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Questions in this quiz (174)
1What is the term that is used for the area of a network that is affected when a device or network service experiences problems?
- Afailure domain
- Bcollision domain
- Cbroadcast domain
- Duser domain
2A network designer is considering whether to implement a switch block on the company network. What is the primary advantage of deploying a switch block?
- AA single core router provides all the routing between VLANs.
- BThe failure of a switch block will not impact all end users.
- CThis is a security feature that is available on all new Catalyst switches.
- DThis is network application software that prevents the failure of a single network device.
3What is the function of STP in a scalable network?
- AIt decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.
- BIt protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.
- CIt disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.
- DIt combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.
4What term is used to express the thickness or height of a switch?
- Arack unit
- Bport density
- Cdomain size
- Dmodule size
5What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)
- AHTTP access to the device
- Ba terminal emulation client
- CTelnet or SSH access to the device
- Da direct connection to the console or AUX port
- Ea connection to an operational network interface on the device
6Which configuration changes will increment the configuration revision number on the VTP server?
- Aconfiguring trunk links on the VTP server
- Bconfiguring or changing the VTP password
- Cconfiguring or changing the VTP domain name
- Dconfiguring or changing the VTP version number
- Econfiguring or deleting a VLAN or creating a VLAN name
7What are three characteristics of VTP? (Choose three.)
- AIn the default VTP mode, VLANs can be created and modified on a switch.
- BSwitches in VTP server mode store VLANs in the vlan.dat database.
- CVTP-enabled switches exchange three types of advertisements: summary routes, subnet advertisements, and advertisement requests from transparent bridges.
- DThe switch configuration must be saved and the switch reloaded to reset a configuration revision number.
- EVTP updates are exchanged across trunk links only.
- FSwitches in different VTP domains can exchange updates if revision numbers are the same.
8A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?
- AConfigure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.
- BAssociate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
- CConfigure the VLANs on the new switch.
- DConfigure all ports on the new switch to access mode.
9What is the purpose of the vlan.dat file on a switch?
- AIt holds the running configuration.
- BIt holds the saved configuration.
- CIt holds the VLAN database.
- DIt holds the operating system.
10Refer to the exhibit. The configuration shows commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host H1 cannot communicate with H2. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?
- Atrunking
- Bport
- CVLAN
- Drouter
11Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?
- AInclude
- BAssociate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.
- CRemove the native VLAN from the trunk.
- DConfigure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.
- EAdd the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.
12Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
- AThe other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.
- BThere is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.
- CVTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.
- DVLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.
- EThis switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.
13A small company network has six interconnected Layer 2 switches. Currently all switches are using the default bridge priority value. Which value can be used to configure the bridge priority of one of the switches to ensure that it becomes the root bridge in this design?
- A1
- B28672
- C32768
- D34816
- E61440
14Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)
- ASW1 will become the root bridge.
- BSW2 will become the root bridge.
- CSW2 will get a port blocked.
- DSW4 will get a port blocked.
- ESW3 will become the root bridge.
- FSW4 will become the root bridge.
15Which three STP states were replaced with the RSTP discarding state? (Choose three.)
- Alistening
- Bblocking
- Cdisabled
- Dforwarding
16As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
- Aproviding redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
- Bgrouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
- Cgrouping
- Dproviding redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
17A network administrator enters the spanning-tree portfast bpduguard default command. What is the result of this command being issued on a Cisco switch?
- AAny switch port will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
- BAny trunk ports will be allowed to connect to the network immediately, rather than waiting to converge.
- CAny switch port that has been configured with PortFast will be error-disabled if it receives a BPDU.
- DAny switch port that receives a BPDU will ignore the BPDU message.
18As the network administrator you have been asked to implement EtherChannel on the corporate network. What does this configuration consist of?
- Aproviding redundant links that dynamically block or forward traffic
- Bgrouping multiple physical ports to increase bandwidth between two switches
- Cgrouping two devices to share a virtual IP address
- Dproviding redundant devices to allow traffic to flow in the event of device failure
19Which command will start the process to bundle two physical interfaces to create an EtherChannel group via LACP?
- Achannel-group 2 mode auto
- Binterface port-channel 2
- Cchannel-group 1 mode desirable
- Dinterface
20A network administrator configured an EtherChannel link with three interfaces between two switches. What is the result if one of the three interfaces is down?
- AThe EtherChannel fails.
- BThe remaining two interfaces continue to load balance traffic.
- CThe remaining two interfaces become separate links between the two switches.
- DOne interface becomes an active link for data traffic and the other becomes a backup link.
21When EtherChannel is configured, which mode will force an interface into a port channel without exchanging aggregation protocol packets?
- Aactive
- Bauto
- Con
- Ddesirable
22Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is reviewing the configuration of switch S1. Which protocol has been implemented to group multiple physical ports into one logical link?
- APAgP
- BDTP
- CLACP
- DSTP
23A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement describes a feature that is associated with HSRP?
- AHSRP uses active and standby routers.
- BIt uses ICMP messages in order to assign the default gateway to hosts.
- CIt allows load balancing between a group of redundant routers.
- DHSRP is nonproprietary.
24What is the term used to describe a network topology where the subnets from a major classful network address space are separated from each other by addresses from a different major classful network address?
- Amultihomed network
- Bconverged
- Cdiscontiguous
- Ddata
25What type of packets are sent when there is a change in the EIGRP topology?
- Ahello
- Btriggered bounded update
- Cacknowledge
- Dreply
26Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?
