Storage D. Infrastructure as a serviceD. Infrastructure as a service
    Cloud users install operating-system images and their application software on the cloud infrastructure to deploy their applications. In this model, the cloud user patches and maintains the operating systems and the application software.
  90. 90Which of the following technologies can store multi-tenant data with different security requirements? A. Data loss prevention B. Trusted platform module C. Hard drive encryption D. Cloud computingD. Cloud computing
    One of the ways cloud computing is able to obtain cost efficiencies is by putting data from various clients on the same machines. This "multitenant" nature means that workloads from different clients can be on the same system, and a flaw in implementation could compromise security.
  91. 91Multi-tenancy is a concept found in the following: A. Full disk encryption B. Removable media C. Cloud computing D. Data loss preventionC. Cloud computing
    One of the ways cloud computing is able to obtain cost efficiencies is by putting data from various clients on the same machines. This "multitenant" nature means that workloads from different clients can be on the same system, and a flaw in implementation could compromise security.
  92. 92Which of the following devices is BEST suited to protect an HTTP-based application that is susceptible to injection attacks? A. Protocol filter B. Load balancer C. NIDS D. Layer 7 firewallD. Layer 7 firewall
    An application-level gateway firewall filters traffic based on user access, group membership, the application or service used, or even the type of resources being transmitted. This type of firewall operates at the Application layer (Layer 7) of the OSI model.
  93. 93Concurrent use of a firewall, content filtering, antivirus software and an IDS system would be considered components of: A. Redundant systems. B. Separation of duties. C. Layered security. D. Application control.C. Layered security.
    Layered security is the practice of combining multiple mitigating security controls to protect resources and data.
  94. 94A network engineer is designing a secure tunneled VPN. Which of the following protocols would be the MOST secure? A. IPsec B. SFTP C. BGP D. PPTPA. IPsec
    Layer 2 Tunneling Protocol (L2TP) came about through a partnership between Cisco and Microsoft with the intention of providing a more secure VPN protocol.
    L2TP is considered to be a more secure option than PPTP, as the IPSec protocol which holds more secure encryption algorithms, is utilized in conjunction with it.
    It also requires a pre-shared certificate or key.L2TPs strongest level of encryption makes use of 168 bit keys, 3 DES encryption algorithm and requires two levels of authentication.
    L2TP has a number of advantages in comparison to PPTP in terms of providing data integrity and authentication of origin verification designed to keep hackers from compromising the system. However, the increased overhead required to manage this elevated security means that it performs at a slower pace than PPTP.
  95. 95Configuring the mode, encryption methods, and security associations are part of the following: A. IPSec B. Full disk encryption C. 802.1x D. PKIA. IPSec
    IPSec can operate in tunnel mode or transport mode. It uses symmetric cryptography to provide encryption security. Furthermore, it makes use of Internet Security
    Association and Key Management Protocol (ISAKMP).
  96. 96A companys legacy server requires administration using Telnet. Which of the following protocols could be used to secure communication by offering encryption at a lower OSI layer? (Choose two.) A. IPv6 B. SFTP C. IPSec D. SSH E. IPv4A. IPv6
    C. IPSec
    Telnet supports IPv6 connections.
    IPv6 is the communications protocol that provides an identification and location system for computers on networks and routes traffic across the Internet. IPsec is a protocol suite for securing Internet Protocol (IP) communications by authenticating and encrypting each IP packet of a communication session. IPsec is a compulsory component for IPv6.
    IPsec operates at Layer 3 of the OSI model, whereas Telnet operates at Layer 7.
  97. 97A network administrator needs to provide daily network usage reports on all layer 3 devices without compromising any data while gathering the information. Which of the following would be configured to provide these reports? A. SNMP B. SNMPv3 C. ICMP D. SSHB. SNMPv3
    Currently, SNMP is predominantly used for monitoring and performance management. SNMPv3 defines a secure version of SNMP and also facilitates remote configuration of the SNMP entities.
