Quiz
Cardio Exam 1 set 1
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Questions in this quiz (27)
1Which of the following is NOT a determinant of cardiac output?
- APreload
- BAfterload
- CContractility
- DHeart Rate
- EStroke Volume
2Which of the following terms and definitions is INCORRECTLY paired?
- AHeart failure- a syndrome of clinical signs and associated neuroendicrine abnormalities that results from impaired emptying or filling of the heart
- BHeart disease- a structural or functional abnormality of the heart
- CLeft-sided heart failure- characterized by elevations in central venous pressure that result in ascites, pleural effusion, or peripheral edema
- DAll of these are correctly paired
3Heart disease can be classified on an anatomical-pathologic basis or on the basis of pathophysiology.
- ATrue
- BFalse
4Which of the following is CORRECTLY paired?
- AVolume overloads- diseases that decrease the diastolic volume of the heart
- BPressure overloads- diseases that increase systolic load often because of a decreased resistance to ventricular emptying
- CContractile dysfunction- any functional or structural disorder of the sarcomeres can result in contractile dysfunction and the syndrome known as dilated cardiomyopathy
- DDiastolic dysfunction- diseases that impair atrial filling
5In the most general sense, the cardiovascular exam is intended to answer which of the following questions? Check all that apply.
- AWhat is the cardiac rate?
- BWhat is the cardiac rhythm?
- CIs the heart enlarged?
- DIs heart failure present?
- EWhat is the disease that has caused heart failure?
6A diagnosis of left-sided heart failure is made when there is radiographic pulmonary edema and evidence of cardiac dysfunction which is usually demonstrated by radiographic heart enlargement and/or jugular distension.
- ATrue
- BFalse
7What information can we get from thoracic radiographs? Check all that apply. (Hint: it isn't all of them, I promise.)
- ACardiac dimensions using the vertebral heart score
- BPulmonary vasculature
- CConcomitant diseases
- DDistinguishes between cardiomegaly and pericardial effusion
- EChambers are easy to distinguish from each other
8Which of the following is NOT part of the clinical utility of the ECG?
- AArrhythmias (diagnosis and follow-up)
- BConduction abnormalities
- CMonitoring anesthesia
- DChamber enlargements
- EElectrolyte abnormalities
- FSeverity of heart failure
- GAll of the above
9An ECHO can confirm the suspected diagnosis, assess cardiac dimensions better than rads, provides non-invasive evaluation of systolic and diastolic function, and evaluation of severity of stenosis or shunts.
- ATrue
- BFalse
10Which of the following tests and indications are CORRECTLY paired?
- AThoracic radiographs: clinical signs such as cough or dyspnea are present
- BECHO: the cause of and enlarged radiographic cardiac silhouette is unclear and/or when a definitive etiologic diagnosis of heart disease is important
- CECG/EKG: when the heart rate is inappropriately high, inappropriately low, or inappropriately irregular
- DECHO and ECG only
- ERads and ECHO only
- FAll of the above
11Congenital malformations are only found in young patients.
- ATrue
- BFalse
12Which of the following statements is FALSE?
- ARelatively mild heart disease can compromise exercise performance/tolerance in athletes. Sedentary animals don't usually have signs of exercise intolerance until cardiac disease is advanced.
- BCough that persists for months or years without treatment is most often due to cardiac disease.
- CTachypnea/hyperpnea/respiratory distress is a relatively consistent finding in patients with cardiogenic pulmonary edema.
- DWhen cardiac disease explains syncope, an arrhythmia often is responsible.
- EPatients with congenital malformations sometimes develop clinical signs including poor growth (failure to thrive).
13What is the normal heart rate for dogs?
- A60-110
- B24-50
- C70-160
- D160-240
14Which of the following is FALSE regarding arterial pulse?
