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Flashcards

System Quiz 1

Dale Elder AS 737 pilot English 200 cards

Cards in this deck (200)

  1. 1BLEED TRIP OFF (amber) light indicates the Engine Bleed Air Valve automatically closed due to excessively _____ engine bleed air temperature _____.2) high / or high pressure
  2. 2Conditions permitting"," the TRIP RESET switch resets the _____.2) BLEED TRIP OFF"," ZONE TEMP"," and PACK lights
  3. 3With the ISOLATION VALVE SWITCH in AUTO"," the ISOLATION VALVE _____.opens when any ENGINE BLEED AIR switch or any air conditioning PACK switch is OFF
  4. 4The APU Bleed Valve"," with an engine Bleed Air Valve open"," can____________.3) be opened when starting engines"," but avoid engine power above idle
  5. 5DUAL BLEED (amber) light illuminates when APU Bleed Air Valve is open and _____.No. 1 Engine BLEED Valve Switch ON or No. 2 Engine BLEED Valve Switch ON with the ISOLATION VALVE open
  6. 6The WING-BODY OVERHEAT (amber) light indicatesa bleed air leak in a critical area
  7. 7A single pack in high flow mode is capable of maintaining pressurization and acceptable temperatures throughout the aircraft up to the_____.Maximum Certified Altitude
  8. 8The _____ pneumatically modulate(s) to control airflow into the respective Air Conditioning Pack based on air conditioning demands.Pack valves
  9. 9With both RECIRC FAN switches on AUTO"," and both PACK switches on AUTO"," _____ Recirculation Fan(s) operate(s).both
  10. 10The Air Recirculation Fans draw warm air from _____.Correct Answer 4
    1) the E/E Bay
    2) the Passenger Cabin
    3) the lining of the Forward Cargo Compartment
    4) all of the above
  11. 11Illumination of a ZONE TEMP (amber) lights indicate a zone supply duct overheat and the associated _____ .2) Trim Air Modulating Valve closes
  12. 12Position PACK switches ______ when using external conditioned air.OFF
  13. 13Is it possible to control"," from the flight deck"," the temperature of conditioned air from an external air source?No"," flight deck controls are ineffective in controlling or modifying external air temperatures.
  14. 14Packs produce air temperature to satisfy the _____.zone requiring the most cooling
  15. 15Failure of the primary Flight Deck zone temperature control causes _____.automatic switch to backup control and illumination of CONT CAB ZONE TEMP (amber) light on Master Caution Recall
  16. 16Positioning all Zone Temperature Selectors to OFF causes pack controls to ______.maintain 75 degrees F on left pack and 65 degrees F on right pack
  17. 17The _____ provides an Equipment Cooling alert if an over temperature occurs on the ground.Crew Call Horn in the nose wheel well
  18. 18The Overboard Exhaust Valve (OEV) ______when closed"," diffuses equipment cooling exhaust air around the lining of the Forward Cargo Compartment
  19. 19The Outflow Valve Position Indicator operates with the Pressurization Mode Selector in _____.any position
  20. 20OFF SCHED DESCENT (amber) illuminates if the _____aircraft begins to descend without reaching the preset cruise altitude
  21. 21Upon descent"," the Cabin Pressurization Controller _____ if OFF SCHED DESCENT light (amber) remains illuminated.pressurizes cabin to takeoff airport altitude
  22. 22With Cabin Pressurization Mode Selector in MAN"," a _____spring-loaded switch opens and closes outflow valve
  23. 23To decrease cabin altitude when using the Cabin Pressurization Mode Selector in MAN"," _______3) close the outflow valve
  24. 24Cabin Altitude and _____ warnings use the same aural tone (intermittent horn) when activatedTakeoff Configuration
  25. 25________indicate conditions requiring the immediate attention of the Flight Crew.Red warning lights
  26. 26__________indicate conditions requiring the timely attention of the Flight CrewAmber caution lights
  27. 27When a blue light ______"," a disagreement exists between component position and switch position.remains bright blue
  28. 28The MASTER CAUTION light remains illuminated _____.as long as the caution exists or until reset