  98. 98Which of the following would a security specialist be able to determine upon examination of a server's certificate? A. CA public key B. Server private key C. CSR D. OIDD. OID
  99. 99A security analyst is diagnosing an incident in which a system was compromised from an external IP address. The socket identified on the firewall was traced to 207.46.130.0:6666. Which of the following should the security analyst do to determine if the compromised system still has an active connection? A. tracert B. netstat C. ping D. nslookupB. netstat
  100. 100Multiple organizations operating in the same vertical want to provide seamless wireless access for their employees as they visit the other organizations. Which of the following should be implemented if all the organizations use the native 802.1x client on their mobile devices? A. Shibboleth B. RADIUS federation C. SAML D. OAuth E. OpenID connectB. RADIUS federation
  101. 101Which of the following BEST describes an important security advantage yielded by implementing vendor diversity? A. Sustainability B. Homogeneity C. Resiliency D. ConfigurabilityC. Resiliency
  102. 102In a corporation where compute utilization spikes several times a year, the Chief Information Officer (CIO) has requested a cost-effective architecture to handle the variable capacity demand. Which of the following characteristics BEST describes what the CIO has requested? A. Elasticity B. Scalability C. High availability D. RedundancyA. Elasticity
    Elasticity is defined as "the degree to which a system is able to adapt to workload changes by provisioning and de-provisioning resources in an autonomic manner, such that at each point in time the available resources match the current demand as closely as possible".
  103. 103A security engineer is configuring a system that requires the X.509 certificate information to be pasted into a form field in Base64 encoded format to import it into the system. Which of the following certificate formats should the engineer use to obtain the information in the required format? A. PFX B. PEM C. DER D. CERB. PEM
  104. 104Which of the following attacks specifically impact data availability? A. DDoS B. Trojan C. MITM D. RootkitA. DDoS
  105. 105A security analyst is hardening a server with the directory services role installed. The analyst must ensure LDAP traffic cannot be monitored or sniffed and maintains compatibility with LDAP clients. Which of the following should the analyst implement to meet these requirements? (Select two.) A. Generate an X.509-compliant certificate that is signed by a trusted CA. B. Install and configure an SSH tunnel on the LDAP server. C. Ensure port 389 is open between the clients and the servers using the communication. D. Ensure port 636 is open between the clients and the servers using the communication. E. Remote the LDAP directory service role from the server.A. Generate an X.509-compliant certificate that is signed by a trusted CA.
    D. Ensure port 636 is open between the clients and the servers using the communication.
  106. 106Which of the following threat actors is MOST likely to steal a company's proprietary information to gain a market edge and reduce time to market? A. Competitor B. Hacktivist C. Insider D. Organized crime.A. Competitor
  107. 107A penetration tester is crawling a target website that is available to the public. Which of the following represents the actions the penetration tester is performing? A. URL hijacking B. Reconnaissance C. White box testing D. Escalation of privilegeB. Reconnaissance
  108. 108Which of the following characteristics differentiate a rainbow table attack from a brute force attack? (Select two.) A. Rainbow table attacks greatly reduce compute cycles at attack time. B. Rainbow tables must include precomputed hashes. C. Rainbow table attacks do not require access to hashed passwords. D. Rainbow table attacks must be performed on the network. E. Rainbow table attacks bypass maximum failed login restrictions.B. Rainbow tables must include precomputed hashes.
    E. Rainbow table attacks bypass maximum failed login restrictions.
  109. 109Which of the following best describes routine in which semicolons, dashes, quotes, and commas are removed from a string? A. Error handling to protect against program exploitation B. Exception handling to protect against XSRF attacks. C. Input validation to protect against SQL injection. D. Padding to protect against string buffer overflows.C. Input validation to protect against SQL injection.
  110. 110A security analyst wishes to increase the security of an FTP server. Currently, all traffic to the FTP server is unencrypted. Users connecting to the FTP server use a variety of modern FTP client software. The security analyst wants to keep the same port and protocol, while also still allowing unencrypted connections. Which of the following would BEST accomplish these goals? A. Require the SFTP protocol to connect to the file server. B. Use implicit TLS on the FTP server. C. Use explicit FTPS for connections. D. Use SSH tunneling to encrypt the FTP traffic.C. Use explicit FTPS for connections.
  111. 111Which of the following explains why vendors publish MD5 values when they provide software patches for their customers to download over the Internet? A. The recipient can verify integrity of the software patch. B. The recipient can verify the authenticity of the site used to download the patch. C. The recipient can request future updates to the software using the published MD5 value. D. The recipient can successfully activate the new software patch.A. The recipient can verify integrity of the software patch.
