Quiz
Test 2
Crie uma conta grátis para terminar este quiz
Salve seu progresso e veja sua nota final.
Já tem uma conta? Inicie sessão
Perguntas do quiz (200)
1201. A network engineer must create a diagram of a multivendor network. Which command must be configured on the Cisco devices so that the topology of the network can be mapped?
- ADevice(Config)#lldp run
- BDevice(Config)#cdp run
- CDevice(Config-if)#cdp enable
- DDevice(Config)#flow-sampler-map topology
2202. What are two descriptions of three-tier network topologies? (Choose two)
- AThe core and distribution layers perform the same functions
- BThe access layer manages routing between devices in different domains
- CThe network core is designed to maintain continuous connectivity when devices fail.
- DThe core layer maintains wired connections for each host
- EThe distribution layer runs Layer 2 and Layer 3 technologies
3203. What is the expected outcome when an EUI-64 address is generated?
- AThe seventh bit of the original MAC address of the interface is inverted
- BThe interface ID is configured as a random 64-bit value
- CThe characters FE80 are inserted at the beginning of the MAC address of the interface
- DThe MAC address of the interface is used as the interface ID without modification
4204. Which function does an SNMP agent perform?
- Ait sends information about MIB variables in response to requests from the NMS
- Bit coordinates user authentication between a network device and a TACACS+ or RADIUS server
- Cit requests information from remote network nodes about catastrophic system events.
- Dit manages routing between Layer 3 devices in a network
5205. R1 has learned route 10.10.10.0/24 via numerous routing protocols. Which route is installed?
- Aroute with the lowest cost
- Broute with the next hop that has the highest IP
- Croute with the shortest prefix length
- Droute with the lowest administrative distance
6206. What is a characteristic of spine-and-leaf architecture?
- AEach device is separated by the same number of hops
- BIt provides variable latency
- CIt provides greater predictability on STP blocked ports.
- DEach link between leaf switches allows for higher bandwidth.
7Which action must be taken to assign a global unicast IPv6 address on an interface that is derived from the MAC address of that interface?
- Aconfigure a stateful DHCPv6 server on the network
- Benable SLAAC on an interface
- Cdisable the EUI-64 bit process
- Dexplicitly assign a link-local address
8208. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is running three different routing protocols. Which route characteristic is used by the router to forward the packet that it receives for destination IP 172.16.32.1?
- Alongest prefix
- Bmetric
- Ccost
- Dadministrative distance
9209. Router R1 must send all traffic without a matching routing-table entry to 192.168.1.1. Which configuration accomplishes this task?
- AR1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route default-route 192.168.1.1 - BR1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 - CR1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 192.168.1.1 - DR1# config t
R1(config)# ip routing
R1(config)# ip default-gateway 192.168.1.1
- AR1# config t
10210. Which WPA3 enhancement protects against hackers viewing traffic on the Wi-Fi network?
- ATKiP encryption
- BAES encryption
- Cscrambled encryption key
- DSAE encryption
11211. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer is bringing up a new circuit to the MPLS provider on the Gi0/1 interface of Router1.The new circuit uses eBGP and teams the route to VLAN25 from the BGP path. What is the expected behavior for the traffic flow for route 10.10.13.0/25?
- ATraffic to 10.10.13.0.25 is load balanced out of multiple interfaces
- BRoute 10.10.13.0/25 is updated in the routing table as being learned from interface Gi0/1.
- CTraffic to 10.10.13.0/25 is asymmetrical
- DRoute 10.10.13.0/25 learned via the GiO/0 interface remains in the routing table
12212. Refer to the exhibit. How does router R1 handle traffic to 192.168.10.16?
- AIt selects the IS-IS route because it has the shortest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
- BIt selects the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance.
- CIt selects the OSPF route because it has the lowest cost.
- DIt selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
13Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands when used together create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
- Aint range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode active - Bint range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode desirable - Cint range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode passive - Dint range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode auto - Eint range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode on
- Aint range g0/0-1
14214. What is a difference between RADIUS and TACACS+?
- ARADIUS is most appropriate for dial authentication, but TACACS+ can be used for multiple types of authentication
- BTACACS+ encrypts only password information and RADIUS encrypts the entire payload
- CTACACS+ separates authentication and authorization, and RADIUS merges them
- DRADIUS logs all commands that are entered by the administrator, but TACACS+ logs only start, stop, and interim commands
15215. Refer to the exhibit. How does the router manage traffic to 192.168.12.16?
- AIt selects the RIP route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
- BIt chooses the OSPF route because it has the longest prefix inclusive of the destination address.
- CIt load-balances traffic between all three routes
- DIt chooses the EIGRP route because it has the lowest administrative distance
16216. What is an advantage of Cisco DNA Center versus traditional campus device management?
- AIt supports numerous extensibility options including cross-domain adapters and third-party SDKs.
- BIt supports high availability for management functions when operating in cluster mode.
- CIt enables easy autodiscovery of network elements m a brownfield deployment.
- DIt is designed primarily to provide network assurance.
17217. While examining excessive traffic on the network, it is noted that all incoming packets on an interface appear to be allowed even though an IPv4 ACL is applied to the interface. Which two misconfigurations cause this behavior? (Choose two)
- AThe packets fail to match any permit statement
- BA matching permit statement is too high in the access test
- CA matching permit statement is too broadly defined
- DThe ACL is empty
- EA matching deny statement is too high in the access list
18218. How do traditional campus device management and Cisco DNA Center device management differ in regards to deployment?
- ACisco DNA Center device management can deploy a network more quickly than traditional campus device management
- BTraditional campus device management allows a network to scale more quickly than with Cisco DNA Center device management
- CCisco DNA Center device management can be implemented at a lower cost than most traditional campus device management options
- DTraditional campus device management schemes can typically deploy patches and updates more quickly than Cisco DNA Center device management
19219. How do AAA operations compare regarding user identification, user services and access control?
- AAuthorization provides access control and authentication tracks user services
- BAuthentication identifies users and accounting tracks user services
- CAccounting tracks user services, and authentication provides access control
- DAuthorization identifies users and authentication provides access control
20220. What is a difference between local AP mode and FlexConnect AP mode?
- ALocal AP mode creates two CAPWAP tunnels per AP to the WLC
- BFlexConnect AP mode fails to function if me AP loses connectivity with the WLC
- CFlexConnect AP mode bridges the traffic from the AP to the WLC when local switching is configured
- DLocal AP mode causes the AP to behave as if it were an autonomous AP
21221. Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
- Aallows multiple companies to each use the same addresses without conflicts
- Bprovides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network
- Censures that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing
- Denables secure communications to the internet for all external hosts
22222. What event has occurred if a router sends a notice level message to a syslog server?
- AA TCP connection has been torn down
- BAn ICMP connection has been built
- CAn interface line has changed status
- DA certificate has expired.
23223. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures four switches for local authentication using passwords that are stored in a cryptographic hash. The four switches must also support SSH access for administrators to manage the network infrastructure. Which switch is configured correctly to meet these requirements?
- ASW1
- BSW2
- CSW3
- DSW4
24224. What are two fundamentals of virtualization? (choose two)
- AThe environment must be configured with one hypervisor that serves solely as a network manager to monitor SNMP traffic
- BIt allows logical network devices to move traffic between virtual machines and the rest of the physical network
- CIt allows multiple operating systems and applications to run independently on one physical server.