  29. 29When a single or simple fault occurs in a dual channel system; _____.the respective caution light"," system annunciator"," and
    MASTER CAUTION lights illuminate on RECALL
  30. 30To recall (refresh) fault annunciations stored in the Master Caution System _____.push and release either System Annunciator Panel
  31. 31ushing either MASTER CAUTION light extinguishes both MASTER CAUTION LIGHTS and _____extinguishes all system annunciator lights and resets the Master Caution System for further cautions
  32. 32The Flight Crew may never use the FLT DK DOOR Lock Selector in the _______ position to allow access to the Flight Deck.UNLKD
  33. 33Momentarily positioning the FLT DK DOOR Lock Selector to DENY deactivates the keypad and the door remains ______ for ______ minutes.locked/5
  34. 34The Flight Deck Access System (FDAS) allows Flight Deck access from the passenger cabin.for an emergency such as pilot incapacitation
  35. 35The flight deck door unlocks _____ seconds after entering the correct code into the Flight Deck Access Panel (FDAS)"," if the pilots do not select _____.60/DENY
  36. 36Which system DOES NOT pressurize the potable water tank?External air conditioning
  37. 37Nominal Flight Crew Oxygen system pressure at 21 degrees C (70 degrees F) is _____psi1850
  38. 38The OXY ON Flag (white tab)"," on the Flight Crew (full-face) Oxygen Mask stowage container means the Oxygen Shutoff Valve _____.is open allowing oxygen to flow to the mask
  39. 39______ provides passenger oxygen.A single chemical oxygen generator located in each Passenger Service Unit (PSU)
  40. 40To manually deploy Passenger Service Unit (PSU) oxygen masks"," ______.place PASS OXYGEN switch ON
  41. 41Passenger Service Unit (PSU) oxygen flows for approximately ____ minutes.12
  42. 42The flight crew shall _____ prior to discharging a fire extinguisher in the Flight Deckdon O2 mask with 100% and EMER (MC-10)/Emergency
    (B/E Aero) selected
  43. 43Aft attendant Emergency Exit Lights switch illuminates Emergency Exit Lights with Flight Deck EMER EXIT LIGHTS switch _____.in any position
  44. 44Overwing exit locks engage when _____.Correct Answer 4
    1) the aircraft is airborne or thrust levers are advanced
    2) either engine is running
    3) minimum of 3 of 4 entry/service doors are closed
    4) all of the above
  45. 45What does the WINDOW HEAT OVERHEAT (amber) light illuminated mean?Overheat or electrical power interruption turned power OFF to respective window.
  46. 46The Rain Removal System for the flight deck windows consists of a permanent rain repellant coating and _____.Windshield wipers on the front windows (L1 & R1)
  47. 47Positioning ENG ANTI-ICE switches ON in flight _______Correct Answer 4
    1) sets stall warning logic for icing conditions
    2) uses Engine Bleed air regardless of Engine Bleed Valve position
    3) allows engine bleed air to flow through Cowl Anti-Ice Valve for cowl lip anti-icing
    4) all of the above
  48. 48The COWL ANTI-ICE (amber) light illuminates means:Excessive pressure in the duct
  49. 49Both Engine Anti-Ice switches are selected ON. The Left COWL VALVE OPEN light is illuminated bright blue"","" and the Right COWL VALVE OPEN light is illuminated dim blue.2) The left cowl valve is in transit or stuck closed"," and the right is open
  50. 50Both Engine Anti-Ice switches are selected OFF. The Left COWL VALVE OPEN light is illuminated bright blue"," and the Right COWL VALVE OPEN light is extinguishedthe left cowl valve is in transit or stuck open"," and the
    right cowl valve is closed
  51. 51A TAI (amber) indication to the left of an N1 display on the Upper Display Unit indicates: _____.the Cowl Anti-Ice valve failed to move to the position selected by the ENG ANTI-ICE switch, or is in transit
  52. 52The Wing Anti-Ice System does not provide protection for:Correct Answer 4
    1) The leading edge flaps.
    2) The outboard leading edge slat on each wing.
    3) The trailing edge flaps.
    4) All of the above.