  112. 112Refer to the following code: Which of the following vulnerabilities would occur if this is executed? A. Page exception B. Pointer deference C. NullPointerException D. Missing null checkD. Missing null check
  113. 113Multiple employees receive an email with a malicious attachment that begins to encrypt their hard drives and mapped shares on their devices when it is opened. The network and security teams perform the following actions: ✑ Shut down all network shares. ✑ Run an email search identifying all employees who received the malicious message. ✑ Reimage all devices belonging to users who opened the attachment. Next, the teams want to re-enable the network shares. Which of the following BEST describes this phase of the incident response process? A. Eradication B. Containment C. Recovery D. Lessons learnedC. Recovery
  114. 114An organization has determined it can tolerate a maximum of three hours of downtime. Which of the following has been specified? A. RTO B. RPO C. MTBF D. MTTRA. RTO
  115. 115Which of the following types of keys is found in a key escrow? A. Public B. Private C. Shared D. SessionB. Private
  116. 116A security analyst is reviewing the following output from an IPS: Given this output, which of the following can be concluded? (Select two.) A. The source IP of the attack is coming from 250.19.18.22. B. The source IP of the attack is coming from 250.19.18.71. C. The attacker sent a malformed IGAP packet, triggering the alert. D. The attacker sent a malformed TCP packet, triggering the alert. E. The TTL value is outside of the expected range, triggering the alert.B. The source IP of the attack is coming from 250.19.18.71.
    C. The attacker sent a malformed IGAP packet, triggering the alert.
  117. 117Despite having implemented password policies, users continue to set the same weak passwords and reuse old passwords. Which of the following technical controls would help prevent these policy violations? (Select two.) A. Password expiration B. Password length C. Password complexity D. Password history E. Password lockoutC. Password complexity
    D. Password history
  118. 118Which of the following types of cloud infrastructures would allow several organizations with similar structures and interests to realize the benefits of shared storage and resources? A. Private B. Hybrid C. Public D. CommunityD. Community
  119. 119A company is currently using the following configuration: ✑ IAS server with certificate-based EAP-PEAP and MSCHAP ✑ Unencrypted authentication via PAP A security administrator needs to configure a new wireless setup with the following configurations: ✑ PAP authentication method ✑ PEAP and EAP provide two-factor authentication Which of the following forms of authentication are being used? (Select two.) A. PAP B. PEAP C. MSCHAP D. PEAP- MSCHAP E. EAP F. EAP-PEAPA. PAP
    C. MSCHAP
  120. 120An auditor wants to test the security posture of an organization by running a tool that will display the following: Which of the following commands should be used? A. nbtstat B. nc C. arp D. ipconfigA. nbtstat
  121. 121A company determines that it is prohibitively expensive to become compliant with new credit card regulations. Instead, the company decides to purchase insurance to cover the cost of any potential loss. Which of the following is the company doing? A. Transferring the risk B. Accepting the risk C. Avoiding the risk D. Migrating the riskA. Transferring the risk
  122. 122A company is using a mobile device deployment model in which employees use their personal devices for work at their own discretion. Some of the problems the company is encountering include the following: ✑ There is no standardization. ✑ Employees ask for reimbursement for their devices. ✑ Employees do not replace their devices often enough to keep them running efficiently. ✑ The company does not have enough control over the devices. Which of the following is a deployment model that would help the company overcome these problems? A. BYOD B. VDI C. COPE D. CYODD. CYOD
  123. 123A botnet has hit a popular website with a massive number of GRE-encapsulated packets to perform a DDoS attack. News outlets discover a certain type of refrigerator was exploited and used to send outbound packets to the website that crashed. To which of the following categories does the refrigerator belong? A. SoC B. ICS C. IoT D. MFDC. IoT
  124. 124Users report the following message appears when browsing to the company's secure site: This website cannot be trusted. Which of the following actions should a security analyst take to resolve these messages? (Select two.) A. Verify the certificate has not expired on the server. B. Ensure the certificate has a .pfx extension on the server. C. Update the root certificate into the client computer certificate store. D. Install the updated private key on the web server. E. Have users clear their browsing history and relaunch the session.A. Verify the certificate has not expired on the server.
    C. Update the root certificate into the
  125. 125When trying to log onto a company's new ticketing system, some employees receive the following message: Access denied: too many concurrent . The ticketing system was recently installed on a small VM with only the recommended hardware specifications. Which of the following is the MOST sessions likely cause for this error message? A. Network resources have been exceeded. B. The software is out of licenses. C. The VM does not have enough processing power. D. The firewall is misconfigured.C. The VM does not have enough processing power.