- APulse amplitude is an important characteristic of arterial pulse. The pulse amplitude is determined by pulse pressure (the difference between systolic pressure and diastolic pressure). Pulse pressure depends on stroke volume, aortic distensibility, resistance to flow, end-diastolic volume of arteries, and heart rate.
- BWeak (hypokinetic) arterial pulse most often reflects a small stroke volume associated with hypovolemia or sometimes (but not usually) heart disease.
- CAbsent arterial pulse may be related to obstruction due to thromboembloism or simply is an "artifact" such as the patient being obese.
- DBounding (hyperkinetic) arterial pulse occurs only with PDA. The diastolic run-off throught the PDA contributes to the widening of the the pulse width.
15Which of the following is FALSE about central venous pulse?
- AThe jugular veins function as manometers. The degree of distension and the height of jugular pulsation reflects right atrial (and right ventricular diastolic) pressure.
- BIt should be evaluated when the patient is standing.
- CThe height of jugular pulsation needs to be >10 cm to suggest right heart failure, volume overload.
- DEdema under the chin is common in horses with right heart failure.
16Which of the following is INCORRECT about mucous membranes?
- ACRT is not sensitive to acute decreases in CO
- BPallor is due to a decrease in oxyhemoglobin. This may be associated with anemia and/or vasoconstriction.
- CPeripheral cyanosis may be due to lung disease or (rarely) heart defects such as Tetrology of Fallot.
17Which of the following pairings of transient heart sounds and action in the heart are CORRECT? Check all that apply.
- AS1: AV valve closure
- BS1: Atrial contraction
- CS2: AV valve closure
- DS2: semilunar valve closure
- ES3: semilunar valve closure
- FS3: early diastolic filling
- GS4: early diastolic filling
- HS4: atrial contraction
18Splitting sound occurs when the 2 components of S2 or S1 can be discerned with auscultation.
- ATrue
- BFalse
19Which of the following are about transient systolic clicks? Select all that apply.
- AHigh frequency sound associated with mitral valve prolapse
- BCommon in older, small breed dogs (a precursor of mitral valve regurgitation)
- CAudibility of S3 and/or S4
- DIn cats (and many dogs), high heart rates mean that the 2 sounds are "summated"
- EHeard when atrial pressures are high and ventricle is close to its elastic limit.
20A murmur is a prolonged series of vibrations that originates from the cardiovascular system. In general, murumurs arise when laminar blood flow breaks down resulting in disturbed flow.
- ATrue
- BFalse
21Which of the following is TRUE of determinants of blood flow character?
- AVelocity is the most important. Acceleration explains almost all murmurs.
- BViscosity is the most important. Anemia may explain murmurs when HCT <~17
- CDiameter is the most important. As blood vessels are dilated or constricted blood flow changes.
22Which of the following is TRUE about murmurs?
- AGrade 1: a loud murmur with thrill/audible if stethoscope is lifted from chest
- BGrade 2: loud murmur with an associated thrill
- CGrade 3: murmur of intermediate intensity
- DGrade 4: soft murmur
- EGrade 5: very soft and focal
23Which of the following is the timing for systolic murmur?
- Abetween S1 and S2
- Bbetween S2 and S1
24A continuous murmur begins during systole and persists after S2. It is also pretty much pathopneumonic for PDA.
- ATrue
- BFalse
25What is/are PMI for murmurs?
- ALeft heart base (aortic/pulmonic areas) 4th, 5th ICS
- BLeft apex (mitral) 6th ICS
- CMost in cats are heard along the sternal borders
- DLeft heart base and left apex
- EAll of the above
- FNone of the above
26Which of the following describe a regurgitant configuration?
- AMid-systolic
- Bmid-diastolic
- Cdiamond-shaped
- Dassociated with outflow tract obstruction
- Eplateau-shaped
- Fassociated with AV valves
27Innocent murmurs are typically heard in puppies, kittens, and adult horses.
- ATrue
- BFalse
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- Intro, diagnostic approach, history and physical exam
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- karahm
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