- DIt allows a physical router to directly connect NICs from each virtual machine into the network
- EIt requires that some servers, virtual machines and network gear reside on the Internet
25225. Refer to the exhibit. What two conclusions should be made about this configuration? (Choose two )
- AThe designated port is FastEthernet 2/1
- BThis is a root bridge
- CThe spanning-tree mode is Rapid PVST+
- DThe spanning-tree mode is PVST+
- EThe root port is FastEthernet 2/1
26226. Refer to the exhibit. A router reserved these five routes from different routing information sources. Which two routes does the router install in its routing table? (Choose two)
- ARIP route 10.0.0.0/30
- BiBGP route 10.0.0.0/30
- COSPF route 10.0.0.0/30
- DEIGRP route 10.0.0.1/32
- EOSPF route 10.0.0.0/16
27227. Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator wants VLAN 67 traffic to be untagged between Switch 1 and Switch 2 while all other VLANs are to remain tagged. Which command accomplishes this task?
- Aswitchport access vlan 67
- Bswitchport trunk allowed vlan 67
- Cswitchport private-vlan association host 67
- Dswitchport trunk native vlan 67
28228. What are two differences between optical-fiber cabling and copper cabling? (Choose two)
- ALight is transmitted through the core of the fiber
- BA BNC connector is used for fiber connections
- CThe glass core component is encased in a cladding
- DFiber connects to physical interfaces using Rj45 connections
- EThe data can pass through the cladding
29229. Which two minimum parameters must be configured on an active interface to enable OSPFv2 to operate? (Choose two)
- AOSPF area
- BOSPF MD5 authentication key
- CiPv6 address
- DOSPF process ID
- EOSPF stub flag
30230. Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. After the configuration is applied, the two routers fail to establish an OSPF neighbor relationship. what is the reason for the problem?
- AThe OSPF router IDs are mismatched.
- BRouter2 is using the default hello timer.
- CThe network statement on Router1 is misconfigured.
- DThe OSPF process IDs are mismatched.
31231. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they provide reliability for delivery of packets?
- ATCP is a connectionless protocol that does not provide reliable delivery of data, UDP is a connection-oriented protocol that uses sequencing to provide reliable delivery.
- BTCP does not guarantee delivery or error checking to ensure that there is no corruption of data UDP provides message acknowledgement and retransmits data if lost.
- CTCP provides flow control to avoid overwhelming a receiver by sending too many packets at once, UDP sends packets to the receiver in a continuous stream without checking for sequencing
- DTCP uses windowing to deliver packets reliably; UDP provides reliable message transfer between hosts by establishing a three-way handshake
32232. A packet is destined for 10.10.1.22. Which static route does the router choose to forward the packet?
- Aip route 10.10.1.0 255.255.255.240 10.10.255.1
- Bip route 10.10.1.16 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1
- Cip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.252 10.10.255.1
- Dip route 10.10.1.20 255.255.255.254 10.10.255.1
33233. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 Fa0/0 cannot ping router R3 Fa0/1. Which action must be taken in router R1 to help resolve the configuration issue?
- Aset the default network as 20.20.20.0/24
- Bset the default gateway as 20.20.20.2
- Cconfigure a static route with Fa0/1 as the egress interface to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network
- Dconfigure a static route with 10.10.10.2 as the next hop to reach the 20.20.20.0/24 network
34234. Refer to the exhibit. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer must add a subnet for a new office that will add 20 users to the network. Which IPv4 network and subnet mask combination does the engineer assign to minimize wasting addresses?
- A10.10.225.48 255.255.255.240
- B10.10.225.32 255.255.255.240
- C10.10.225.48 255.255.255.224
- D10.10.225.32 255.255.255.224
35235. A corporate office uses four floors in a building
* Floor 1 has 24 users
* Floor 2 has 29 users
* Floor 3 has 28 users
* Floor 4 has 22 users
Which subnet summarizes and gives the most efficient distribution of IP addresses for the router configuration?- A192.168.0.0/26 as summary and 192.168.0.0/29 for each floor
- B192.168.0.0/24 as summary and 192.168.0.0/28 for each floor
- C192.168.0.0/23 as summary and 192.168.0.0/25 for each floor
- D192.168.0.0/25 as summary and 192.168.0.0/27 for each floor
36236. By default, how Does EIGRP determine the metric of a route for the routing table?
- Ait uses the bandwidth and delay values of the path to calculate the route metric
- Bit uses a default metric of 10 for all routes that are learned by the router
- Cit uses a reference Bandwidth and the actual bandwidth of the connected link to calculate the route metric
- Dit counts the number of hops between the receiving and destination routers and uses that value as the metric
37237. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration issue is preventing the OSPF neighbor relationship from being established between the two routers?
- AR2 is using the passive-interface default command
- BR1 has an incorrect network command for interface Gi1/0
- CR2 should have its network command in area 1
- DR1 interface Gi1/0 has a larger MTU size
38238. What are two roles of the Dynamic Host Configuration Protocol (DHCP)? (Choose two)
- AThe DHCP server offers the ability to exclude specific IP addresses from a pool of IP addresses
- BThe DHCP client can request up to four DNS server addresses
- CThe DHCP server assigns IP addresses without requiring the client to renew them
- DThe DHCP server leases client IP addresses dynamically.
- EThe DHCP client maintains a pool of IP addresses it can assign.
39239. How does CAPWAP communicate between an access point in local mode and a WLC?
- AThe access point must directly connect to the WLC using a copper cable
- BThe access point must not be connected to the wired network, as it would create a loop
- CThe access point must be connected to the same switch as the WLC
- DThe access point has the ability to link to any switch in the network, assuming connectivity to the WLC
40240. Refer to the exhibit. Which action is expected from SW1 when the untagged frame is received on the GigabitEthernet0/1 interface?
- AThe frame is processed in VLAN 5.
- BThe frame is processed in VLAN 11
- CThe frame is processed in VLAN 1
- DThe frame is dropped
41241. What are two reasons for an engineer to configure a floating state route? (Choose two)
- Ato automatically route traffic on a secondary path when the primary path goes down
- Bto route traffic differently based on the source IP of the packet
- Cto enable fallback static routing when the dynamic routing protocol fails
- Dto support load balancing via static routing
- Eto control the return path of traffic that is sent from the router
42242. Refer to the exhibit. Which route type is configured to reach the internet?
- Afloating static route
- Bhost route
- Cdefault route
- Dnetwork route
43243. How does Cisco DNA Center gather data from the network?
- ANetwork devices use different services like SNMP, syslog, and streaming telemetry to send data to the controller
- BDevices establish an iPsec tunnel to exchange data with the controller
- CDevices use the call-home protocol to periodically send data to the controller.
- DThe Cisco CU Analyzer tool gathers data from each licensed network device and streams it to the controller.
44244. What is the difference regarding reliability and communication type between TCP and UDP?
- ATCP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol
- BTCP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol
- CTCP is not reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol
- DTCP is reliable and is a connectionless protocol; UDP is not reliable and is a connection-oriented protocol
45245. Several new coverage cells are required to improve the Wi-Fi network of an organization. Which two standard designs are recommended? (Choose two.)