  126. 126Joe, an employee, wants to show his colleagues how much he knows about smartphones. Joe demonstrates a free movie application that he installed from a third party on his corporate smartphone. Joe's colleagues were unable to find the application in the app stores. Which of the following allowed Joe to install the application? (Select two.) A. Near-field communication. B. Rooting/jailbreaking C. Ad-hoc connections D. Tethering E. SideloadingB. Rooting/jailbreaking
    E. Sideloading
  127. 127Which of the following can be provided to an AAA system for the identification phase? A. Username B. Permissions C. One-time token D. Private certificateA. Username
  128. 128Which of the following implements two-factor authentication? A. A phone system requiring a PIN to make a call B. At ATM requiring a credit card and PIN C. A computer requiring username and password D. A datacenter mantrap requiring fingerprint and iris scanB. At ATM requiring a credit card and PIN
  129. 129Malicious traffic from an internal network has been detected on an unauthorized port on an application server. Which of the following network-based security controls should the engineer consider implementing? A. ACLs B. HIPS C. NAT D. MAC filteringA. ACLs
  130. 130A network administrator wants to implement a method of securing internal routing. Which of the following should the administrator implement? A. DMZ B. NAT C. VPN D. PATC. VPN
  131. 131A security administrator is developing controls for creating audit trails and tracking if a PHI data breach is to occur. The administrator has been given the following requirements: ✑ All access must be correlated to a user account. ✑ All user accounts must be assigned to a single individual. ✑ User access to the PHI data must be recorded. ✑ Anomalies in PHI data access must be reported. ✑ Logs and records cannot be deleted or modified. Which of the following should the administrator implement to meet the above requirements? (Select three.) A. Eliminate shared accounts. B. Create a standard naming convention for accounts. C. Implement usage auditing and review. D. Enable account lockout thresholds. E. Copy logs in real time to a secured WORM drive. F. Implement time-of-day restrictions. G. Perform regular permission audits and reviews.A. Eliminate shared accounts.
    C. Implement usage auditing and review.
    G. Perform regular permission audits and reviews.
  132. 132Which of the following encryption methods does PKI typically use to securely protect keys? A. Elliptic curve B. Digital signatures C. Asymmetric D. ObfuscationC. Asymmetric
  133. 133An organization is using a tool to perform a source code review. Which of the following describes the case in which the tool incorrectly identifies the vulnerability? A. False negative B. True negative C. False positive D. True positiveC. False positive
  134. 134A department head at a university resigned on the first day of the spring semester. It was subsequently determined that the department head deleted numerous files and directories from the server-based home directory while the campus was closed. Which of the following policies or procedures could have prevented this from occurring? A. Time-of-day restrictions B. Permission auditing and review C. Offboarding D. Account expirationC. Offboarding
  135. 135A database backup schedule consists of weekly full backups performed on Saturday at 12:00 a.m. and daily differential backups also performed at 12:00 a.m. If the database is restored on Tuesday afternoon, which of the following is the number of individual backups that would need to be applied to complete the database recovery? A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4B. 2
  136. 136Which of the following security controls does an iris scanner provide? A. Logical B. Administrative C. Corrective D. Physical E. Detective F. DeterrentD. Physical
  137. 137As part of a new industry regulation, companies are required to utilize secure, standardized OS settings. A technical must ensure the OS settings are hardened. Which of the following is the BEST way to do this? A. Use a vulnerability scanner. B. Use a configuration compliance scanner. C. Use a passive, in-line scanner. D. Use a protocol analyzer.B. Use a configuration compliance scanner.
  138. 138A user has attempted to access data at a higher classification level than the user's account is currently authorized to access. Which of the following access control models has been applied to this user's account? A. MAC B. DAC C. RBAC D. ABACA. MAC
  139. 139A security consultant discovers that an organization is using the PCL protocol to print documents, utilizing the default driver and print settings. Which of the following is the MOST likely risk in this situation? A. An attacker can access and change the printer configuration. B. SNMP data leaving the printer will not be properly encrypted. C. An MITM attack can reveal sensitive information. D. An attacker can easily inject malicious code into the printer firmware. E. Attackers can use the PCL protocol to bypass the firewall of client computers.B. SNMP data leaving the printer will not be properly encrypted.
