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Flashcards

September 24periodicals

Dan Anderson English 51 cards

Cards in this deck (51)

  1. 1During what phase of flight is CFIT (Controlled Flight Into Terrain) risk highest?Arrival phase, which includes descent and initial approach (20% of CFIT), and final approach and landing (41% of CFIT -so together that’s 61%).
  2. 2CFIT Escape maneuvers usually includeRetract gear (tho not immediately) & one step of flaps, as necessary. Sustain best climb until clear of obstacle or above MSA with POH as specified authority.
  3. 3It’s best to regard the autopilot asAn inexperienced crew member requiring oversight.
  4. 4Which approaches carry the highest CFIT risk?Non-precision, especially VOR & VOR/DME, partially due to lack of vertical guidance together with oft complicated step downs.
  5. 5Best practice to simplify complicated step downsAdopt a Continuous Descent Final Approach (CDFA). Work it all out on the kitchen table to simplify & reduce distractions later on approach (AC 120-108).
  6. 6You just blew it and got sucked up into a thunderstorm. What will you do?If truly getting your butt kicked don’t think about a 180 turn. Reduce loads with a nearly straight ahead search for an exit to the other side, request block altitude & ensure you’re not picking up ice. Reduce power to anything between Vy & VA (avoid sheer stalls and high loads).
  7. 7During a mag check there’s no RPM drop. The hazard is that just turning the prop might cause magneto to fire but what’s the two likely causes?Either a bad switch (unlikely) or a bad P lead (likely).
  8. 8Absence of the sky condition and visibility on an ATIS necessarily reveals what?The ceiling is more than 5000 & the visibility is five miles or more
  9. 9According to John Hopkins study how much higher is a fatal outcome flying at night vs day?2.2 times higher than during the day.
  10. 101982 to 2024 (42 years) how many single engine airplanes glided all the way to a roadway due to engine failure and how many of those s resulted in fatalities?54, of which two were fatal (less than 4%).
  11. 11Which fog is associated with shallow surface layer beneath a dry layer?Radiation, which is a shallow ground fog, common with clear skies and light surface winds of 5 knots or less. Terrestrial radiation cools the ground, which eventually cools air to dew point. Common with rain soaked ground followed by clear skies.
  12. 12Which fog is primarily generated from moist air moving over a colder surface?Advection fog, which cools to dew point and is common in coastal areas but often moves into deeper continental areas. Known as sea fog over water.
  13. 13Which two fogs need wind IOT exist?Advection & upslope
  14. 14Clausius-Clapeyron equation has to do with the properties of what?Relative humidity where warm are can hold more vapor and cold air reduces water holding capacity.
  15. 15An abrupt change from climb to straight and level can generate the illusion ofTumbling backwards. Happens if ear fluids stabilized on climb and input abrupt.
  16. 16Without visual aid, a pilot often interprets centrifugal force as a sensation ofRiding or falling. Avoid rapid head movements during IMC to prevent.
  17. 17Abrupt head movement during a prolonged constant rate turn in IMC Or simulated instrument conditions can causeCoriolis illusion. Avoid rapid head movements during IMC
  18. 18What visual illusion creates the same effect as a narrower than usual runway?An upsloping runway. It causes the pilot to misperceive himself higher than he really is, which can cause erroneous corrections to descend too low, resulting in a hard landing or runway overrun.
  19. 19Long held belief about cabin lighting at nightThe use of regular white light, such as a flashlight, will impair night adaptation by causing pupils to contract and reducing the amount of light entering the eye. Exposure to bright lights temporarily bleaches retina rod cells
  20. 20How does haze effect an approach?Misperception that you’re farther away than actual, leading to error of flying lower than you would have.
  21. 21A sloping cloud formation, an obscured horizon and a dark scene spread with ground lights and stars can create the illusion known as?False horizons, which may lead to special disorientation and LOC accidents.
  22. 22Definition of ADMSystematic approach to the mental process used by pilots to consistently determine the best COA for a given set of circumstances
  23. 23Risk Management as part of ADM process relies on which features to reduce the risks associated with each flight?SA, problem recognition & good judgement
  24. 24You want to purchase an airplane. How do you verify title search?Perform search through reputable title and escrow company like AIC Title Service or Aerospace Reports. If there is a lien and it’s from a bank loan that bank will usually be able to provide a new FAA 8050-41 lien release.
  25. 25Contrasts between slips and skidsOnly slips can be useful either for crosswind landings or to increase rate of descent (forward slip) at a constant airspeed but proceed with caution. If you fully stall in a slip
  26. 26During a turn, a proper slip occurs when the pilot fails to apply sufficient _______ ________ for coordinated flight.During a turn, a proper slip occurs when the pilot fails to apply sufficient INSIDE RUDDER for coordinated flight.
  27. 27Both slips and skids occur whenThe flow across the wings is not parallel to the longitudinal axis of the airplane.
  28. 28In a left slip the outside right wing moves ____ ______ through the air and the inclinometer moves to the _____.In a left slip the outside right wing moves too slowly through the air and the inclinometer ball moves to the left.