  53. 53The Wing Anti-Ice is selected OFF. The L VALVE OPEN light is 1) illuminated bright blue"," and the R VALVE OPEN light is extinguished.the left anti-ice control valve is in transit or stuck open"," and the right anti-ice control valve is closed
  54. 54The Wing Anti-Ice is selected ON. The L VALVE OPEN light is illuminated dim blue and the R VALVE OPEN light is illuminated bright bluethe left anti-ice control valve is open"," and the right anti- ice control valve is in transit or stuck closed
  55. 55Both Wing Anti-Ice Control Valves close during ground operations when _____.Correct Answer 4
    1) positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch OFF
    2) either engine thrust lever is above the takeoff warning setting
    3) either temperature sensor senses a duct over temperature
    4) all of the above
  56. 56Positioning the WING ANTI-ICE switch to ON in flight sets stall warning logic for icing conditions ______.for the remainder of the flight
  57. 57The PROBE HEAT provides electrical heating for _____Correct Answer 4
    1) the Alpha Vane Sensors
    2) the Total Air Temperature Probe 3) the AUX Pitot Probe
    4) all of the above
  58. 58What display unit do Flight Mode Annunciations (FMA) appear on?Primary Flight Display (PFD)
  59. 59What does CMD (green)"," annunciated on the PFD"," mean?One or both autopilots engaged.
  60. 60The Flight Mode Annunciator (FMA) displays a rectangle around each mode annunciation _____for 10 seconds after mode engagement
  61. 61The FMA displays Armed Modes in ____ at the bottom of the flight mode annunciation boxessmall white letters
  62. 62The Flight Mode Annunciators (FMA) displayed on the Primary Flight Display (PFD) are (from left to right):autothrottle; roll; pitch
  63. 63Which FMA indicates that power has been removed from the autothrottle servos during takeoff?THR HLD
  64. 64Pushing an illuminated mode switch (other than APP mode after capture) on the Mode Control Panel (MCP) _____ the mode.deselects
  65. 65Turning a Flight Director (F/D) switch ON displays command bars on the respective pilot’s attitude indicator if _____ and _____ modes are engaged.command pitch / roll
  66. 66The master FCC"," with no A/Ps engaged in CMD"," is the ______.FCC for the first F/D turned on
  67. 67The requirements for A/P engagement are ______.Correct Answer 4
    1) no force applied to control wheel
    2) select either CMD and/or CWS switch on MCP
    3) STAB TRIM AUTOPILOT cutout switch is NORMAL
    4) all of the above
  68. 68The STAB OUT OF TRIM (amber) light indicates the _____.A/P is not trimming the stab properly"," and the A/P
    remains engaged
  69. 69The A/P Disengage Light illuminates STEADY RED for _____. (Select ALL correct answers2) the stabilizer out of trim below 800 ft RA on dual channel approach
    3) the ALT ACQ mode inhibited during A/P go-around if the stabilizer is not trimmed for single A/P operation
  70. 70The ____ indication (white) on the Upper Display Unit means the FMC is not providing the Autothrottle system with N1 limit valuesA/T LIM
  71. 71The MCP IAS/MACH display is blank _____Correct Answer 4
    1) with VNAV mode engaged
    2) with A/T engaged in FMC SPD mode
    3) during 2 engine AFDS go-around
    4) all of the above
  72. 72While flying an RNP departure passing 10,000’"," you have selected LVL CHG"," with 250 in the IAS/MACH window on the MCP"," what will be the Pitch Mode FMA annunciation?MCP SPD and the airplane will fly 250 knots as shown on the MCP
  73. 73How is the MCP IAS/MACH display manually changed between indicated airspeed and Mach number?By pressing the C/O (change over) switch on the MCP
  74. 74The Bank Angle Selector (rotating knob) sets maximum bank angle for AFDS operation in which Roll modesHDG SEL or VOR
  75. 75Engaging LNAV outside of 3 NM from an active route requires an intercept course of _____ degrees or less and to intercept a route segment _____ an active waypoint.90 / before
  76. 76After engaging LVL CHG for a climb"," what does the FMA annunciate for the Autothrottle mode?N1
  77. 77After localizer and glide slope capture"," disengage APP mode by ______.Correct Answer 4
    1) pushing a TO/GA switch
    2) retuning the VHF NAV receiver
    3) disengaging autopilot(s) and turning off both F/D switches
    4) any of the above
  78. 78he aircraft is climbing from 10000’ to FL200 in VNAV with 20000’ selected in the FMC CRZ page and MCP Altitude window. Passing through 11000’"," if ALT HLD is selected"," the aircraft will ______.stop climb and level off at 11000’