- AR1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7
- BR1-R3-R2-R6-R7
- CR1-R2-R6-R7
- DR1-R4-R5-R6-R7
27What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?
- AThe path with the least number of hops.
- BThe path with the smallest delays.
- CThe path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.
- DThe path that includes the fastest single bandwidth link.
28Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)
- Athe link router interface IP address and subnet mask
- Bthe type of network link
- Cthe link next-hop IP address
- Dthe link bandwidth
- Ethe cost of that link
29What indicates to a link-state router that a neighbor is unreachable?
- Aif the router no longer receives routing updates
- Bif the router no longer receives hello packets
- Cif the router receives an update with a hop count of 16
- Dif the router receives an LSP with previously learned information
30What are three features of EIGRP? (Choose three.)
- Auses the Shortest Path First algorithm
- Bestablishes neighbor adjacencies
- Cuses the Reliable Transport Protocol
- Dsends full routing table updates periodically
- Ebroadcasts updates to all EIGRP routers
- Fsupports equal and unequal cost load balancing
31What capability do protocol-dependent modules provide to the EIGRP routing protocol?
- Aroute different Layer 3 protocols
- Bexchange summary routes between areas
- Ccombine routes learned from different protocols into a single routing table
- Dload balance between routing protocols
32Refer to the exhibit. Which command should be used to configure EIGRP to only advertise the network that is attached to the gigabit Ethernet 0/1 interface?
- Anetwork 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.63
- Bnetwork 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.192
- Cnetwork 172.16.23.64 0.0.0.127
- Dnetwork 172.16.23.0 255.255.255.128
33Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?
- AIt carries the geographical information of the organization.
- BIt functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.
- CIt is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.
- DIt identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.
34Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path? (Choose two.)
- AIt carries the geographical information of the organization.
- BIt functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.
- CIt is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.
- DIt identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.
35Which two parameters does EIGRP use by default to calculate the best path? (Choose two.)
- Adelay
- BMTU
- Creliability
- Dbandwidth
- Etransmit and receive load
36An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?
- AThe DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.
- BThe router uses the default route.
- CThe best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.
- DThe router will query neighbors for an alternate route.
37When will a router that is running EIGRP put a destination network in the active state?
- Awhen the EIGRP domain is converged
- Bwhen there is outgoing traffic toward the destination network
- Cwhen there is an EIGRP message from the successor of the destination network
- Dwhen the connection to the successor of the destination network fails and there is no feasible successor available
38Which address is used by an IPv6 EIGRP router as the source for hello messages?
- Athe 32-bit router ID
- Bthe IPv6 global unicast address that is configured on the interface
- Cthe all-EIGRP-routers multicast address
39Refer to the exhibit. Which route or routes will be advertised to the router ISP if autosummarization is enabled?
- A10.0.0.0/8
- B10.1.0.0/16
- C10.1.0.0/28
- D0.1.1.0/24
10.1.2.0/24
10.1.3.0/24
10.1.4.0/28
40Which command will configure an IPv6 default static route?
- Arouter(config)# ipv6 ::/64 s0/0/0
- Brouter(config-rtr)# redistribute static
- Crouter(config)# ipv6 route ::/0 s0/0/0
- Drouter(config)# ipv6 unicast-routing
41Which statement describes the load balancing behavior of EIGRP?
- AEIGRP for IPv4 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv6 does not.
- BEIGRP for IPv6 supports unequal cost load balancing, but EIGRP for IPv4 does not.
- CNeither EIGRP for IPv4 nor EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.
- DBoth EIGRP for IPv4 and EIGRP for IPv6 support unequal cost load balancing.
42What routing protocol can be configured to load balance across paths with unequal metrics through the use of the variance command?
- AEIGRP
- BOSPF
- COSPFv3
- DRIPng
43What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
- ARouters send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
- BRouters send triggered updates in response to a change.
- CRouters create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
- DThe database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
- EPaths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.
44A router is participating in an OSPFv2 domain. What will always happen if the dead interval expires before the router receives a hello packet from an adjacent DROTHER OSPF router?
- AOSPF will run a new DR/BDR election.
- BSPF will run and determine which neighbor router is “down”.
- CA new dead interval timer of 4 times the hello interval will start.
- DOSPF will remove that neighbor from the router link-state database.
45In an OSPFv2 configuration, what is the effect of entering the command network 192.168.1.1 0.0.0.0 area 0?
- AIt changes the router ID of the router to 192.168.1.1.
- BIt enables OSPF on all interfaces on the router.
- CIt tells the router which interface to turn on for the OSPF routing process.
- DIt allows all 192.168.1.0 networks to be advertised.
46What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
- AA higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
- BLink cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
- CCost equals bandwidth.
- DA lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.
47Which two addresses represent valid destination addresses for an OSPFv3 message? (Choose two.)
- AFF02::5
- B224.0.0.5
- CFF02::A
- DFE80::42
- E2001:db8:acad:1::1
48Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?
- AFF02::5
- B2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2
49What information is contained in OSPF type 3 LSAs?
- Anetworks reachable in other areas
- Bnetworks learned from other routing protocols
- Cthe router ID of the DR to all routers in the area
- Dthe router ID of an ASBR and the route to reach it
50Refer to the exhibit. A company has migrated from single area OSPF to multiarea. However, none of the users from network 192.168.1.0/24 in the new area can be reached by anyone in the Branch1 office. From the output in the exhibit, what is the problem?
