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c12
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Questions in this quiz (107)
1 How does foam extinguish an oil fire?
- ABy excluding the oxygen from the fire
- BBy cooling the oil below the ignition temperature
- CBy removing the fuel source from the fire
- DBy increasing the weight of the oil
2Except in rare cases, it is impossible to extinguish a shipboard fire by __________.
- Aremoving the fuel
- Binterrupting the chain reaction
- Cremoving the oxygen
- Dremoving the heat
3If a firefighting situation calls for low-velocity fog you would __________.
- Aattach a low-velocity fog applicator with the nozzle shut down
- Border the engine room to reduce pressure on the fire pump
- Cput the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way forward
- Dput the lever on an all-purpose fire nozzle all the way back
4The total available supply of CO2 for use in a fixed extinguishing system of a cargo vessel shall be at least sufficient for_________________.
- ASpace requiring largest amount
- BAll cargo-space
- CAll the space of the vessel
- DEngine room and largest cargo space
5A fire is considered 'under control' when________ .
- Athe fire is contained and no longer spreading
- Ball hands are at their fire stations
- Call firefighting equipment is at the scene
- Dthe fixed systems are activated
6A definite advantage of using water as a fire extinguishing agent is its characteristic of __________.
- Arapid expansion as water absorbs heat and changes to steam
- Balternate expansion and contraction as water in a liquid state becomes a vapor
- Cabsorption of smoke and gases as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor
- Drapid contraction as water is converted from a liquid to a vapor
7At the required fire drill, all persons must report to their stations and demonstrate their ability to perform duties assigned to them ________.
- AIn the Muster List (“Station Bill”)
- BAt the previous safety meeting
- CBy the person conducting the drill
- DBy the Coast Guard regulations
8You are underway when a fire breaks out in the forward part of your vessel. If possible you should __________.
- Aput the vessel's stern into the wind
- Bcall for assistance
- Cabandon ship to windward
- Dkeep going at half speed
9A galley grease fire would be classified as .
- AClass B
- BClass A
- CClass C
- DClass D
10In the event of a fire, the doors to a stair tower must be closed to prevent the spread of fire by __________.
- Aconvection
- Bconduction
- Cradiation
- Dventilation
11A fire may spread by which of the following means?
- Aconduction
- Btransmission
- Ccontraction
- Dventillation
12The function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus is to __________.
- Aallow the wearer to manually give himself oxygen
- Bcontrol the pressure of the oxygen as it enters the body
- Crelease excess heat which would otherwise cause the bottle to explode
- Dallow exhaled gases to pass outside the bottle
13Foam extinguishes fire by_______.
- ASmoothering
- BCooling
- CChemical action
- DInerting the air
14Extinguishing oil fire is very effective when ________.
- ACutting off oxygen source
- BCooling below its ignition temperature
- CRemoving fuel
- DSpraying with water
15Fuel vents are fitted with corrosion resistant screen to prevent ____.
- AFlames entering the tank vent
- BEscape of flammable vapors
- CCorrosion in the tank vent
- DDamage to the ball check
16Which fire extinguishing agent has the greatest capacity for absorbing heat?
- AWater
- BFoam
- CCarbon dioxide
- DDry chemical
17Annual servicing of a hand portable CO2 fire extinguisher includes_________ .
- Aweighing the cylinder and recharging if weight loss exceeds 10% of the weight of the charge
- Binspecting the pressure gauge to ensure the needle is within operating range
- Chydrostatic testing of the cylinder
- Ddischarging, cleaning inside, and recharging
18A spark arrestor _______.
- Aprevents sparks from getting out of an engine's exhaust system
- Bkeeps sparks from falling into an open tank
- Csecures covers on ullage openings
- Dgrounds static electricity
19On an inspection of your tankship you notice that there are no portable fire extinguishers in the pump room. To comply with regulations, you __________.
- Ashould arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the lower pumproom
- Bneed not be concerned since no portable extinguishers are required in the pumproom
- Cshould arrange to have a B-II extinguisher placed in the vicinity of the exit
- Dmay substitute sand for the required extinguishers
20How often shall crew members participate in fire drills?
- Aonce every month
- Bonce every 6 months
- Conce every year
- Donce every week
21All of the following are part of the fire triangle except __________.
- Aelectricity
- Boxygen
- Cheat
- Dfuel
22What is required in addition to the heat, fuel, and oxygen of the fire triangle to have a fire?
- AChain reaction
- BPressure
- CSmoke
- DElectricity
23Fire alarm system thermostats are actuated by __________.
- Athe difference in thermal expansion of two dissimilar metals
- Bsmoke sensors
- Cpressure loss due to air being heated
- Dan electric eye which actuates when smoke interferes with the beam
24The supply of carbon dioxide used in the fixed extinguishing system aboard a cargo vessel must be at least sufficient for __________.