  140. 140An organization finds that most help desk calls are regarding account lockout due to a variety of applications running on different systems. Management is looking for a solution to reduce the number of account lockouts while improving security. Which of the following is the BEST solution for this organization? A. Create multiple application accounts for each user. B. Provide secure tokens. C. Implement SSO. D. Utilize role-based access control.C. Implement SSO.
  141. 141When performing data acquisition on a workstation, which of the following should be captured based on memory volatility? (Select two.) A. USB-attached hard disk B. Swap/pagefile C. Mounted network storage D. ROM E. RAMB. Swap/pagefile
    E. RAM
  142. 142Ann, a security administrator, has been instructed to perform fuzz-based testing on the company's applications. Which of the following best describes what she will do? A. Enter random or invalid data into the application in an attempt to cause it to fault B. Work with the developers to eliminate horizontal privilege escalation opportunities C. Test the applications for the existence of built-in- back doors left by the developers D. Hash the application to verify it won't cause a false positive on the HIPSA. Enter random or invalid data into the application in an attempt to cause it to fault
  143. 143An attacker compromises a public CA and issues unauthorized X.509 certificates for Company.com. In the future, Company.com wants to mitigate the impact of similar incidents. Which of the following would assist Company.com with its goal? A. Certificate pinning B. Certificate stapling C. Certificate chaining D. Certificate with extended validationA. Certificate pinning
  144. 144A systems administrator is attempting to recover from a catastrophic failure in the datacenter. To recover the domain controller, the systems administrator needs to provide the domain administrator credentials. Which of the following account types is the systems administrator using? A. Shared account B. Guest account C. Service account D. User accountD. User account
  145. 145HSMHardware Security Modules
  146. 146TPMTrusted Platform Module
  147. 147A network administrator at a small office wants to simplify the configuration of mobile clients connecting to an encrypted wireless network. Which of the following should be implemented in the administrator does not want to provide the wireless password or he certificate to the employees? A. WPS B. 802.1x C. WPA2-PSK D. TKIPA. WPS
  148. 148When connected to a secure WAP, which of the following encryption technologies is MOST likely to be configured when connecting to WPA2-PSK? A. DES B. AES C. MD5 D. WEPB. AES
  149. 149A company has a data classification system with definitions for "Private" and "Public". The company's security policy outlines how data should be protected based on type. The company recently added the data type "Proprietary". Which of the following is the MOST likely reason the company added this data type? A. Reduced cost B. More searchable data C. Better data classification D. Expanded authority of the privacy officerC. Better data classification
  150. 150When configuring settings in a mandatory access control environment, which of the following specifies the subjects that can access specific data objects? A. Owner B. System C. Administrator D. UserC. Administrator
  151. 151A high-security defense installation recently begun utilizing large guard dogs that bark very loudly and excitedly at the slightest provocation. Which of the following types of controls does this BEST describe? A. Deterrent B. Preventive C. Detective D. CompensatingA. Deterrent
  152. 152A company's user lockout policy is enabled after five unsuccessful login attempts. The help desk notices a user is repeatedly locked out over the course of a workweek. Upon contacting the user, the help desk discovers the user is on vacation and does not have network access. Which of the following types of attacks are MOST likely occurring? (Select two.) A. Replay B. Rainbow tables C. Brute force D. Pass the hash E. DictionaryC. Brute force
    E. Dictionary
  153. 153Ann. An employee in the payroll department, has contacted the help desk citing multiple issues with her device, including: ✑ Slow performance ✑ Word documents, PDFs, and images no longer opening ✑ A pop-up Ann states the issues began after she opened an invoice that a vendor emailed to her. Upon opening the invoice, she had to click several security warnings to view it in her word processor. With which of the following is the device MOST likely infected? A. Spyware B. Crypto-malware C. Rootkit D. BackdoorD. Backdoor
  154. 154RTOSReal-Time Operating System
  155. 155A company is terminating an employee for misbehavior. Which of the following steps is MOST important in the process of disengagement from this employee? A. Obtain a list of passwords used by the employee. B. Generate a report on outstanding projects the employee handled. C. Have the employee surrender company identification. D. Have the employee sign an NDA before departing.C. Have the employee surrender company identification.