- AThere are no interarea routes in the routing table for network 192.168.1.0.
- BThe OSPF routing process is inactive.
- CThe link to the new area is down.
- DThe router has not established any adjacencies with other OSPF routers.
51Refer to the exhibit. For the given topology, what are three results of the OSPF DR and BDR elections ? (Choose three.)
- AR1 is BDR for segment A.
- BR2 is DR for segment A.
- CR3 is DR for segment A.
- DR4 is DR for segment B.
- ER5 is BDR for segment B.
- FR3 is DR for segment B.
52Refer to the exhibit. In this scenario, Area 40 cannot be connected directly to Area 0. Which OSPF network type must be configured in Area 1 to connect these areas?
- Apoint-to-point
- Bvirtual link
- Cpoint-to-multipoint
- Dnonbroadcast multiaccess
53Refer to the exhibit. What method can be used to enable an OSPF router to advertise a default route to neighboring OSPF routers?
- AUse a static route pointing to the ISP and redistribute it.
- BUse the redistribute static command on R0-A.
- CUse the default-information originate command on ISP.
- DUse the default-information originate command on R0-A.
54Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured the OSPF timers to the values that are shown in the graphic. What is the result of having those manually configured timers?
- AThe R1 dead timer expires between hello packets from R2.
- BR1 automatically adjusts its own timers to match the R2 timers.
- CThe hello timer on R2 expires every ten seconds.
- DThe neighbor adjacency has formed.
55Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. The routers are unable to form a neighbor adjacency. What should be done to fix the problem?
- AImplement the command no passive-interface Serial0/1.
- BImplement the command network 192.168.2.4 0.0.0.3 area 0 on router R2.
- CImplement the command network 192.168.3.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 on router R2.
- DChange the router-id of router R2 to 2.2.2.2.
56Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)
- AOn image correct
- BOn image1
57Match each OSPF router type description with its name. (Not all options are used.)
- ACorrect
- BWrong
58Match the order of precedence to the process logic that an OSPFv3 network router goes through in choosing a router ID. (Not all options are used.)
- ACorrect
- BWrong
59What is the function of STP in a scalable network?
- AIt decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.
- BIt protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.
- CIt combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.
60Which routing protocol is able to scale for large networks and utilizes non-backbone areas for expansion?
- AEIGRP
- BOSPF
- CBGP
- DRIPv2
61In the Cisco hierarchical design model, which layer is more likely to have a fixed configuration switch than the other layers?
- Adistribution
- Btransport
- Cinternet
- Daccess
- Ecore
62A network engineer is interested in obtaining specific information relevant to the operation of both distribution and access layer Cisco devices. Which command provides common information relevant to both types of devices?
- Ashow ip protocols
- Bshow ip interface
- Cshow cdp neighbors
- Dshow port-security
- Eshow mac-address-table
63A switched network has converged completely. All switches currently have a VTP revision number of 5. A new switch that has been configured as a VTP server is added to the network. The new switch has a VTP revision number of 4. What will occur within the network?
- AThe network will no longer share VLAN database updates.
- BThe newly added switch will automatically switch to VTP client mode.
- CThe VTP databases will remain unchanged in all switches with the exception of the newly added switch.
- DAll switches in the network will update their VTP database to reflect the VTP database of the new switch.
64What are three characteristics of VTP? (Choose three.)
- AIn the default VTP mode, VLANs can be created, modified, and deleted on the switch.
- BSwitches in VTP server mode store VLANs in the vlan.dat database.
- CA switch in transparent mode with a higher configuration revision number than the existing VTP server updates all VLAN information throughout the VTP domain.
- DTo reset a configuration revision number, the switch configuration must be saved and the switch reloaded.
- EVTP updates are exchanged across trunk links only.
- FSwitches in different VTP domains can exchange updates if their revision numbers are the same.
65A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?
- AConfigure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.
- BAssociate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
- CConfigure the VLANs on the new switch.
- DConfigure interfaces on the switch that has connected hosts in the new VLAN and reboot the switch.
66Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)
- Adynamic desirable – dynamic desirable
- Bdynamic desirable – dynamic auto
- Cdynamic desirable – trunk
- Daccess – trunk
- Eaccess – dynamic auto
- Fdynamic auto – dynamic auto
67Refer to the exhibit. The configuration shows the commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host PCA cannot communicate with PCB. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?
- Atrunking
- Bport mode on the two switch FastEthernet ports
- CVLAN configuration
- Drouter port configuration
68Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
- AThe other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.
- BVTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.
- CThere is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.
- DVLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.
- EThis switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.
69Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?
- AInclude a router in the topology.
- BAssociate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.
- CRemove the native VLAN from the trunk.
- DConfigure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.
- EAdd the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.
70What are two drawbacks to turning spanning tree off and having multiple paths through the Layer 2 switch network? (Choose two.)
- AThe switch acts like a hub.
- BPort security becomes unstable.
- CThe MAC address table becomes unstable.
- DBroadcast frames are transmitted indefinitely.
- EPort security shuts down all of the ports that have attached devices.
71Which port role is assigned to the switch port that has the lowest cost to reach the root bridge?
- Aroot port
- Bnon-designated port
- Cdesignated port
- Ddisabled port
72Refer to the exhibit. What is the role of the SW3 switch?
- Adesignated switch
- Bedge switch
- Croot bridge
- Denabled bridge
- Elocal bridge
73Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)
- ASW1 will become the root bridge.