  79. 79Activating either TO/GA switch above 2000' RA with flaps up and G/S not engaged results in ______.nothing
  80. 80Glide Slope capture is inhibited: ______.prior to localizer capture
  81. 81After pushing TO/GA once on a dual A/P approach prior to touchdown"," the roll mode commands _____.current ground track
  82. 82After pushing TO/GA once on a dual A/P approach prior to touchdown"," N1 provides thrust for ____1000-2000 fpm climb
  83. 83Overspeed or underspeed limiting symbols appear in the MCP speed window when _______.the commanded speed cannot be achieved (too fast or too slow)
  84. 84When deviating 200 feet from the selected altitude"," the Deviation Alerting System sounds a momentary tone and _____.the current altitude box turns amber and begins to flash
  85. 85Depressing a Transmitter Selector performs three actions. What are they?Correct Answer 4
    1) enables audio reception on the selected transmitter
    2) selects that communication system for subsequent transmission
    3) deselects any other Transmitter Selector (MIC selector) switch on that ACP
    4) all of the above
  86. 86The ACP ______ switch position keys the oxygen mask or boom microphone for direct transmission over the flight interphone and bypasses the ACP Transmitter Selector (MIC selector).I/C
  87. 87Pushing the upper half of the control wheel PTT switch activates the _____.microphone as selected by the ACP Transmitter Selector
  88. 88The Service Interphone switch connects the _____ to the Service Interphone System.external jacks
  89. 89Transmitting over the PA with the PA Handset"," on the Aft Control Stand"," ______.bypasses the ACP
  90. 90The flight deck CALL (blue) light illuminates whenever the _____ call the flight deck.Flight Attendants or Ground Crew
  91. 91Pressing GRD CALL sounds a horn in the _____ and the horn sounds ____nose wheel well / until releasing the switch
  92. 92Normally to call the Flight Attendants"," which switch is used?ATTEND
  93. 93Which radio defaults to DATA on power up and at power down?VHF3
  94. 94An illuminated Offside Tuning Light (white) on the Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) indicates _____. (Select ALL correct answers.)2) RTP is being used to tune a radio not normally associated with this RTP
    3) radio normally associated with this panel is being tuned by another RTP
  95. 95Pushing the VHF TEST button ________.Correct Answer 4
    1) tests receiver operation
    2) improves weak signal reception 3) removes squelch
    4) all of the above
  96. 96The Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) displays _____ when the selected radio is not available.INOP
  97. 97The Radio Tuning Panel (RTP) displays _____ if the panel fails.PANEL FAIL
  98. 98An illuminated SELCAL light on the SELCAL Panel means a call is received and ______.SELCAL light must be reset before receiving future calls
  99. 99The SELCAL system _____ when the system receives an incoming call from a ground stationwhite light for the associated radio illuminates and a two- tone chime sounds
  100. 100The _____ Audio Control Panel controls the cabin MEDLINK headset jacks.Observers
  101. 101On the ground"," ACARS uses _____ set to DATA to transmit and receive messages.VHF 3
  102. 102The two basic principles of operation for the 737 Electrical System are (Select ALL correct answers):2) There is no paralleling of the AC sources of power
    4) The source of power being connected to a Transfer Bus automatically disconnects an existing source.
  103. 103Sources of AC power include _____. (Select ALL correct answers)1) Battery through Static Inverters.
    2) APU Generator
    3) Engine-Driven Generators
  104. 104Illumination of the Generator DRIVE light (amber) indicates the respective IDG experienced low oil pressure due to ________.Correct Answer 4
    1) IDG failure
    2) engine shutdown
    3) IDG auto-decouple due to high oil temperature
    4) all of the above
  105. 105Placing the GRD PWR switch ON _____.connects external electrical power to both Transfer Busses
  106. 106The BUS TRANSFER switch"," in the AUTO (guarded) position"," allows _______.Bus Tie Breakers (BTB) to operate automatically
  107. 107Which light(s) indicate(s) the APU generator is ready-to- load"," but not powering a bus?APU GEN OFF BUS (bright blue)
  108. 108If neither AC Transfer Bus is powered by an IDG"," momentarily positioning either APU GEN switch to ON ___Correct Answer 4
    1) connects APU generator power to both Transfer Busses
    2) illuminates the opposite SOURCE OFF (amber) light