- A5GHz provides increased network capacity with up to 23 non overlapping channels.
- B5GHz channel selection requires an autonomous access point.
- CCells that overlap one another are configured to use non overlapping channels.
- DAdjacent cells with overlapping channels use a repeater access point.
- EFor maximum throughput, the WLC is configured to dynamically set adjacent access points to the channel.
46246. The service password-encryption command is entered on a router. What is the effect of this configuration?
- Arestricts unauthorized users from viewing clear-text passwords in the running configuration
- Bprevents network administrators from configuring clear-text passwords
- Cprotects the VLAN database from unauthorized PC connections on the switch
- Dencrypts the password exchange when a VPN tunnel is established
47247. Which type of ipv6 address is publicly routable in the same way as ipv4 public addresses?
- Amulticast
- Bunique local
- Clink-local
- Dglobal unicast
48248. Which two statements are true about the command ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 192.168.2.4? (Choose two.)
- AIt establishes a static route to the 172.16.3.0 network.
- BIt establishes a static route to the 192.168.2.0 network.
- CIt configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination to the 172.16.3.0 network.
- DIt configures the router to send any traffic for an unknown destination out the interface with the address 192.168.2.4.
- EIt uses the default administrative distance.
- FIt is a route that would be used last if other routes to the same destination exist.
49249. Which three statements are typical characteristics of VLAN arrangements? (Choose three.)
- AA new switch has no VLANs configured.
- BConnectivity between VLANs requires a Layer 3 device.
- CVLANs typically decrease the number of collision domains.
- DEach VLAN uses a separate address space.
- EA switch maintains a separate bridging table for each VLAN.
- FVLANs cannot span multiple switches.
50250. Refer to the exhibit. To which device does Router1 send packets that are destined to host 10.10.13.165?
- ARouter2
- BRouter3
- CRouter4
- DRouter5
51251. Refer to the exhibit. Which two commands were used to create port channel 10? (Choose two.)
- Aint range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode active - Bint range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode desirable - Cint range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode passive - Dint range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode auto - Eint range g0/0-1
channel-group 10 mode on
- Aint range g0/0-1
52252. What are two requirements for an HSRP group? (Choose two.)
- Aexactly one active router
- Bone or more standby routers
- Cone or more backup virtual routers
- Dexactly one standby active router
- Eexactly one backup virtual router
53253. What occurs to frames during the process of frame flooding?
- AFrames are sent to all ports, including those that are assigned to other VLANs.
- BFrames are sent to every port on the switch that has a matching entry in MAC address table.
- CFrames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN except from the originating port.
- DFrames are sent to every port on the switch in the same VLAN.
54254. If all OSPF routers in a single area are configured with the same priority value, what value does a router use for the OSPF router ID in the absence of a loopback interface?
- Athe IP address of the first Fast Ethernet interface
- Bthe IP address of the console management interface
- Cthe highest IP address among its active interfaces
- Dthe lowest IP address among its active interfaces
- Ethe priority value until a loopback interface is configured
55255. Which IPv6 address block forwards packets to a multicast address rather than a unicast address?
- A2000::/3
- BFC00::/7
- CFE80::/10
- DFF00::/12
56256. The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.)
- AIt negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces.
- BIt broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSP
- CIt provides dynamic neighbor discovery.
- DIt detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals.
- EIt uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router
- FIt maintains neighbor relationships
57257. What are two benefits of using VTP in a switching environment? (Choose two.)
- AIt allows switches to read frame tags.
- BIt allows ports to be assigned to VLANs automatically.
- CIt maintains VLAN consistency across a switched network.
- DIt allows frames from multiple VLANs to use a single interface.
- EIt allows VLAN information to be automatically propagated throughout the switching environment.
58258. Which purpose does a northbound API serve in a controller-based networking architecture?
- Acommunicates between the controller and the physical network hardware
- Breports device errors to a controller
- Cgenerates statistics for network hardware and traffic
- Dfacilitates communication between the controller and the applications
59259. The OSPF Hello protocol performs which of the following tasks? (Choose two.)
- AIt provides dynamic neighbor discovery.
- BIt detects unreachable neighbors in 90 second intervals.
- CIt maintains neighbor relationships.
- DIt negotiates correctness parameters between neighboring interfaces.
- EIt uses timers to elect the router with the fastest links as the designated router.
- FIt broadcasts hello packets throughout the internetwork to discover all routers that are running OSPF.
60260. What are two reasons a network administrator would use CDP? (Choose two.)
- Ato verify the type of cable interconnecting two devices
- Bto determine the status of network services on a remote device
- Cto obtain VLAN information from directly connected switches
- Dto verify Layer 2 connectivity between two devices when Layer 3 fails
- Eto obtain the IP address of a connected device in order to telnet to the device
- Fto determine the status of the routing protocols between directly connected routers
61261. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator is tasked with configuring a voice VLAN. What is the expected outcome when a Cisco phone is connected to the GigabitEthernet 3/1/4 port on a switch?
- AThe phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone do not have VLAN connectivity.
- BThe phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone sends and receives data in VLAN 1.
- CThe phone sends and receives data in VLAN 50, but a workstation connected to the phone has no VLAN connected.
- DThe phone and a workstation that is connected to the phone send and receive data in VLAN 50.
62262. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer deploys a topology in which R1 obtains its IP configuration from DHCP. If the switch and DHCP server configurations are complete and correct. Which two sets of commands must be configured on R1 and R2 to complete the task? (Choose two)
- AR1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100 - BR2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)# ip helper-address 198.51.100.100 - CR1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)# ip address dhcp
R1(config-if)# no shutdown - DR2(config)# interface gi0/0
R2(config-if)# ip address dhcp - ER1(config)# interface fa0/0
R1(config-if)# ip helper-address 192.0.2.2
- AR1(config)# interface fa0/0
63263. Refer to the exhibit. What commands are needed to add a subinterface to Ethernet0/0 on R1 to allow for VLAN 20, with IP address 10.20.20.1/24?
- AR1(config)#interface ethernet0/0
R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 - BR1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20
R1(config)#encapsulation dot1q 20
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 - CR1(config)#interface ethernet0/0.20
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0 - DR1(config)#interface ethernet0/0
R1(config)#ip address 10.20.20.1 255.255.255.0
- AR1(config)#interface ethernet0/0
64264. On a corporate network, hosts on the same VLAN can communicate with each other, but they are unable to communicate with hosts on different VLANs. What is needed to allow communication between the VLANs?
- Aa router with subinterfaces configured on the physical interface that is connected to the switch
- Ba router with an IP address on the physical interface connected to the switch
- Ca switch with an access link that is configured between the switches
- Da switch with a trunk link that is configured between the switches
65265. Which command can you enter to determine the addresses that have been assigned on a DHCP Server?
- AShow ip DHCP database.
- BShow ip DHCP pool.
- CShow ip DHCP binding.
- DShow ip DHCP server statistic.
66266. Refer to the exhibit. If the network environment is operating normally, which type of device must be connected to interface FastEthernet 0/1?
- ADHCP client
- Baccess point
- Crouter
- DPC
67267. Refer to the exhibit. Which configuration on RTR-1 denies SSH access from PC-1 to any RTR-1 interface and allows all other traffic?