- BSW2 will become the root bridge.
- CSW2 will get a port blocked.
- DSW4 will get a port blocked.
- ESW3 will become the root bridge.
- FSW4 will become the root bridge.
74Which spanning tree standard was developed by Cisco to provide separate instances of 802.1w per VLAN?
- ARSTP
- B802.1D
- CMSTP
- DRapid PVST+
75Which industry-wide specification was developed to decrease the time that is needed to move to the forwarding state by switch ports that are operating in a redundantly switched topology?
- AVLSM
- BPVST
- C802.1Q
- DVTP
76Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is verifying the bridge ID and the status of this switch in the STP election. Which statement is correct based on the command output?
- AThe bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the root bridge.
- BThe bridge priority of Switch_2 has been lowered to a predefined value to become the backup root bridge.
- CThe STP instance on Switch_2 is failing due to no ports being blocked and all switches believing they are the root.
- DThe STP instance on Switch_2 is using the default STP priority and the election is based on Switch_2 MAC address.
77An STP instance has failed and frames are flooding the network. What action should be taken by the network administrator?
- AA response from the network administrator is not required because the TTL field will eventually stop the frames from flooding the network.
- BSpanning tree should be disabled for that STP instance until the problem is located.
- CBroadcast Redundant links should be physically removed until the STP instance is repaired.
78Refer to the exhibit. Which switching technology would allow data to be transmitted over each access layer switch link and prevent the port from being blocked by spanning tree due to the redundant link?
- AEtherChannel
- BHSRP
- CPortFast
- Dtrunking
79What are two advantages of EtherChannel? (Choose two.)
- AConfiguring the EtherChannel interface provides consistency in the configuration of the physical links.
- BLoad balancing occurs between links configured as different EtherChannels.
- CEtherChannel uses upgraded physical links to provide increased bandwidth.
- DSpanning Tree Protocol views the physical links in an EtherChannel as one logical connection.
- ESpanning Tree Protocol ensures redundancy by transitioning failed interfaces in an EtherChannel to a forwarding state.
80When EtherChannel is implemented, multiple physical interfaces are bundled into which type of logical connection?
- Ainterface
- Bloopback
- CVLAN interface
- Dport channel
81When a range of ports is being configured for EtherChannel, which mode will configure LACP on a port only if the port receives LACP packets from another device?
- Aactive
- Bauto
- Cdesirable
- Dpassive
82Which two channel group modes would place an interface in a negotiating state using PAgP? (Choose two.)
- Aon
- Bdesirable
- Cactive
- Dauto
- Epassive
83A network administrator is analyzing the features that are supported by different first-hop router redundancy protocols. Which statement is a feature that is associated with GLBP?
- AGLBP allows load balancing between routers.
- BIt is nonproprietary.
- CIt uses a virtual router master.
- DIt works together with VRRP.
84A new chief information officer (CIO) has requested implementation of a link-state dynamic routing protocol. Which two routing protocols fulfill this requirement? (Choose two.)
- ARIPv2
- BBGP
- COSPF
- DIS-IS
- EEIGRP
85Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is utilizing RIPv1 in the exhibited network topology. What would the router R2 do with a packet that is originating from the 192.168.4.0/24 network and destined for network 172.16.1.0/24?
- AThe router will forward the packet to R1.
- BThe router will forward the packet to R3.
- CThe router will load balance and forward packets to both R1 and R3.
- DThe router will drop the packet.
86What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
- AThey use hop count as their only metric.
- BThey only send out updates when a new network is added.
- CThey send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
- DThey flood the entire network with routing updates.
87Which statement defines the speed of convergence of routing protocols?
- AThe time it takes a router to form a neighbor adjacency.
- BThe time it takes a router to learn about directly connected links..
- CThe time it takes a router to calculate the cost of a link.
- DThe time it takes a router within a network to forward routing information.
88What is associated with link-state routing protocols?
- Alow processor overhead
- Bpoison reverse
- Crouting loops
- Dsplit horizon
- EShortest Path First calculations
89Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?
- AR1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7
- BR1-R3-R2-R6-R7
- CR1-R2-R6-R7
- DR1-R4-R5-R6-R7
90What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?
- AThe path with the least number of hops.
- BThe path with the smallest delays.
- CThe path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.
- DThe path that includes the fastest single bandwidth link.
91Which two pieces of information are contained within a link-state packet (LSP)? (Choose two.)
- Ahop count
- Bbandwidth
- Clink type
- Ddelay
- Eload
92What is a difference between the routing protocols EIGRP and OSPF?
- AEIGRP uses hop count as the metric and OSPF uses cost as the metric.
- BEIGRP is an implementation of EGP whereas OSPF is an implementation of IGP.
- CEIGRP supports routing different network layer protocols whereas OSPF supports routing only IP-based protocols.
- DEIGRP only supports equal-cost load balancing whereas OSPF supports both equal-cost and unequal-cost load balancing.
93Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?
- AIt carries the geographical information of the organization.
- BIt functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.
- CIt is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.
- DIt identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.
94How is bandwidth to a destination network calculated by EIGRP?
- Athe lowest configured bandwidth of any interface along the route
- Bthe sum of the configured bandwidths of all interfaces along the path
- Cthe highest configured bandwidth of any interface along the path
- Dthe bandwidth of the ingress interface of the last hop router
95An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?
- AThe DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.
- BThe router uses the default route.
- CThe best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.
- DThe router will query neighbors for an alternate route.
96Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator issues the show ipv6 eigrp neighbors command. Which conclusion can be drawn based on the output?
- AThe link-local addresses of neighbor routers interfaces are configured manually.
- BR1 has two neighbors. They connect to R1 through their S0/0/0 and S0/0/1 interfaces.
- CThe neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 is the first EIGRP neighbor that is learned by R1.
- DIf R1 does not receive a hello packet from the neighbor with the link-local address FE80::5 in 2 seconds, it will declare the neighbor router is down.
97Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has attempted to implement a default route from R1 to the ISP and propagate the default route to EIGRP neighbors. Remote connectivity from the EIGRP neighbor routers to the ISP connected to R1 is failing. Based on the output from the exhibit, what is the most likely cause of the problem?
- AThe command default-information originate has not been issued on R1.
- BThere are no EIGRP neighbor relationships on R1.
- CThe ip route command must specify a next-hop IP address instead of an exit interface when creating a default route.
- DThe command redistribute static has not been issued on R1.
- EThe network statement for the ISP connection has not been issued.
98Refer to the exhibit. Which statement accurately reflects the configuration of routing on the HQ router?
- AA static default route was configured on this router.
- BA static default route was learned via EIGRP routing updates.
- CThe static default route should be redistributed using the default-information originate command.
- DThe IP address assigned to the GigabitEthernet0/0 interface is 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0.
99Which command would limit the amount of bandwidth that is used by EIGRP for protocol control traffic to approximately 128 Kb/s on a 1.544 Mb/s link?
- Aip bandwidth-percent eigrp 100 8
- Bmaximum-paths 8
- Cvariance 8
- Dtraffic-share balanced
100Which criterion is preferred by the router to choose a router ID?
- Athe IP address of the highest configured loopback interface on the router
- Bthe IP address of the highest active interface on the router
- Cthe router-id rid command
- Dthe IP address of the highest active OSPF-enabled interface
101What is the effect of entering the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command in router configuration mode?
- AThe interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1 will be a passive interface.
- BOSPF advertisements will include the network on the interface with the IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.
- CThis command will have no effect because it uses a quad zero wildcard mask.
- DOSPF advertisements will include the specific IPv4 address 192.168.10.1.
102Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
- AThe two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.
- BThe OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.
- CThe OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
- DThe OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
- EThe link interface subnet masks must match.
- FThe link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.
103Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?
- AFF02::5
- B2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2
- C2001:DB8:C5C0:1::2
- DFE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538
104When does an OSPF router become an ABR?
- Awhen the router has interfaces in different areas
- Bwhen the router is configured as an ABR by the network administrator
- Cwhen the router has the highest router ID
- Dwhen the router has an OSPF priority of 0
105Which type of OSPF router connects an OSPF area to non-OSPF routing domains?
- AABR
- BASBR
- CDR
- Dbackbone router
106Which function is performed by an OSPF ABR?
- Aflooding type 2 LSAs within an area
- Boriginating type 5 LSAs into an area
- Cinjecting type 3 LSAs into an area
- Dadvertising the router ID of any designated routers within an area
107What type of OSPF IPv4 route is indicated by a route table entry descriptor of O E1?
- Aa summary route that is advertised by an ABR
- Ban intra-area route that is advertised by the DR
- Can external route that is advertised by an ASBR
- Da directly connected route that is associated with an Ethernet interface
108In which mode is the area area-id range address mask command issued when multiarea OSPF summarization is being configured?
- Aglobal configuration mode
- Brouter configuration mode
- Cinterface configuration mode of area 0 interfaces
- Dinterface configuration mode of all participating interfaces
109Refer to the exhibit. What are three resulting DR and DBR elections for the given topology? (Choose three.)
- AR4 is BDR for segment B.
- BR4 is DR for segment B.
- CR3 is DR for segment A.
- DR2 is DR for segment A.
- ER3 is BDR for segment B.
- FR5 is DR for segment B.
110After implementing an IPv6 network, the administrator notices that the OSPFv3 process is not starting on the routers. What could be the problem?
- AThe routers are configured with the default priority.
- BAuthentication was not implemented between the routers.
- CNo router IDs are configured on the routers.
- DThe routers were not configured with the network command.
111Refer to the exhibit. How did this router learn of the highlighted route in the routing table?
- Aby entering the router configuration mode command default-information originate
- Bby entering the global configuration mode command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 interface-type interface-number
- Cby entering the global configuration mode command ip route 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0 ip-address
- Dby receiving an update from another OSPF router that is running another routing protocol
- Eby receiving an update from another OSPF router that has the default-information originate command configured
112Which command can be used to view OSPF adjacencies with neighboring routers along with the transition state?
- Ashow ip protocols
- Bshow ip ospf neighbor
- Cshow ip ospf interface
- Dshow running-config
113Match the description to the EIGRP packet type. (Not all options are used.)
- ACorrect
- BIncorrect
114Refer to the exhibit. Match the description to the corresponding value used by the DUAL FSM. (Not all options are used.)
- ACorrect
- BIncorrect
- ACorrect
115Match the order of precedence to the process logic that an OSPFv3 network router goes through in choosing a router ID. (Not all options are used.)
- ACorrect
- BIncorrect
116Which technological factor determines the impact of a failure domain?
- Athe number of layers of the hierarchical network
- Bthe number of users on the access layer
- Cthe role of the malfunctioning device
- Dthe forwarding rate of the switches used on the access layer
117What is the function of STP in a scalable network?