    3) disconnects external power"," if connected, from both
    Transfer Busses
    4) all of the above
  109. 109When the APU generator is powering Transfer Bus 1"," Transfer Bus 2 can be powered with _____. (Select ALL of the correct answers.)1) the APU Generator
    2) IDG2
  110. 110The APU generator"," operating in flight as a single electrical source ______.automatically sheds the Galley and Main Busses
  111. 111oving a GEN1 or GEN 2 (Generator) switch to ON _____Correct Answer 4
    1) extinguishes the related GEN OFF BUS light
    2) connects related IDG to Transfer Bus
    3) disconnects previous source from the related Transfer Bus
    4) all of the above
  112. 112If the aircraft takes off with the APU generator powering both Transfer Busses"," and the APU fails or is shut down"," the _____ automatically connects IDGs to their respective Transfer Bus.Automatic Generator On-line Feature
  113. 113Illumination of the ELEC light (amber) _____ indicates a fault in the _____ Power System.on the ground / DC or Standby
  114. 114The Cross Bus Tie Relay automatically opens and isolates DC Bus 1 from DC Bus 2 _____at Glide Slope capture during a Flight Director or Autopilot ILS approach
  115. 115The _____ Bus is always connected to the batteryHot Battery
  116. 116BAT DISCHARGE light (amber) illuminates when _____ battery discharge is detected in the Main Battery and/or Auxiliary Battery.excessive
  117. 117When standby electrical power is required"," the A/C standby bus is powered by _______.the Main and Auxiliary Battery via the static inverter
  118. 118Two fully-charged batteries have sufficient capacity to provide standby power for a minimum of _____ minutes.60
  119. 119With the STANDBY POWER switch in _____"," the batteries power the standby loads after losing all engine or APU electrical power _____.AUTO / in the air and on the ground
  120. 120The _____ convert(s) battery power for use by the AC Standby Bus.Static Inverter
  121. 121The STANDBY POWER switch is in AUTO. With the loss of all engine and APU electrical power"," the batteries will be powering the: (Select ALL correct answers.)Correct Answer 1, 2, 3, 4
    1) Battery Bus
    2) AC Standby Bus via the static inverter
    3) DC Standby Bus
    4) Hot Battery Bus
  122. 122N1 is the _____ pressure compressor and is a primary engine indicationlow
  123. 123N2 is the _____ pressure compressor and is a secondary engine indication.high
  124. 124The Start Levers positions are ______.IDLE and CUTOFF
  125. 125Reverse thrust cannot be selected unless ______the forward thrust lever is at IDLE
  126. 126Positioning an engine Start Lever to CUTOFF closes the _____respective Spar and Engine Fuel Shutoff Valves
  127. 127The _______ compares commanded N1 to actual N1 and adjusts fuel flow to achieve commanded N1.Electronic Engine Control (EEC)
  128. 128The Electronic Engine Control (EEC) in either normal or alternate mode DOES NOT provide ______ protection.EGT redline
  129. 129In Normal Mode"," the Electronic Engine Control (EEC) uses ____ conditions and _____ to calculate N1 thrust ratings.sensed flight / bleed air demand
  130. 130If an Engine EEC switch has both the ON (white) and ALTN (amber) displays illuminated"," the engine is operating in ____ modeeither SOFT or HARD alternate
  131. 131If an ENGINE CONTROL (amber) light illuminates"," ______.there is a non-dispatchable fault in the Engine Control System
  132. 132The Thrust Mode Display indicates R-TO (green). What mode is active?Reduced Takeoff thrust
  133. 133What causes the ENG FAIL Alert (amber) on the EGT indicator?N2 drops below 50% and start lever in IDLE
  134. 134What removes an ENG FAIL Alert (amber)?Correct Answer 4
    1) Pulling the Fire Switch
    2) The engine recovers
    3) Moving the Start Lever to CUTOFF
    4) All of the above
  135. 135On the ground"," after engine shutdown"," a red box around the EGT Readout indicates ______.an in flight exceedance has occurred
  136. 136“Reverse video” displayed on the Engine Vibration readout indicates ______.high engine vibration level
  137. 137During a normal preflight; power ON"," Start Levers in cutoff"," the ENG VALVE CLOSED lights (blue) and SPAR VALVE CLOSED lights (blue) should be ______.uminated dim which indicates the valves are closed
  138. 138An illuminated FILTER BYPASS light (amber) indicates ______.an impending fuel filter bypass due to a contaminated filter
  139. 139What is the indication if the engine oil pressure drops below redline during takeoff roll (>80 kts)?The indication is a steady LOW OIL PRESSURE (amber)
    light.