- Aaccess-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22
access-list 100 permit ip any any
interface GigabitEthernet0/0
ip access-group 100 in - Baccess-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22
access-list 100 permit ip any any
line vty 0 15
access-class 100 in - Caccess-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23
access-list 100 permit ip any any
interface Gigabit Ethernet0/0
ip access-group 100 in - Daccess-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 23
access-list 100 permit ip any any
line vty 0 15
access-class 100 in
- Aaccess-list 100 deny tcp host 172.16.1.33 any eq 22
68268. Which function does the range of private IPv4 addresses perform?
- Aallow multiple companies to each use the same address without conflicts
- Bprovides a direct connection for hosts from outside of the enterprise network
- Censues that NAT is not required to reach the internet with private range addressing
- Denable secure communications to the internet for all external hosts
69269. Which type of API would be used to allow authorized salespeople of an organization access to internal sales data from their mobile devices?
- Apartner
- Bopen
- Cpublic
- Dprivate
70What is a characteristic of the REST API?
- Aevolved into what became SOAP
- Bused for exchanging XML structured information over HTTP or SMTP
- Cconsidered slow, complex, and rigid
- Dmost widely used API for web services
71271. What is the name of the layer in the Cisco borderless switched network design that is considered to be the backbone used for high-speed connectivity and fault isolation?
- Adata link
- Baccess
- Ccore
- Dnetwork
- Enetwork access
72272. Refer to the exhibit. An administrator configures the following ACL in order to prevent devices on the 192.168.1.0 subnet from accessing the server at 10.1.1.5:
access-list 100 deny ip 192.168.1.0 0.0.0.255 host 10.1.1.5
access-list 100 permit ip any any
Where should the administrator place this ACL for the most efficient use of network resources?
- Ainbound on router A Fa0/0
- Boutbound on router B Fa0/0
- Coutbound on router A Fa0/1
- Dinbound on router B Fa0/1
73273. Which step in the link-state routing process is described by a router sending Hello packets out all of the OSPF-enabled interfaces?
- Aelecting the designated router
- Bestablishing neighbor adjacencies
- Cinjecting the default route
- Dexchanging link-state advertisements
74274. Refer to the exhibit. Router R1 is configured with static NAT. Addressing on the router and the web server are correctly configured, but there is no connectivity between the web server and users on the Internet. What is a possible reason for this lack of connectivity?
- AThe router NAT configuration has an incorrect inside local address.
- BThe inside global address is incorrect.
- CThe NAT configuration on interface S0/0/1 is incorrect.
- DInterface Fa0/0 should be configured with the command ip nat outside
75275. Anycompany has decided to reduce its environmental footprint by reducing energy costs, moving to a smaller facility, and promoting telecommuting. What service or technology would support this requirement?
- ACisco ACI
- BCloud services
- CAPIC-EM
- Ddata center
76276. A company needs to interconnect several branch offices across a metropolitan area. The network engineer is seeking a solution that provides high-speed converged traffic, including voice, video, and data on the same network infrastructure. The company also wants easy integration to their existing LAN infrastructure in their office locations. Which technology should be recommended?
- AVSAT
- BISDN
- CFrame Relay
- DEthernet WAN
77277. Refer to the exhibit. Which two configurations would be used to create and apply a standard access list on R1, so that only the 10.0.70.0/25 network devices are allowed to access the internal database server? (Choose two.)
- AR1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 out - BR1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.54.0 0.0.1.255
- CR1(config)# interface Serial0/0/0
R1(config-if)# ip access-group 5 in - DR1(config)# access-list 5 permit 10.0.70.0 0.0.0.127
- ER1(config)# access-list 5 permit any
- AR1(config)# interface GigabitEthernet0/0
78278. Which type of VPN uses a hub-and-spoke configuration to establish a full mesh topology?
- AGRE over IPsec
- Bdynamic multipoint VPN
- CMPLS VPN
- DIPsec virtual tunnel interface
79279. What are two purposes of launching a reconnaissance attack on a network? (Choose two.)
- Ato prevent other users from accessing the system
- Bto escalate access privileges
- Cto gather information about the network and devices
- Dto scan for accessibility
- Eto retrieve and modify data
80280. Refer to the exhibit. If the switch reboots and all routers have to re-establish OSPF adjacencies, which routers will become the new DR and BDR?
- ARouter R3 will become the DR and router R1 will become the BDR.
- BRouter R4 will become the DR and router R3 will become the BDR.
- CRouter R1 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR.
- DRouter R3 will become the DR and router R2 will become the BDR
81281. The SW1 interface g0/1 is in the down/down state. Which two configurations are valid reasons for the interface conditions?(choose two)
- AThere is a duplex mismatch
- BThere is a speed mismatch
- CThere is a protocol mismatch
- DThe interface is shut down
- EThe interface is error-disabled
82282. In which two ways does a password manager reduce the chance of a hacker stealing a users password? (Choose two.)
- AIt automatically provides a second authentication factor that is unknown to the original user.
- BIt uses an internal firewall to protect the password repository from unauthorized access.
- CIt protects against keystroke logging on a compromised device or web site.
- DIt stores the password repository on the local workstation with built-in antivirus and anti-malware functionality
- EIt encourages users to create stronger passwords.
83283. What is the primary purpose of a First Hop Redundancy Protocol?
- AIt allows directly connected neighbors to share configuration information.
- BIt allows a router to use bridge priorities to create multiple loop-free paths to a single destination.
- CIt reduces routing failures by allowing Layer 3 load balancing between OSPF neighbors that have the same link metric.
- DIt reduces routing failures by allowing more than one router to represent itself, as the default gateway of a network.
84284. Refer to the exhibit. Which path is used by the router for internet traffic?
- A209.165.200.0/27
- B10.10.10.0/28
- C0.0.0.0/0
- D10.10.13.0/24
85285. Refer to Exhibit. The loopback1 interface of the Atlanta router must reach the loopback3 interface of the Washington router. Which two static host routes must be configured on the NEW York router? (Choose two)
- Aipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::1
- Bipv6 route 2000::3/128 2023::3
- Cipv6 route 2000::3/128 s0/0/0
- Dipv6 route 2000::1/128 2012::2
- Eipv6 route 2000::1/128 s0/0/1
86286. Refer to the exhibit. A packet is being sent across router R1 to host 172.16.3.14. To which destination does the router send the packet?
- A207.165.200.246 via Serial0/1/0
- B207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/0
- C207.165.200.254 via Serial0/0/1
- D207.165.200.250 via Serial0/0/0
87287. Which goal is achieved by the implementation of private IPv4 addressing on a network?
- Aallows servers and workstations to communicate across public network boundaries
- Bprovides a reduction in size of the forwarding table on network routers
- Callows communication across the Internet to other private networks
- Dprovides an added level of protection against Internet exposure
88288. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator assumes a task to complete the connectivity between PC A and the File Server Switch A and Switch B have been partially configured with VLANs 10, 11, 12, and 13 What is the next step in the configuration?
- AAdd PDA to VLAN 10 and the File Server to VLAN 11 for VLAN segmentation
- BAdd VLAN 13 to the trunk links on Switch A and Switch B for VLAN propagation
- CAdd a router on a stick between Switch A and Switch B allowing for Inter VLAN routing
- DAdd PC A to the same subnet as the File Server allowing for intra-VLAN communication
89289. When a WPA2-PSK WLAN is configured in the Wireless LAN Controller, what is the minimum number of characters that is required in ASCII format?