- AIt decreases the size of the failure domain to contain the impact of failures.
- BIt protects the edge of the enterprise network from malicious activity.
- CIt disables redundant paths to eliminate Layer 2 loops.
- DIt combines multiple switch trunk links to act as one logical link for increased bandwidth.
118Which characteristic would most influence a network design engineer to select a multilayer switch over a Layer 2 switch?
- Aability to build a routing table
- Bability to aggregate multiple ports for maximum data throughput
- Cability to provide power to directly-attached devices and the switch itself
- Dability to have multiple forwarding paths through the switched network based on VLAN number(s)
119What are two reasons to install a single 48-port fixed configuration switch, rather than two 24-port fixed configuration switches, in a wiring closet that supports two classrooms? (Choose two.)
- Amore power provided to each port
- Bmore ports available for end devices
- Chigher uplink speeds
- Dreduced power and space requirements
- Ereduced number of VLANs/broadcast domains
120What are two requirements when using out-of-band configuration of a Cisco IOS network device? (Choose two.)
- AHTTP access to the device
- Ba terminal emulation client
- CTelnet or SSH access to the device
- Da direct connection to the console or AUX port
- Ea connection to an operational network interface on the device
121Which step can be taken to ensure that a switch added to the network does not overwrite the VLAN databases on existing switches in the same VTP domain?
- AChange the VTP mode to client.
- BReset the switch VTP revision number to 0.
- CDelete any configured VLANs and reboot the switch.
- DErase the startup configuration and reboot the switch.
122A network administrator is planning to add a new switch to the network. What should the network administrator do to ensure the new switch exchanges VTP information with the other switches in the VTP domain?
- AConfigure the correct VTP domain name and password on the new switch.
- BAssociate all ports of the new switch to a VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
- CConfigure the VLANs on the new switch.
- DConfigure all ports on the new switch to access mode.
123An administrator was troubleshooting a router-on-a-stick topology and concluded that the problem was related to the configuration of VLANs on the router subinterfaces. Which two commands can the administrator use in the router to identify the problem? (Choose two.)
- Ashow controllers
- Bshow ip interface
- Cshow ip protocols
- Dshow running-config
- Eshow vlan
124Refer to the exhibit. The configuration shows commands entered by a network administrator for inter-VLAN routing. However, host PCA cannot communicate with PCB. Which part of the inter-VLAN configuration causes the problem?
- Atrunking
- Bport mode on the two switch FastEthernet ports
- CVLAN configuration
- Drouter port configuration
125Refer to the exhibit. Switch SW-A is to be used as a temporary replacement for another switch in the VTP Student domain. What two pieces of information are indicated from the exhibited output? (Choose two.)
- AThe other switches in the domain can be running either VTP version 1 or 2.
- BThere is a risk that the switch may cause incorrect VLAN information to be sent through the domain.
- CVTP will block frame forwarding on at least one redundant trunk port that is configured on this switch.
- DVLAN configuration changes made on this switch will be sent to other devices in the VTP domain.
- EThis switch will update its VLAN configuration when VLAN changes are made on a VTP server in the same domain.
126Refer to the exhibit. The network administrator configures both switches as displayed. However, host C is unable to ping host D and host E is unable to ping host F. What action should the administrator take to enable this communication?
- AInclude a router in the topology.
- BAssociate hosts A and B with VLAN 10 instead of VLAN 1.
- CRemove the native VLAN from the trunk.
- DConfigure either trunk port in the dynamic desirable mode.
- EAdd the switchport nonegotiate command to the configuration of SW2.
127What is a characteristic of spanning tree?
- AIt is enabled by default on Cisco switches.
- BIt has a TTL mechanism that works at Layer 2.
- CIt prevents propagation of Layer 2 broadcast frames.
- DIt is used to discover information about an adjacent Cisco device.
128Refer to the exhibit. All the displayed switches are Cisco 2960 switches with the same default priority and operating at the same bandwidth. Which three ports will be STP designated ports? (Choose three.)
- Afa0/9
- Bfa0/10
- Cfa0/11
- Dfa0/13
- Efa0/20
- Ffa0/21
129A set of switches is being connected in a LAN topology. Which STP bridge priority value will make it least likely for the switch to be selected as the root?
- A4096
- B32768
- C61440
- D65535
130Refer to the exhibit. Which switch will be elected the root bridge and which switch will place a port in blocking mode? (Choose two.)
- ASW1 will become the root bridge.
- BSW2 will become the root bridge.
- CSW2 will get a port blocked.
- DSW4 will get a port blocked.
- ESW3 will become the root bridge.
- FSW4 will become the root bridge.
131Which statement is true about the states of the IEEE 802.1D Spanning Tree Protocol?
- APorts are manually configured to be in the forwarding state.
- BPorts listen and learn before going into the forwarding state.
- CPorts must be blocked before they can be placed in the disabled state.
- DIt takes 15 seconds for a port to go from blocking to forwarding.
132Refer to the exhibit. What are the possible port roles for ports A, B, C, and D in this RSTP-enabled network?
- Aalternate, root, designated, root
- Bdesignated, root, alternate, root
- Calternate, designated, root, root
- Ddesignated, alternate, root, root
133 Refer to the exhibit. What are two results of issuing the displayed commands on S1, S2, and S3? (Choose two.)
- AS1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the lowest.
- BS1 will automatically adjust the priority to be the highest.
- CS3 can be elected as a secondary bridge.