  140. 140The Ignition Select Switch in the IGN R position selects ______.the right igniter for use on both engines
  141. 141In flight; the Engine Start Switch in CONT provides ignition _____"," with the Engine Start Lever in IDLE. (Select ALL correct answers.)1) to both igniters"," when N2 is below idle
    3) to selected igniters"," when the engine is operating normally
  142. 142The Engine Start Switch"," set to FLT"," provides ignition to _____ with the Engine Start Lever in IDLE.both igniters
  143. 143A steady START VALVE OPEN (amber) light indicates the _____Start Valve is open and supplying air to the starter
  144. 144On the Upper Display Unit"," an amber REV indicates that the Thrust Reverser sleeve is ____. A green REV indicates that the Thrust Reverser sleeve is _____.in transit or not in commanded position / deployed
  145. 145The REVERSER (amber) light on the Aft Overhead Panel"," illuminated for more than 12 seconds"," triggers the Master Caution ENG annunciation to indicate the thrust reverser ________.has a malfunction
  146. 146During normal APU operations"," the APU will automatically shut down for all of the following lights EXCEPT ______.MAINT
  147. 147After the APU reaches 95 percent RPM"," if the LOW OIL PRESSURE (amber) light is still illuminated"," _______.the APU initiates an automatic shutdown
  148. 148In EEC HARD ALTERNATE Mode"," thrust is _____equal to or greater than normal mode thrust for the
    same lever position
  149. 149Pushing either illuminated Master FIRE WARN light"," in flight"," ____Correct Answer 4
    1) silences the Fire Warning Bell
    2) extinguishes both FIRE WARN lights
    3) resets the system for future warnings
    4) all of the above
  150. 150Pushing the _____ provides the same function as pushing either Master FIRE WARN light for an engine fire warning.Fire Warning BELL CUTOUT switch
  151. 151The _____ Bus powers the Engine Overheat and Fire Detection. The _____ Bus powers the Engine Fire Extinguishing.Battery / Hot Battery
  152. 152If illuminated"," the ENG OVERHEAT light and Engine Fire Switch remain illuminated until ________.the temperature drops below the onset temperature
  153. 153With the OVHT DET switch in the A position"," _____ can initiate an overheat or fire warning.only the A detector loop
  154. 154With the OVHT DET switch selected to “A” during an Overheat/Fire Test"," a FAULT light (amber) indications means_____.there is a fault in loop A
  155. 155If one overheat/fire detector loop fails with the OVHT DET switch on NORMAL", "the ____remaining loop functions as a single loop detector
  156. 156Rotating an Engine Fire Switch in one direction _____.electrically fires a squib on one bottle"," discharging the
    extinguisher
  157. 157The _____ Bus powers the APU Fire Detection and the _____ Bus powers the APU Fire ExtinguishBattery / Hot Battery
  158. 158Select the two events that will unlock the APU Fire Switch ______. (Select ALL correct answers.)1) using the Fire Switch Override
    3) the Fire Switch illuminates
  159. 159Pressing the HORN CUTOUT switch on the APU Fire Control Panel (main wheel well) silences the _____ and the APU Fire Warning Light _____.Fire Warning Bell and APU Fire Warning Horn / stops flashing but remains illuminated
  160. 160Placing the Overheat/Fire Protection Panel Test Switch to OVHT/FIRE checks ______.engine"," APU and wheel well overheat and fire detection circuitry
  161. 161Placing the Overheat/Fire Protection Panel Test Switch to FAULT/INOP checks _____ and related Flight Deck indicators.engine and APU module fault detection circuitry
  162. 162A FAULT light (amber) illuminates during an OVHT FIRE test. This indicates a failure of ______.at least one loop on an engine
  163. 163Setting the ENGINES APU EXT/TEST switch to position _____ tests the APU Fire Bottle _____.1 or 2 / circuit continuity
  164. 164Complete this statement: Main wheel well fire _____detection requires AC power
  165. 165When TEST is pushed and held on the Boeing Cargo Fire Panel"," a DETECTOR FAULT light (amber) illuminated indicates ______.a fault (failure) in one or more detectors in the loop(s)
  166. 166The second fire bottle"," on the Boeing Lower Cargo Compartment Fire Suppression Dual Bottle system"," discharges _____.automatically by a timer for a total of 195 minutes saturation
  167. 167Hydraulic System _____ normally power(s) the primary flight controls.A and B
  168. 168Loss of Hydraulic Systems A and B render _____ spoiler panels inoperative.all
  169. 169Ailerons and elevators operate _____ with loss of both Hydraulic Systems A and B.manually
  170. 170Roll control surfaces consist of _____ powered _____hydraulically / ailerons and flight spoilers
  171. 171Positioning FLT CONTROL A switch to STBY RUD ______.activates Standby Hydraulic Pump and opens Standby Rudder Shutoff Valve
  172. 172The rudder operates with _____ during Manual Reversion.the Standby Hydraulic System
  173. 173Pushing a single Left Wing Down or Right Wing Down AILERON trim switch ______.does nothing
  174. 174Aileron trim applied with the autopilot engaged ______.may cause abrupt rolling movement when disconnecting the autopilot
  175. 175More than _____ (approximately) control wheel displacement (in degrees) initiates spoiler deflection.10°
  176. 176Select the switch(es) used for maintenance purposes only.SPOILER A and B
  177. 177With a jammed Spoiler System"," the _____.Captain provides roll control with the ailerons
  178. 178The Aileron System is jammed. How is roll control provided?First Officer provides roll control using the Flight Spoilers.