- A6
- B8
- C12
- D18
90290. Refer to the exhibit Which outcome is expected when PC_A sends data to PC_B?
- AThe switch rewrites the source and destination MAC addresses with its own
- BThe source and destination MAC addresses remain the same
- CThe source MAC address is changed
- DThe destination MAC address is replaced with ffff.ffff.ffff
91291. An engineer needs to configure LLDP to send the port description time length value (TLV). What command sequence must be implemented?
- Aswitch#lldp port-description
- Bswitch(config)#lldp port-description
- Cswitch(config-line)#lldp port-description
- Dswitch(config-if)#lldp port-description
92292. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch becomes the root bridge?
- AS1
- BS2
- CS3
- DS4
93293. Refer to the exhibit. What is the next hop address for traffic that is destined to host 10.0.1.5?
- ALoopback 0
- B10.0.1.4
- C10.0.1.50
- D10.0.1.3
94294. When the active router in an HSRP group fails, what router assumes the role and forwards packets?
- Aforwarding
- Bbackup
- Cstandby
- Dlistening
95295. An organization secures its network with multi-factor authentication using an authenticator app on employee smartphones. How is the application secured in the case of a user’s smartphone being lost or stolen?
- AThe application requires the user to enter a PIN before it provides the second factor
- Bthe application challenges a user by requiring an administrator password to reactivate when the smartphone is rebooted
- CThe application requires an administrator password to reactivate after a configured interval
- DThe application verifies that the user is in a specific location before it provides the second factor
96296. Refer to the exhibit. What action establishes the OSPF neighbor relationship without forming an adjacency?
- Amodify priority
- Bmodify process ID
- Cmodify hello interval
- Dmodify network type
97297. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer booted a new switch and applied this configuration via the console port. Which additional configuration must be applied to allow administrators to authenticate directly to enable privilege mode via Telnet using a local username and password?
- AR1(config)#username admin
R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)#password p@ss1234 - BR1(config)#username admin
R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)#password p@ss1234
R1(config-line)#transport input telnet - CR1(config)#username admin secret p@ss1234
R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)#login local
R1(config)#enable secret p@ss1234 - DR1(config)#username admin privilege 15 secret p@ss1234
R1(config-if)#line vty 0 4
R1(config-line)#login local
- AR1(config)#username admin
98298. Refer to the exhibit. Which switch in this configuration will be elected as the root bridge?
- ASW1: 0C:E0:38:00:36:75
- BSW2: 0C:0E:15:22:05:97
- CSW3: 0C:0E:15:1A:3C:9D
- DSW4: 0C:E0:18:A1:B3:19
99299. An engineer is configuring NAT to translate the source subnet of 10.10.0.0/24 to any of three addresses 192.168.3.1, 192.168.3.2, 192.168.3.3 . Which configuration should be used?
- Aenable
configure terminal
ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30
route-map permit 10.10.0.0 255.255.255.0
ip nat outside destination list 1 pool mypool
interface g1/1
ip nat inside
interface g1/2
ip nat outside - Benable
configure terminal
ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30
access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.254
ip nat inside source list 1 pool mypool
interface g1/1
ip nat inside
interface g1/2
ip nat outside - Cenable
configure terminal
ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30
access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat inside source list 1 pool mypool
interface g1/1
ip nat inside
interface g1/2
ip nat outside - Denable
configure terminal
ip nat pool mypool 192.168.3.1 192.168.3.3 prefix-length 30
access-list 1 permit 10.10.0.0 0.0.0.255
ip nat outside destination list 1 pool mypool
interface g1/1
ip nat inside
interface g1/2
ip nat outside
- Aenable
100300. An office has 8 floors with approximately 30-40 users per floor .What command must be configured on the router Switched Virtual Interface to use address space efficiently?
- Aip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.0.0
- Bip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.254.0
- Cip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.128
- Dip address 192.168.0.0 255.255.255.224
101301. Which device performs stateful inspection of traffic?
- Afirewall
- Bswitch
- Caccess point
- Dwireless controller
102302. What criteria is used first during the root port selection process?
- Alocal port ID
- Blowest path cost to the root bridge
- Clowest neighbor’s bridge ID
- Dlowest neighbor’s port ID
103303. Router R2 is configured with multiple routes to reach network 10 1.1.0/24 from router R1. What protocol is chosen by router R2 to reach the destination network 10.1.1.0/24?
- AeBGP
- Bstatic
- COSPF
- DEIGRP
104304. A network administrator enabled port security on a switch interface connected to a printer. What is the next configuration action in order to allow the port to learn the MAC address of the printer and insert it into the table automatically?
- Aenable dynamic MAC address learning
- Bimplement static MAC addressing.
- Cenable sticky MAC addressing
- Dimplement auto MAC address learning
105305. Which configuration ensures that the switch is always the root for VLAN 750?
- ASwitch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 38003685
- BSwitch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 root primary
- CSwitch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 614440
- DSwitch(config)#spanning-tree vlan 750 priority 0
106306. An engineer must configure an OSPF neighbor relationship between router R1 and R3 The authentication configuration has been configured and the connecting interfaces are in the same 192.168 1.0/30 sublet. What are the next two steps to complete the configuration? (Choose two.)
- Aconfigure the hello and dead timers to match on both sides
- Bconfigure the same process ID for the router OSPF process
- Cconfigure the same router ID on both routing processes
- Dconfigure the interfaces as OSPF active on both sides.
- Econfigure both interfaces with the same area ID
107307. What protocol allows an engineer to back up 20 network router configurations globally while using the copy function?
- ASMTP
- BSNMP
- CTCP
- DFTP
108308. Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?
- Alearning
- Bforwarding
- Cblocking
- Dlistening
109309. What are two roles of Domain Name Services (DNS)? (Choose Two)
- Abuilds a flat structure of DNS names for more efficient IP operations
- Bencrypts network Traffic as it travels across a WAN by default
- Cimproves security by protecting IP addresses under Fully Qualified Domain Names (FQDNs)
- Denables applications to identify resources by name instead of IP address
- Eallows a single host name to be shared across more than one IP address
110310. How do TCP and UDP differ in the way they guarantee packet delivery?
- ATCP uses checksum, acknowledgement, and retransmissions, and UDP uses checksums only.
- BTCP uses retransmissions, acknowledgement and parity checks and UDP uses cyclic redundancy checks only.
- CTCP uses checksum, parity checks, and retransmissions, and UDP uses acknowledgements only.
- DTCP uses two-dimensional parity checks, checksums, and cyclic redundancy checks and UDP uses retransmissions only.
111311. A device detects two stations transmitting frames at the same time. This condition occurs after the first 64 bytes of the frame is received interface counter increments?
- Acollision
- BCRC
- Crunt
- Dlate collision
112312. Which technology is used to improve web traffic performance by proxy caching?
- AWSA
- BFirepower
- CASA
- DFireSIGHT
113313. Using direct sequence spread spectrum, which three 2.4-GHz channels are used to limit collisions?
- A1,6,11
- B1,5,10
- C1,2,3
- D5,6,7
114314. Which type of attack can be mitigated by dynamic ARP inspection?
- Aworm
- Bmalware
- CDDoS
- Dman-in-the-middle
115315. What are two benefits of controller-based networking compared to traditional networking?
- Acontroller-based increases network bandwidth usage, while traditional lightens the load on the network.