  156. 156A company is developing a new secure technology and requires computers being used for development to be isolated. Which of the following should be implemented to provide the MOST secure environment? A. A perimeter firewall and IDS B. An air gapped computer network C. A honeypot residing in a DMZ D. An ad hoc network with NAT E. A bastion hostB. An air gapped computer network
  157. 157Which of the following is an important step to take BEFORE moving any installation packages from a test environment to production? A. Roll back changes in the test environment B. Verify the hashes of files C. Archive and compress the files D. Update the secure baselineB. Verify the hashes of files
  158. 158A user clicked an email link that led to a website than infected the workstation with a virus. The virus encrypted all the network shares to which the user had access. The virus was not deleted or blocked by the company's email filter, website filter, or antivirus. Which of the following describes what occurred? A. The user's account was over-privileged. B. Improper error handling triggered a false negative in all three controls. C. The email originated from a private email server with no malware protection. D. The virus was a zero-day attack.D. The virus was a zero-day attack.
  159. 159An organization wishes to provide better security for its name resolution services. Which of the following technologies BEST supports the deployment of DNSSEC at the organization? A. LDAP B. TPM C. TLS D. SSL E. PKIC. TLS
  160. 160A company hires a consulting firm to crawl its Active Directory network with a non-domain account looking for unpatched systems. Actively taking control of systems is out of scope, as is the creation of new administrator accounts. For which of the following is the company hiring the consulting firm? A. Vulnerability scanning B. Penetration testing C. Application fuzzing D. User permission auditingA. Vulnerability scanning
  161. 161An administrator is replacing a wireless router. The configuration of the old wireless router was not documented before it stopped functioning. The equipment connecting to the wireless network uses older legacy equipment that was manufactured prior to the release of the 802.11i standard. Which of the following configuration options should the administrator select for the new wireless router? A. WPA+CCMP B. WPA2+CCMP C. WPA+TKIP D. WPA2+TKIPC. WPA+TKIP
  162. 162An application team is performing a load-balancing test for a critical application during off-hours and has requested access to the load balancer to review which servers are up without having the administrator on call. The security analyst is hesitant to give the application team full access due to other critical applications running on the load balancer. Which of the following is the BEST solution for security analyst to process the request? A. Give the application team administrator access during off-hours. B. Disable other critical applications before granting the team access. C. Give the application team read-only access. D. Share the account with the application team.C. Give the application team read-only access.
  163. 163VPCVirtual Private Cloud
  164. 164RaaSRansomeware as a Service
  165. 165NIDSNetwork Intrusion Detection System
  166. 166HIDSHost Intrusion Detection System
  167. 167A company is terminating an employee for misbehavior. Which of the following steps is MOST important in the process of disengagement from this employee? A. Obtain a list of passwords used by the employee. B. Generate a report on outstanding projects the employee handled. C. Have the employee surrender company identification. D. Have the employee sign an NDA before departing.C. Have the employee surrender company identification.
  168. 168A company is developing a new secure technology and requires computers being used for development to be isolated. Which of the following should be implemented to provide the MOST secure environment? A. A perimeter firewall and IDS B. An air gapped computer network C. A honeypot residing in a DMZ D. An ad hoc network with NAT E. A bastion hostB. An air gapped computer network
  169. 169Which of the following is an important step to take BEFORE moving any installation packages from a test environment to production? A. Roll back changes in the test environment B. Verify the hashes of files C. Archive and compress the files D. Update the secure baselineB. Verify the hashes of files
  170. 170A user clicked an email link that led to a website than infected the workstation with a virus. The virus encrypted all the network shares to which the user had access. The virus was not deleted or blocked by the company's email filter, website filter, or antivirus. Which of the following describes what occurred? A. The user's account was over-privileged. B. Improper error handling triggered a false negative in all three controls. C. The email originated from a private email server with no malware protection. D. The virus was a zero-day attack..