- DS2 can become root bridge if S3 fails.
- ES2 can become root bridge if S1 fails.
134When the show spanning-tree vlan 33 command is issued on a switch, three ports are shown in the forwarding state. In which two port roles could these interfaces function while in the forwarding state? (Choose two.)
- Adisabled
- Bdesignated
- Croot
- Dalternate
- Eblocked
135Which is a characteristic of EtherChannel?
- AEtherChannel uses physical ports that have been upgraded to provide a faster connection.
- BSTP will not block redundant EtherChannel bundles between two switches.
- CSTP treats all interfaces in a bundle as a single logical link.
- DEtherChannel configuration is applied to each physical port.
136A network administrator has configured an EtherChannel between two switches that are connected via four trunk links. If the physical interface for one of the trunk links changes to a down state, what happens to the EtherChannel?
- AThe EtherChannel will transition to a down state.
- BSpanning Tree Protocol will recalculate the remaining trunk links.
- CThe EtherChannel will remain functional.
- DSpanning Tree Protocol will transition the failed physical interface into forwarding mode.
137What are two load-balancing methods in the EtherChannel technology? (Choose two.)
- Acombination of source port and IP to destination port and IP
- Bsource IP to destination IP
- Csource port to destination port
- Dcombination
- Esource MAC to destination MAC
138Which mode configuration setting would allow formation of an EtherChannel link between switches SW1 and SW2 without sending negotiation traffic?
- ASW1: on
SW2: on - BSW1: desirable
SW2: desirable - CSW1: auto
SW2: auto
PortFast enabled on both switches - DSW1: passive
SW2: active
- ASW1: on
139Which two parameters must match on the ports of two switches to create a PAgP EtherChannel between the switches? (Choose two.)
- AMAC address
- Bspeed
- CVLAN information
- DPAgP mode
- Eport ID
140A network administrator is analyzing first-hop router redundancy protocols. What is a characteristic of VRRPv3?
- AVRRPv3
- BIt supports IPv6 and IPv4 addressing.
- CIt works together with HSRP.
- DIt allows load balancing between routers.
141Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator would like to implement dynamic routing within a small network environment as shown in the exhibit. Which routing protocol would be a viable solution?
- AEIGRP
- BIGRP
- CBGP
- DRIPv1
142What is a key distinction between classful and classless routing protocols?
- AClassful routing protocols are better suited for implementation in discontiguous networks.
- BClassful routing protocols do not send subnet mask information in their routing updates.
- CClassless routing protocols are not scalable.
- DClassless routing protocols do not allow for route summarization.
143What does the SPF algorithm consider to be the best path to a network?
- AThe path with the least number of hops.
- BThe path with the smallest delays.
- CThe path that includes the fastest cumulative bandwidth links.
- DThe path that includes the fastest single bandwidth link.
144Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OFPF in the topology as shown. What is the preferred path to get from the LAN network that is connected to R1 to the LAN network that is connected to R7?
- AR1-R3-R4-R5-R6-R7
- BR1-R3-R2-R6-R7
- CR1-R2-R6-R7
- DR1-R4-R5-R6-R7
145Which protocol does EIGRP use for the transportation of EIGRP packets?
- AUser Datagram Protocol
- BReliable Transport Protocol
- CReal-Time Transport Protocol
- DTransmission Control Protocol
146Which two statements are correct about EIGRP acknowledgment packets? (Choose two.)
- AThe packets are sent in response to hello packets.
- BThe packets are used to discover neighbors that are connected on an interface.
- CThe packets are sent as unicast.
- DThe packets require confirmation.
- EThe packets are unreliable.
147What EIGRP packet type is used by EIGRP routers to discover neighbors on directly connected links?
- Ahello
- Bquery
- Cupdate
- Dacknowledgment
148Which statement describes the autonomous system number used in EIGRP configuration on a Cisco router?
- AIt carries the geographical information of the organization.
- BIt functions as a process ID in the operation of the router.
- CIt is a globally unique autonomous system number that is assigned by IANA.
- DIt identifies the ISP that provides the connection to network of the organization.
149What two values must match between two EIGRP directly connected neighbors to establish and maintain an adjacency? (Choose two.)
- Ametric parameters
- Bautonomous system number
- Crouter ID
- DArea ID
- Ehello timers
150Refer to the exhibit. Which two conclusions can be derived from the output? (Choose two.)
- AThere is one feasible successor to network 192.168.1.8/30.
- BThe reported distance to network 192.168.1.0/24 is 41024256.
- CThe network 192.168.10.8/30 can be reached through 192.168.11.1.
- DThe neighbor 172.16.6.1 meets the feasibility condition to reach the 192.168.1.0/24 network.
- ERouter R1 has two successors to the 172.16.3.0/24 network.
151Which command is used to display the bandwidth of an interface on an EIGRP-enabled router?
- AWhich command is used to display the bandwidth of an interface on an EIGRP-enabled router?
- Bshow interfaces
- Cshow ip protocols
- Dshow ip interface brief
152An EIGRP router loses the route to a network. Its topology table contains two feasible successors to the same network. What action will the router take?
- AThe DUAL algorithm is recomputed to find an alternate route.
- BThe router uses the default route.
- CThe best alternative backup route is immediately inserted into the routing table.
- DThe router will query neighbors for an alternate route.
153A network engineer examining the operation of EIGRP on a router notices that one particular route is in an active state. What can the engineer determine about this route?