- Bcontroller-based inflates software costs, while traditional decreases individual licensing costs
- Ccontroller-based reduces network configuration complexity, while traditional increases the potential for errors
- Dcontroller-based provides centralization of key IT functions. While traditional requires distributes management function
- Econtroller-based allows for fewer network failure, while traditional increases failure rates.
116316. What software defined architecture plane assists network devices with making packet-forwarding decisions by providing Layer 2 reachability and Layer 3 routing information?
- Adata plane
- Bcontrol plane
- Cpolicy plane
- Dmanagement plane
117317. Which WAN access technology is preferred for a small office / home office architecture?
- Abroadband cable access
- Bframe-relay packet switching
- Cdedicated point-to-point leased line
- DIntegrated Services Digital Network switching.
118318. Refer to the exhibit. Which route type does the routing protocol Code D represent in the output?
- Ainternal BGP route
- B/24 route of a locally configured IP
- Cstatically assigned route
- Droute learned through EIGRP
119319. Which two WAN architecture options help a business scalability and reliability for the network? (Choose two)
- Aasynchronous routing
- Bsingle-homed branches
- Cdual-homed branches
- Dstatic routing
- Edynamic routing
120320. A wireless administrator has configured a WLAN; however, the clients need access to a less congested 5-GHz network for their voice quality. What action must be taken to meet the requirement?
- Aenable AAA override
- Benable RX-SOP
- Cenable DTIM
- Denable Band Select
121321. What mechanism carries multicast traffic between remote sites and supports encryption?
- AISATAP
- BGRE over iPsec
- CiPsec over ISATAP
- DGRE
122322. An engineer must establish a trunk link between two switches. The neighboring switch is set to trunk or desirable mode. What action should be taken?
- Aconfigure switchport nonegotiate
- Bconfigure switchport mode dynamic desirable
- Cconfigure switchport mode dynamic auto
- Dconfigure switchport trunk dynamic desirable
123323. Which type of information resides on a DHCP server?
- Aa list of the available IP addresses in a pool
- Ba list of public IP addresses and their corresponding names
- Cusernames and passwords for the end users in a domain
- Da list of statically assigned MAC addresses
124324. What is a function of Wireless LAN Controller?
- Aregister with a single access point that controls traffic between wired and wireless endpoints.
- Buse SSIDs to distinguish between wireless clients.
- Csend LWAPP packets to access points.
- Dmonitor activity on wireless and wired LANs
125325. What role does a hypervisor provide for each virtual machine in server virtualization?
- Ainfrastructure-as-a-service.
- Bsoftware-as-a-service
- Ccontrol and distribution of physical resources
- Dservices as a hardware controller.
126326. Which technology must be implemented to configure network device monitoring with the highest security?
- Asyslog
- BNetFlow
- CIP SLA
- DSNMPv3
127327. What is the function of a server?
- AIt transmits packets between hosts in the same broadcast domain.
- BIt provides shared applications to end users.
- CIt routes traffic between Layer 3 devices.
- DIt creates security zones between trusted and untrusted networks
128328. Refer to the exhibit. Which type of configuration is represented in the output?
- AAnsible
- BJSON
- CChef
- DPuppet
129329. A port security violation has occurred on a switch port due to the maximum MAC address count being exceeded Which command must be configured to increment the security-violation count and forward an SNMP trap?
- Aswitchport port-security violation access
- Bswitchport port-security violation protect
- Cswitchport port-security violation restrict
- Dswitchport port-security violation shutdown
130330. Which spanning-tree enhancement avoids the learning and listening states and immediately places ports in the forwarding state?
- ABPDUfilter
- BPortFast
- CBackbonefast
- DBPDUguard
131331. What are two functions of a Layer 2 switch? (Choose two)
- Aacts as a central point for association and authentication servers
- Bselects the best route between networks on a WAN
- Cmoves packets within a VLAN
- Dmoves packets between different VLANs
- Emakes forwarding decisions based on the MAC address of a packet
132332. A manager asks a network engineer to advise which cloud service models are used so employees do not have to waste their time installing, managing, and updating software which is only used occasionally. Which cloud service model does the engineer recommend?
- Ainfrastructure-as-a-service
- Bplatform-as-a-service
- Cbusiness process as service to support different types of service
- Dsoftware-as-a-service
133333. Which two functions are performed by the core layer in a three-tier architecture? (Choose two)
- Aprovide uninterrupted forwarding service.
- Bpolice traffic that is sent to the edge of the network.
- Cprovide direct connectivity for end user devices.
- Densure timely data transfer between layers.
- Einspect packets for malicious activity.
134334. When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?
- Aspanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440
- Bspanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0
- Cspanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422
- Dspanning -tree vlan 200 root primary
135335. What are two functions of a server on a network? (Choose two)
- Aachieves redundancy by exclusively using virtual server clustering
- Bruns applications that send and retrieve data for workstations that make requests
- Chandles requests from multiple workstations at the same time
- Druns the same operating system in order to communicate with other servers
- Ehoused solely in a data center that is dedicated to a single client
136336. What is the primary function of a Layer 3 device?
- Ato analyze traffic and drop unauthorized traffic from the Internet
- Bto transmit wireless traffic between hosts
- Cto pass traffic between different networks
- Dforward traffic within the same broadcast domain
137337. Refer to the exhibit. After the election process what is the root bridge in the HQ LAN?
- ASwitch 1
- BSwitch 2
- CSwitch 3
- DSwitch 4
138338. An engineer requires a scratch interface to actively attempt to establish a trunk link with a neighbor switch. What command must be configured?
- Aswitchport mode trunk
- Bswitchport mode dynamic desirable
- Cswitchport mode dynamic auto
- Dswitchport nonegotiate
139339. What is a function of TFTP in network operations?
- Atransfers a backup configuration file from a server to a switch using a username and password
- Btransfers files between file systems on a router
- Ctransfers a configuration files from a server to a router on a congested link
- Dtransfers IOS images from a server to a router for firmware upgrades
140340. What are two recommendations for protecting network ports from being exploited when located in an office space outside of an IT closet? (Choose two)
- Aconfigure static ARP entries
- Benable the PortFast feature on ports
- Cimplement port-based authentication
- Dconfigure ports to a fixed speed
- Eshut down unused ports
141341. What is a recommended approach to avoid co-channel congestion while installing access points that use the 2.4 GHz frequency?
- Adifferent nonoverlapping channels
- Bdifferent overlapping channels
- Cone overlapping channel
- Done nonoverlapping channel
142342. Refer to the exhibit. An engineer configured the New York router with static routes that point to the Atlanta and Washington sites. Which command must be configured on the Atlanta and Washington routers so that both sites are able to reach the loopback2 interface on the New York router?