  171. 171An organization wishes to provide better security for its name resolution services. Which of the following technologies BEST supports the deployment of DNSSEC at the organization? A. LDAP B. TPM C. TLS D. SSL E. PKIC. TLS
  172. 172A company hires a consulting firm to crawl its Active Directory network with a non-domain account looking for unpatched systems. Actively taking control of systems is out of scope, as is the creation of new administrator accounts. For which of the following is the company hiring the consulting firm? A. Vulnerability scanning B. Penetration testing C. Application fuzzing D. User permission auditingA. Vulnerability scanning
  173. 173An administrator is replacing a wireless router. The configuration of the old wireless router was not documented before it stopped functioning. The equipment connecting to the wireless network uses older legacy equipment that was manufactured prior to the release of the 802.11i standard. Which of the following configuration options should the administrator select for the new wireless router? A. WPA+CCMP B. WPA2+CCMP C. WPA+TKIP D. WPA2+TKIPC. WPA+TKIP
  174. 174An application team is performing a load-balancing test for a critical application during off-hours and has requested access to the load balancer to review which servers are up without having the administrator on call. The security analyst is hesitant to give the application team full access due to other critical applications running on the load balancer. Which of the following is the BEST solution for security analyst to process the request? A. Give the application team administrator access during off-hours. B. Disable other critical applications before granting the team access. C. Give the application team read-only access. D. Share the account with the application team.C. Give the application team read-only access.
  175. 175Which of the following cryptographic attacks would salting of passwords render ineffective? A. Brute force B. Dictionary C. Rainbow tables D. BirthdayC. Rainbow tables
  176. 176A security analyst is hardening an authentication server. One of the primary requirements is to ensure there is mutual authentication and delegation. Given these requirements, which of the following technologies should the analyst recommend and configure? A. LDAP services B. Kerberos services C. NTLM services D. CHAP servicesB. Kerberos services
  177. 177Two users need to send each other emails over unsecured channels. The system should support the principle of non-repudiation. Which of the following should be used to sign the user's certificates? A. RA B. CA C. CRL D. CSRB. CA
  178. 178Which of the following attack types BEST describes a client-side attack that is used to manipulate an HTML iframe with JavaScript code via a web browser? A. Buffer overflow B. MITM C. XSS D. SQLiC. XSS
  179. 179An incident responder receives a call from a user who reports a computer is exhibiting symptoms consistent with a malware infection. Which of the following steps should the responder perform NEXT? A. Capture and document necessary information to assist in the response. B. Request the user capture and provide a screenshot or recording of the symptoms. C. Use a remote desktop client to collect and analyze the malware in real time. D. Ask the user to back up files for later recovery.A. Capture and document necessary information to assist in the response.
  180. 180A senior incident response manager receives a call about some external IPs communicating with internal computers during off hours. Which of the following types of malware is MOST likely causing this issue? A. Botnet B. Ransomware C. Polymorphic malware D. Armored virusA. Botnet
  181. 181Which of the following technologies employ the use of SAML? (Select two.) A. Single sign-on B. Federation C. LDAP D. Secure token E. RADIUSA. Single sign-on
    B. Federation
  182. 182Which of the following specifically describes the exploitation of an interactive process to access otherwise restricted areas of the OS? A. Privilege escalation B. Pivoting C. Process affinity D. Buffer overflowA. Privilege escalation
  183. 183Which of the following network vulnerability scan indicators BEST validates a successful, active scan? A. The scan job is scheduled to run during off-peak hours. B. The scan output lists SQL injection attack vectors. C. The scan data identifies the use of privileged-user credentials. D. The scan results identify the hostname and IP address.B. The scan output lists SQL injection attack vectors.
  184. 184An analyst wants to implement a more secure wireless authentication for office access points. Which of the following technologies allows for encrypted authentication of wireless clients over TLS? A. PEAP B. EAP C. WPA2 D. RADIUSA. PEAP
    EAP by itself is only an authentication framework.
    PEAP (Protected Extensible Authentication Protocol) fully encapsulates EAP and is designed to work within a TLS (Transport Layer Security) tunnel that may be encrypted but is authenticated. The primary motivation behind the creation of PEAP was to help correct the deficiencies discovered within EAP since that protocol assumes that the communications channel is protected. As a result, when EAP messages are able to be discovered in the "clear" they do not provide the protection that was assumed when the protocol was originally authored.
    PEAP, EAP-TTLS, and EAP-TLS "protect" inner EAP authentication within SSL/TLS sessions.