- AData packets to be sent to the specified network will be forwarded on this route.
- BEIGRP query messages are being sent to other routers requesting paths to this network.
- CThe Diffusing Update Algorithm has determined a successor and a feasible successor for this route.
- DThe EIGRP processes are still calculating the administrative distance for this route.
154Refer to the exhibit. What will Router1 do if it receives packets that are destined to network 2001:db8:11:100::/64?
- Adrop the packets
- Bforward the packets to the gateway of last resort
- Csend the packets out interface GigabitEthernet 0/0
- Dsend the packets out interface Serial 0/0/0
155How are externally learned EIGRP routes identified in the routing table?
- AEX
- BO1 E
- CD
- D*
156A network administrator is configuring EIGRP load balancing with the commands:
Router(config)# router eigrp 1
Router(config-router)# variance 3
Router(config-router)# end
What is a direct result of entering these commands?- AUp to three equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table.
- BUp to three unequal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table.
- CNo matter whether the metric is equal or unequal, up to three routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table.
- DAny feasible successor routes to the same destination network with a metric, equal to or less than 3 times that of the successor, will be installed in the routing table.
157By default, how many equal cost routes to the same destination can be installed in the routing table of a Cisco router?
- A2
- B4
- C16
- D32
158When should EIGRP automatic summarization be turned off?
- Awhen a router has not discovered a neighbor within three minutes
- Bwhen a router has more than three active interfaces
- Cwhen a network contains discontiguous network addresses
- Dwhen a router has less than five active interfaces
- Ewhen a network addressing scheme uses VLSM
159What is a function of OSPF hello packets?
- Ato send specifically requested link-state records
- Bto discover neighbors and build adjacencies between them
- Cto ensure database synchronization between routers
- Dto request specific link-state records from neighbor routers
160What is the final operational state that will form between an OSPF DR and a DROTHER once the routers reach convergence?
- Afull
- Btwo-way loading
- Cestablished
161A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF Area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
- ARouterA
- BRouterA(config)# router ospf 1
- CRouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
- DRouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
- ERouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0
162 the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
- Athe highest IPv6 address on an active interface
- Bthe lowest MAC address on an active interface
- Cthe highest IPv4 address on an active interface
- Dthe highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
163Refer to the exhibit. R1 and R2 are OSPFv3 neighbors. Which address would R1 use as the next hop for packets that are destined for the Internet?
- AFF02::5
- B2001:DB8:ACAD:1::2
- C2001:DB8:C5C0:1::2
- DFE80::21E:BEFF:FEF4:5538
164What does an OSPF area contain?
- Arouters whose SPF trees are identical
- Brouters that share the same router ID
- Crouters that have the same link-state information in their LSDBs
- Drouters that share the same process ID
165What are the only two roles that permit an OSPF router to be configured for summarization? (Choose two.)
- Abackbone router
- Binternal router
- Cdesignated router
- Darea border router
- Eautonomous system boundary router
166Which routing table descriptor is used to identify the OSPF networks advertised by type 1 LSAs?
- AO E2
- BO E1
- CO IA
- DO
167What are two features of OSPF interarea route summarization? (Choose two.)
- AASBRs perform all OSPF summarization.
- BRoutes within an area are summarized by the ABR.
- CABRs advertise the summarized routes into the backbone.
- DType 3 and type 5 LSAs are used to propagate summarized routes by default.
- ERoute summarization results in high network traffic and router overhead.
168Refer to the exhibit. What are three resulting DR and BDR elections for the given topology? (Choose three.)
- AR2 is BDR for segment A.
- BR4 is BDR for segment B.
- CR5 is DR for segment B.
- DR1 is DR for segment A.
- ER3 is DR for segment B.
- FR3 is DBR for segment B.
169What is one reason to use the ip ospf priority command when the OSPF routing protocol is in use?
- Ato activate the OSPF neighboring process
- Bto influence the DR/BDR election process
- Cto provide a backdoor for connectivity during the convergence process
- Dto streamline and speed up the convergence process
170Which statement describes a characteristic of OSPF external routes?
- AThe difference between type 1 and type 2 is in the way the cost of the route is being calculated.
- BType 1 and type 2 external routes in IPv4 networks are represented in the routing table by EX1 and EX2, respectively.
- CA type 2 route is always preferred over a type 1 route for the same destination.
- DThe cost of a type 1 route is always the external cost, regardless of the interior cost to reach that route.
171Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has configured OSPFv2 on the two Cisco routers as shown. PC1 is unable to communicate with PC2. What should be done to fix the problem?
- AAdd the network 192.168.255.2 0.0.0.0 area 0 command to router R1 and remove the network 192.168.255.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command.
- BAdd the passive-interface S0/0 command to router R1.
- CAdd the network 192.168.10.0 0.0.0.255 area 0 command to router R1 and remove the network 192.168.10.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command.
- DAdd the network 192.168.255.0 0.0.0.3 area 0 command to router R1 and remove the network 192.168.255.1 0.0.0.0 area 0 command.
172Which command can be used by an administrator to display a list of interfaces that are enabled for OSPFv3?
- Ashow ipv6 ospf
- Bshow ipv6 neighbor
- Cshow ipv6 route ospf
- Dshow ipv6 protocols
173Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.)
- ACorrect
- BIncorrect
174Match the description to the term. (Not all options are used.)
- ACorrect
- BIncorrect
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- Computer Science Quiz on Test, created by Sam Brake on 30/04/2018.
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- Sam Brake
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