- Aipv6 route::/0 Serial 0/0/0
- Bipv6 route::/0 Serial 0/0/1
- Cipv6 route:0/0 Serial 0/0/0
- Dip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 Serial 0/0/0
- Eipv6 route::/0 2000::2
143343. What is a function of a remote access VPN?
- Aused cryptographic tunneling to protect the privacy of data for multiple users simultaneously
- Bused exclusively when a user is connected to a company’s internal network
- Cestablishes a secure tunnel between two branch sites
- Dallows the users to access company internal network resources through a secure tunnel
144344. Which CRUD operation modifies an existing table or view?
- Aread
- Bcreate
- Creplace
- Dupdate
145345. What is a DHCP client?
- Aa workstation that requests a domain name associated with its IP address
- Ba host that is configured to request an IP address automatically
- Ca server that dynamically assigns IP addresses to hosts.
- Da router that statically assigns IP addresses to hosts.
146346. What is the same for both copper and fiber interfaces when using SFP modules?
- Athey support an inline optical attenuator to enhance signal strength
- Bthey provide minimal interruption to services by being hot-swappable
- Cthey offer reliable bandwidth up to 100 Mbps in half duplex mode
- Dthey accommodate single-mode and multi-mode in a single module
147347. When using Rapid PVST+, which command guarantees the switch is always the root bridge for VLAN 200?
- Aspanning -tree vlan 200 priority 614440
- Bspanning -tree vlan 200 priority 38572422
- Cspanning -tree vlan 200 priority 0
- Dspanning -tree vlan 200 root primary
148348. An engineer must configure Interswitch VLAN communication between a Cisco switch and a third-party switch. Which action should be taken?
- Aconfigure IEEE 802.1p
- Bconfigure IEEE 802.1q
- Cconfigure ISL
- Dconfigure DSCP
149349. Which protocol prompts the Wireless LAN Controller to generate its own local web administration SSL certificate for GUI access?
- AHTTPS
- BRADIUS
- CTACACS+
- DHTTP
150350. In software defined architectures, which plane is distributed and responsible for traffic forwarding?
- Amanagement plane
- Bcontrol plane
- Cpolicy plane
- Ddata plane
151351. Which function is performed by the collapsed core layer in a two-tier architecture?
- Aenforcing routing policies
- Bmarking interesting traffic for data policies
- Cattaching users to the edge of the network
- Dapplying security policies
152352. Where does the configuration reside when a helper address Is configured to support DHCP?
- Aon the router closest to the server
- Bon the router closest to the client
- Con every router along the path
- Don the switch trunk interface
153353. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator must permit SSH access to remotely manage routers in a network. The operations team resides on the 10.20.1.0/25 network. Which command will accomplish this task?
- Aaccess-list 2699 permit udp 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255
- Bno access-list 2699 deny tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.127 eq 22
- Caccess-list 2699 permit tcp any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255 eq 22
- Dno access-list 2699 deny ip any 10.20.1.0 0.0.0.255
154354. What is the purpose of traffic shaping?
- Ato mitigate delays over slow links
- Bto provide fair queuing for buffered flows
- Cto limit the bandwidth that a flow can use to
- Dbe a marking mechanism that identifies different flows
155355. Which configuration management mechanism uses TCP port 22 by default when communicating with managed nodes?
- AAnsible
- BPython
- CPuppet
- DChef
156356. Refer to the exhibit. If OSPF Is running on this network, how does Router2 handle traffic from Site B to 10.10.13.128/25 at Site A?
- AIt load-balances traffic out of Fa0/1 and Fa0/2.
- BIt is unreachable and discards the traffic.
- CIt sends packets out of interface Fa0/2.
- DIt sends packets out of interface Fa0/1.
157357. Refer to the exhibit. Which command configures a floating static route to provide a backup to the primary link?
- Aip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.202.131
- Bip route 209.165.201.0 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.130
- Cip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 209.165.200.224
- Dip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 209.165.202.129 254
158358. What is a practice that protects a network from VLAN hopping attacks?
- Aenable dynamic ARP inspection
- Bconfigure an ACL to prevent traffic from changing VLANs
- Cchange native VLAN to an unused VLAN ID
- Dimplement port security on internet-facing VLANs
159359. Which technology can prevent client devices from arbitrarily connecting to the network without state remediation?
- A802.1x
- BIP Source Guard
- CMAC Authentication Bypass
- D802.11n
160360. What facilitates a Telnet connection between devices by entering the device name?
- ASNMP
- BDNS lookup
- Csyslog
- DNTP
161361. How does the dynamically-learned MAC address feature function?
- AThe CAM table is empty until ingress traffic arrives at each port
- BSwitches dynamically learn MAC addresses of each connecting CAM table.
- CThe ports are restricted and learn up to a maximum of 10 dynamically-learned addresses
- DIt requires a minimum number of secure MAC addresses to be filled dynamically
162362. When implementing a router as a DHCP server, which two features must be configured? (Choose two)
- Arelay agent information
- Bdatabase agent
- Caddress pool
- Dsmart-relay
- Emanual bindings
163363. Which command must be entered to configure a DHCP relay?
- Aip helper-address
- Bip address dhcp
- Cip dhcp pool
- Dip dhcp relay
164364. Where does a switch maintain DHCP snooping information?
- Ain the MAC address table
- Bin the CAM table
- Cin the binding database
- Din the frame forwarding database
165365. Which type of security program is violated when a group of employees enters a building using the ID badge of only one person?
- Aintrusion detection
- Buser awareness
- Cphysical access control
- Dnetwork authorization
166366. A network administrator needs to aggregate 4 ports into a single logical link which must negotiate layer 2 connectivity to ports on another switch What must be configured when using active mode on both sides of the connection?
- A802.1q trunks
- BCisco vPC
- CLLDP
- DLACP
167367. In which situation is private IPv4 addressing appropriate for a new subnet on the network of an organization?
- AThere is limited unique address space, and traffic on the new subnet will stay local within the organization.
- BThe network has multiple endpoint listeners, and it is desired to limit the number of broadcasts.
- CTraffic on the subnet must traverse a site-to-site VPN to an outside organization.
- DThe ISP requires the new subnet to be advertised to the internet for web services.
168368. Aside from discarding, which two states does the switch port transition through while using RSTP (802.1w)? (Choose two)
- Alistening
- Bblocking
- Cforwarding
- Dlearning
- Espeaking
169369. Which state does the switch port move to when PortFast is enabled?
- Aforwarding
- Blistening
- Cblocking
- Dlearning
170370. Refer to the exhibit. An access list is created to deny Telnet access from host PC-1 to RTR-1 and allow access from all other hosts A Telnet attempt from PC-2 gives this message:”% Connection refused by remote host” Without allowing Telnet access from PC-1, which action must be taken to permit the traffic?
- AAdd the access-list 10 permit any command to the configuration
- BRemove the access-class 10 in command from line vty 0.4.
- CAdd the ip access-group 10 out command to interface g0/0.
- DRemove the password command from line vty 0 4.
171371. What is a role of wireless controllers in an enterprise network?
- Acentralize the management of access points in an enterprise network
- Bsupport standalone or controller-based architectures
- Cserve as the first line of defense in an enterprise network
- Dprovide secure user logins to devices on the network.
172372. What is the effect when loopback interfaces and the configured router ID are absent during the OSPF Process configuration?
- ANo router ID is set, and the OSPF protocol does not run.
- BThe highest up/up physical interface IP address is selected as the router ID.
- CThe lowest IP address is incremented by 1 and selected as the router ID.
- DThe router ID 0.0.0.0 is selected and placed in the OSPF process.