  29. 29In a left slip at the stall, which wing falls first?Since the outside wing in a slip flies at a higher angle of attack, the high wing stalls first and the airplane would have to go over the top to spin.
  30. 30During a skid the _____ wing ___ _____ for the given bank angle and the inclinometer swings to the _______ of the turn.During a skid the outside wing moves too quickly for the given bank angle and the inclinometer swings to the outside of the turn.
  31. 31During a skid, if it fully stalls what’s likely to happen?Snap to inverted and spin entry through the bottom with no hope of recovery around pattern altitude.
  32. 32Which wing has the higher AOA in a skid?The inside wing.
  33. 33What would cause the altimeter to indicate lower altitude than actually flown (true altitude)? A Air temperature warmer than standard B air temperature lower than standard C atmospheric pressure lower than standardA Air temperature warmer than standard
  34. 34The altimeter of an airplane must have been inspected within what time frame if what?24 calendar months if it is to be flown IFR in controlled airspace (14 CFR 91.413 requires this, together with transponder static system within 30 days)
  35. 35At an altitude of 6500 MSL, the current altimeter setting is 30.42 inches Hg. The pressure altitude would be?29.92-30.42= -0.5 x 1000 = -500. 6500 - 500 = 6000 feet
  36. 36Where is DME required under IFR?At or above 24,000 feet, if VOR navigational equipment is required
  37. 37Where does class E generally begin in WA State?As always, it begins at the surface wherever an airport or approach box is drawn in magenta dashed lines. The 700-foot magenta fade is depicted from Sumas to nearly 8NM S then has a 5NM Western notch for Lake Whatcom seaplanes then nearly 12 NM E & continues SSE to 7NM E of Enumclaw then SSW to nearly 5NM S of Eatonville and continues SSW to 12 NM NNW of Chehalis with a fade bulb including Chehalis then meanders N to Sequim, turns nearly 90 degrees W and draws a fade rectangle around KCLM, which has a surface E inside of it. There are 18 others primarily on E side. The entire rest of the state appears to have E begin at
  38. 38Below 10,000 feet class E airspace VFR requirements3 SM Visibility, 500 below, 1000 above, 2000 feet horizontal cloud clearance
  39. 3910,000 and above class E VFR Requirements5 SM Visibility, 1000 below, 1000 above 1 SM Horizontal cloud clearance.
  40. 40According to FAR 91.117, if you want to exceed 250 knots below 10,000 what do you nee?A specific clearance to do so.
  41. 41In WA State, if you’re not already in the 700-foot class E fade encircling about 20 NM around the sound your class E begins at what altitude?Defaults to 1200 feet
  42. 42When ATC has not imposed any climb or descent restrictions and aircraft are within 1000 feet of assigned altitude, pilots should attempt to both climb and descend at a rate of betweenAs steeply as possible. Why? To expedite altitude changes and minimize time spent at potentially conflicting altitudes. Then once within 100 of the target they can relax to 500-1500 FPM.
  43. 43Under what condition will true altitude be lower than indicated altitude with an altimeter setting of 29.92?In colder than standard air temperatures (question is essentially asking when will the altimeter read higher than true altitude -when it’s colder than standard the altimeter think’s its higher).
  44. 44En route at FL 290, your altimeter is set correctly, but you fail to reset it to the local altimeter setting of 30.26 Hg during descent. If the field elevation is 134 feet and your altimeter is functioning properly, what will it indicate after landing?29.92 - 30.26 = 0.34 x 1000 = 340 feet incorrect. 134 - 340 feet = -206 feet below MSL
  45. 45Preferred IFR Routes beginning with a fix, indicate that departing aircraft will normally be routed to the fix byAn instrument DP, or radar vectors.
  46. 46It should be remembered that while instrument DPs do provide obstacle clearance, their main purpose is to provideEfficient routing to maximize aircraft capacity and minimize communication.
  47. 47While on a GPS approach, you receive a RAIM annunciation about the status of RAIM reliability. You shouldexecute an immediate missed approach regardless of where you are on the approach path. It’s crucial to go missed immediately due to potential accuracy issues.
  48. 48Reference whether an alternate is required for IFR, if the destination has no IAPThen an alternate is always required regardless of wx IAW 14 CFR 91.169
  49. 49What are the vertical limits of a transition area that is designated in conjunction with an airport having a prescribed IAP?700 AGL or more to the base of the overlying controlled airspace, usually 1200 feet AGL.
  50. 50In the interest of producing highest altitude on departure in the event of an engine failure why don’t we climb at Vx instead of Vy?Vx is closer to stall, is less than Vbg, is in area of reverse command (creating higher LOC risks) and requires aggressive forward pitch at engine failure, diminishing those gains. Additionally, many short field departures listed in POH call for partial flaps which are not helpful without power. Also Vy helps keep engines cool & Vx is hard on them.
  51. 51According to FAA how much time on average do our brains fully process engine failure?Four seconds

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Flashcards on September 24periodicals, created by Dan Anderson on 28/08/2024.
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Dan Anderson
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