  185. 185PEAPProtected Extensible Authentication Protocol
  186. 186TLSTransport Layer Security
  187. 187When systems, hardware, or software are not supported by the original vendor, it is a vulnerability known as: A. system sprawl B. end-of-life systems C. resource exhaustion D. a default configurationB. end-of-life systems
  188. 188A company has three divisions, each with its own networks and services. The company decides to make its secure web portal accessible to all employees utilizing their existing usernames and passwords. The security administrator has elected to use SAML to support authentication. In this scenario, which of the following will occur when users try to authenticate to the portal? (Select two.) A. The portal will function as a service provider and request an authentication assertion. B. The portal will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion. C. The portal will request an authentication ticket from each network that is transitively trusted. D. The back-end networks will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion. E. The back-end networks will request authentication tickets from the portal, which will act as the third-party service F. The back-end networks will verify the assertion token issued by the portal functioning as the identity provider.C. The portal will request an authentication ticket from each network that is transitively trusted.
    D. The back-end networks will function as an identity provider and issue an authentication assertion.
  189. 189Which of the following is the BEST explanation of why control diversity is important in a defense-in-depth architecture? A. Social engineering is used to bypass technical controls, so having diversity in controls minimizes the risk of demographic exploitation B. Hackers often impact the effectiveness of more than one control, so having multiple copies of individual controls provides redundancy C. Technical exploits to defeat controls are released almost every day; control diversity provides overlapping protection. D. Defense-in-depth relies on control diversity to provide multiple levels of network hierarchy that allow user domain segmentationD. Defense-in-depth relies on control diversity to provide multiple levels of network hierarchy that allow user domain segmentation
  190. 190A system administrator wants to provide balance between the security of a wireless network and usability. The administrator is concerned with wireless encryption compatibility of older devices used by some employees. Which of the following would provide strong security and backward compatibility when accessing the wireless network? A. Open wireless network and SSL VPN B. WPA using a preshared key C. WPA2 using a RADIUS back-end for 802.1x authentication D. WEP with a 40-bit keyC. WPA2 using a RADIUS back-end for 802.1x authentication
  191. 191In terms of encrypting data, which of the following is BEST described as a way to safeguard password data by adding random data to it in storage? A. Using salt B. Using hash algorithms C. Implementing elliptical curve D. Implementing PKIA. Using salt
  192. 192A system administrator wants to provide for and enforce wireless access accountability during events where external speakers are invited to make presentations to a mixed audience of employees and non-employees. Which of the following should the administrator implement? A. Shared accounts B. Preshared passwords C. Least privilege D. Sponsored guestD. Sponsored guest
  193. 193Which of the following would MOST likely appear in an uncredentialed vulnerability scan? A. Self-signed certificates B. Missing patches C. Auditing parameters D. Inactive local accountsD. Inactive local accounts
  194. 194When identifying a company's most valuable assets as part of a BIA, which of the following should be the FIRST priority? A. Life B. Intellectual property C. Sensitive data D. Public reputationA. Life
  195. 195An organization needs to implement a large PKI. Network engineers are concerned that repeated transmission of the OCSP will impact network performance. Which of the following should the security analyst recommend is lieu of an OCSP? A. CSR B. CRL C. CA D. OIDB. CRL
  196. 196When considering a third-party cloud service provider, which of the following criteria would be the BEST to include in the security assessment process? (Select two.) A. Use of performance analytics B. Adherence to regulatory compliance C. Data retention policies D. Size of the corporation E. Breadth of applications supportB. Adherence to regulatory compliance
    C. Data retention policies
  197. 197Which of the following occurs when the security of a web application relies on JavaScript for input validation? A. The integrity of the data is at risk. B. The security of the application relies on antivirus. C. A host-based firewall is required. D. The application is vulnerable to race conditions.A. The integrity of the data is at risk.
  198. 198An organization's file server has been virtualized to reduce costs. Which of the following types of backups would be MOST appropriate for the particular file server? A. Snapshot B. Full C. Incremental D. DifferentialC. Incremental
  199. 199A wireless network uses a RADIUS server that is connected to an authenticator, which in turn connects to a supplicant. Which of the following represents the authentication architecture in use? A. Open systems authentication B. Captive portal C. RADIUS federation D. 802.1xD. 802.1x
  200. 200An employer requires that employees use a key-generating app on their smartphones to log into corporate applications. In terms of authentication of an individual, this type of access policy is BEST defined as: A. Something you have. B. Something you know. C. Something you do. D. Something you are.A. Something you have.
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CompTIA ITF+ CompTIA Security+ Flashcards on CompTIA Security+ Topic 1, created by Amber Saxon on 06/05/2020.
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