  179. 179The FEEL DIFF PRESS light (amber)"," when illuminated"," indicates _____excessive differential pressure in the Elevator Feel Computer
  180. 180Actuating either pair of Stabilizer Trim Switches on the control wheels"," with the autopilot engaged ______.disconnects the autopilot
  181. 181STAB TRIM switch on the Aft Electronic Panel"," positioned to _____"," allows operation of the main electric trim regardless of _______ position.OVERRIDE / control column
  182. 182The green band of the STAB TRIM indicator on the Control Stand indicates the ______.takeoff trim limits
  183. 183SPEED TRIM FAIL light (amber)"," illuminating only during Master Caution Recall"," indicates _____ failure.a single FCC channel
  184. 184Two independent Stall Management Yaw Damper (SMYD) computers provide _____.outputs for all stall warnings in flight
  185. 185Selecting FLT CONTROL A or B switch to STBY RUD activates the Standby Hydraulic Pump and arms the _____ light(s).LOW PRESSURE
  186. 186The Main Rudder Power Control Unit (PCU) limits full rudder authority ______.at speeds above approximately 135kts
  187. 187The RUDDER trim control electrically repositions the Rudder Feel and Centering Unit and _____ the rudder pedals.displaces
  188. 188The Standby Yaw Damper operates with ______.both FLT CONTROL switches positioned to STBY RUD and the YAW DAMPER switch reset to ON
  189. 189Positioning the Speed Brake Lever to UP"," _____"," extends the _____ Spoilers to their maximum position.on the ground only / Ground and Flight
  190. 190The SPEED BRAKE DO NOT ARM light (amber) indicates _______.an abnormal condition or abnormal test inputs to the Automatic Speed Brake System
  191. 191If the Air/Ground System does not sense main landing gear wheels spin-up after landing"," with the speed brake armed"," the flight spoilers _____.automatically deploy when Air/Ground System senses ground mode (any strut compresses)
  192. 192In flight"," the LE FLAPS TRANSIT light (amber) illuminates for ______.Correct Answer 4
    1) any LE device in transit
    2) any LE device not in programmed position with respect to TE flaps
    3) two (2) or more LE flaps or slats moved from their commanded position
    4) all of the above
  193. 193The LE flaps _____ when moving the FLAP lever from UP to 1.fully extend
  194. 194The LE slats _____ when moving the FLAP lever beyond _____ degrees.deploy to full extend / 25
  195. 195The flap load relief system is operational at _____Flaps 10, 15, 25, 30 & 40
  196. 196Approaching the stall angle of attack"," with Flaps 1 through 25 selected"," the _____ automatically begin driving to full extend prior to _____ activation.LE Slats / stick shaker
  197. 197AUTO SLAT FAIL light (amber) Illumination during Master Caution Recall indicates a failure of _________.a single Stall Management Yaw Damper (SMYD
  198. 198Momentarily positioning Alternate Flaps switch DOWN fully extends the ______ using the _____ Hydraulic System.LEDs / Standby
  199. 199It is possible to _____ the LEDs using the Standby Hydraulic System with the loss of Hydraulic System B.fully extend
  200. 200Selecting UP on the ALTERNATE FLAPS position switch_____electrically retracts the TE flaps

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pilot AS 737 Flashcards on System Quiz 1, created by Dale Elder on 05/06/2021.
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