173373. What is recommended for the wireless infrastructure design of an organization?
- Agroup access points together to increase throughput on a given channel
- Bconfigure the first three access points are configured to use channels 1, 6, and 11
- Cinclude a least two access points on nonoverlapping channels to support load balancing
- Dassign physically adjacent access points to the same Wi-Fi channel
174374. Which 802.11 frame type is indicated by a probe response after a client sends a probe request?
- Aaction
- Bmanagement
- Ccontrol
- Ddata
175375. How do servers connect to the network in a virtual environment?
- Awireless to an access point that is physically connected to the network
- Ba cable connected to a physical switch on the network
- Ca virtual switch that links to an access point that is physically connected to the network
- Da software switch on a hypervisor that is physically connected to the network
176376. Which CRUD operation corresponds to the HTTP GET method?
- Aread
- Bupdate
- Ccreate
- Ddelete
177377. With REST API, which standard HTTP header tells a server which media type is expected by the client?
- AAccept-Encoding: gzip. deflate
- BAccept-Patch: text/example; charset=utf-8
- CContent-Type: application/json; charset=utf-8
- DAccept: application/json
178378. Which device tracks the state of active connections in order to make a decision to forward a packet through?
- Awireless access point
- Bfirewall
- Cwireless LAN controller
- Drouter
179379. Refer to the exhibit. PC1 is trying to ping PC3 for the first time and sends out an ARP to S1. Which action is taken by S1?
- AIt forwards it out G0/3 only
- BIt is flooded out every port except G0/0.
- CIt drops the frame.
- DIt forwards it out interface G0/2 only.
180380. Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has been tasked with securing VTY access to a router. Which access-list entry accomplishes this task?
- Aaccess-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq ssh
- Baccess-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq scp
- Caccess-list 101 permit tcp 10.11.0 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq telnet
- Daccess-list 101 permit tcp 10.1.10 0.0.0.255 172.16.10 0.0.0.255 eq https
181381. A network administrator must enable DHCP services between two sites. What must be configured for the router to pass DHCPDISCOVER messages on to the server?
- Aa DHCP Relay Agent
- BDHCP Binding
- Ca DHCP Pool
- DDHCP Snooping
182382. Which device controls the forwarding of authentication requests for users when connecting to the network using a lightweight access point?
- ATACACS server
- Bwireless access point
- CRADIUS server
- Dwireless LAN controller
183 383. Refer to the exhibit. What is the result if Gig1/11 receives an STP BPDU?
- AThe port transitions to STP blocking
- BThe port transitions to the root port
- CThe port immediately transitions to STP forwarding.
- DThe port goes into error-disable state
184384. Which configuration is needed to generate an RSA key for SSH on a router?
- AConfigure the version of SSH
- BConfigure VTY access.
- CCreate a user with a password.
- DAssign a DNS domain name
185385. What is the maximum bandwidth of a T1 point-to-point connection?
- A1.544 Mbps
- B2.048 Mbps
- C34.368 Mbps
- D43.7 Mbps
186386. An engineer must configure traffic for a VLAN that is untagged by the switch as it crosses a trunk link. Which command should be used?
- Aswitchport trunk allowed vlan 10
- Bswitchport trunk native vlan 10
- Cswitchport mode trunk
- Dswitchport trunk encapsulation dot1q
187387. How does a Cisco Unified Wireless network respond to Wi-Fi channel overlap?
- AIt alternates automatically between 2.4 GHz and 5 GHz on adjacent access points
- BIt allows the administrator to assign channels on a per-device or per-interface basis.
- CIt segregates devices from different manufacturers onto different channels.
- DIt analyzes client load and background noise and dynamically assigns a channel.
188388. What does a switch use to build its MAC address table?
- AVTP
- BDTP
- Cegress traffic
- Dingress traffic
189389. Which network plane is centralized and manages routing decisions?
- Apolicy plane
- Bmanagement plane
- Ccontrol plane
- Ddata plane
190390. What does a router do when configured with the default DNS lookup settings, and a URL is entered on the CLI?
- Ainitiates a ping request to the URL
- Bprompts the user to specify the desired IP address
- Ccontinuously attempts to resolve the URL until the command is cancelled
- Dsends a broadcast message in an attempt to resolve the URL
191391. What is a DNS lookup operation?
- ADNS server pings the destination to verify that it is available
- Bserves requests over destination port 53
- CDNS server forwards the client to an alternate IP address when the primary IP is down
- Dresponds to a request for IP address to domain name resolution to the DNS server
192392. Refer to the exhibit. A network engineer must configured communication between PC A and the File Server. To prevent interruption for any other communications, which command must be configured?
- ASwitch trunk allowed vlan 12
- BSwitchport trunk allowed vlan none
- CSwitchport trunk allowed vlan add 13
- DSwitchport trunk allowed vlan remove 10-11
193393. What is a characteristic of a SOHO network?
- Aconnects each switch to every other switch in the network
- Benables multiple users to share a single broadband connection
- Cprovides high throughput access for 1000 or more users
- Dincludes at least three tiers of devices to provide load balancing and redundancy
194394. Which resource is able to be shared among virtual machines deployed on the same physical server?
- Adisk
- Bapplications
- CVM configuration file
- Doperating system
195395. Which implementation provides the strongest encryption combination for the wireless environment?
- AWPA2 + AES
- BWPA + AES
- CWEP
- DWPA + TKIP
196396. Refer to the exhibit. After running the code in the exhibit, which step reduces the amount of data that the NETCONF server returns to the NETCONF client, to only the interfaces' configuration?
- AUse the Ixml library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interfaces' configuration.
- BCreate an XML filter as a string and pass it to get_config() method as an argument.
- CCreate a JSON filter as a string and pass it to the get_config() method as an argument.
- DUse the JSON library to parse the data returned by the NETCONF server for the interfaces' configuration.
197397. What is an appropriate use for private IPv4 addressing?
- Aon the public-facing interface of a firewall
- Bto allow hosts inside to communicate in both directions with hosts outside the organization
- Con internal hosts that stream data solely to external resources
- Don hosts that communicates only with other internal hosts
198398. What are two functions of an SDN controller? (Choose two)
- ALayer 2 forwarding
- Bcoordinating VTNs
- Ctracking hosts
- Dmanaging the topology
- Eprotecting against DDoS attacks
199399. If a switch port receives a new frame while it is actively transmitting a previous frame, how does it process the frames?
- AThe new frame is delivered first, the previous frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent.
- BThe previous frame is delivered, the new frame is dropped, and a retransmission request is sent
- CThe new frame is placed in a queue for transmission after the previous frame.
- DThe two frames are processed and delivered at the same time.
200400. Refer to the exhibit. The ntp server 192.168.0.3 command has been configured on router 1 to make it an NTP client of router 2. Which command must be configured on router 2 so that it operates in server-only mode and relies only on its internal clock?
- ARouter2(config)#ntp passive
- BRouter2(config)#ntp server 172.17.0.1
- CRouter2(config)#ntp master 4
- DRouter2(config)#ntp server 192.168.0.2
Informações
- Descrição
- Quiz sobre Test 2, criado por t s em 20-08-2021.
- Autor
- t s
- Idioma
- English
- Visualizações
- 4
- Avaliação
- Ainda sem avaliações Avalie este quiz