- Athe space requiring the largest amount
- Bthe engine room and largest cargo space
- Call cargo spaces
- Dall the spaces of a vessel
25Valves on steam-smothering lines to cargo tanks shall be set with __________.
- Athe master control valve shut and valves to individual cargo tanks open
- Bthe master control valve shut and valves to individual cargo tanks shut
- Cthe master control valve open and valves to individual cargo tanks shut
- Dall valves open
26What is the function of the bypass valve on the self-contained breathing apparatus?
- AIn the event of a malfunction in the equipment, the valve can be operated manually to give the wearer air.
- BThe valve opens in excessive heat to release the oxygen in the bottle and prevent the bottle from exploding.
- CWhen pressure in the apparatus exceeds 7 psi above atmospheric pressure, the valve opens to release pressure.
- DThe valve reduces the high pressure in the bottle to about 3 psi above atmospheric pressure.
27You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.
- Aat the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
- Bto bank off a bulkhead onto the fire
- Cover the top of the fire
- Dat the main body of the fire
28You are fighting a class "B" fire with a portable dry chemical extinguisher. The discharge should be directed __________.
- Aat the seat of the fire, starting at the near edge
- Bto bank off a bulkhead onto the fire
- Cover the top of the fire
- Dat the main body of the fire
29You are fighting a fire in the electrical switchboard in the engine room. You should secure the power, then __________.
- Ause a portable CO2 extinguisher
- Buse a portable foam extinguisher
- Cuse a low-velocity fog adapter with the fire hose
- Ddetermine the cause of the fire
30When two fire hose teams are attacking a fire they should __________.
- Anot attack the fire from opposite sides
- Buse different fire hose pressures
- Cuse fire hoses of different sizes
- Dnot wear protective clothing
31The smoke detector (fire indicator) indicates fire in a cargo hold loaded by general cargo. What first action should be taken?
- AClose the ventilation system and other openings to the hold in order to choke the fire
- BUse the ship's gas extinguishing central system to put out the fire
- CInspect the scene before deciding the method to be used for fire-fighting
- DStart the fire pumps, open the hatches and start fighting the fire by fire hoses
32Which extinguishing agent is most likely to allow reflash as a result of not cooling the fuel below its ignition temperature?
- ACO2
- BWater stream
- CWater spray
- DFoam
33Combustible gas indicators operate by drawing an air sample into the instrument _______.
- Aover an electrically heated platinum filament
- Bwhere it is mixed with nitrogen
- Cwhere it is ignited by a sparking device
- Dwhere its specific gravity is measured
34Which of the following fire extinguishing agents has the greatest capacity for heat absorption?
- AWater fog
- BDry chemical
- CChemical foam
- DCarbon dioxide
35A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) having a flash point at or above 100°F is called a/an ____________.
- Acombustible liquid
- Bexplosive liquid
- Cflammable liquid
- Dviscous liquid
36The MAIN objection to the use of a dry chemical fire extinguisher on an electrical fire is that the __________.
- Adry chemical leaves a powder residue which may render electrical equipment inoperative
- Bextinguishing action is not as good as with soda acid
- Cpowder conducts electricity back to the fire fighter
- Dextinguisher will need to be recharged
37Which of the documents below identifies chemical listings, its physical properties, health hazards as well as firefighting procedures?
- AMaterial Safety Data Sheet
- BHazardous Chemical Information Sheet
- CHazardous Chemical Loading Document
- DChemical Characteristics Document
38Through which of the listed process is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?
- AHeat of oxidation
- BHeat of expansion
- CLatent heat of sublimation
- DLatent heat of condensation
39Gasoline is a flammable liquid whose vapors are ___________.
- Aall of the above
- Bheavier than air
- Ctoxic
- Dhighly explosive
40Which of the petroleum products listed has the lowest flash point?
- ADiesel oil
- BHydraulic oil
- CLubricating oil
- DRefrigeration oil
41 When firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed__________.
- Aapproximately 60° above the horizon
- Binto the wind
- Cstraight ahead
- Dat the vessel whose attention you want to attract
42Which of the following statements concerning chemical foam is TRUE?
- AIt is formed as a result of the reaction between dry powder and water.
- BIt is recommended for use on fires in main propulsion electric motors.
- CFoam bubbles are formed as a result of mechanical mixing with air.
- DIt is useful in fighting chemicals fires only.
43Who is responsible to the Operation Manager for the technical aspects and seaworthiness of the ships, except for the engineering spaces and personnel?
- AMarine Superintendent
- BMaster
- CDesignated Person Ashore
- DFleet manager
44What is the purpose of adopting international convention onboard?
- AProvide uniform practice
- BPort state control implementation
- CAvoid accident onboard
- DTo confirm with requirements
45In firefighting, the term 'protecting exposures' means _____________.
- Ataking measures to prevent the spread of fire from the involved compartment to an adjacent compartment
- Bprotecting fire fighters from direct exposure to the heat of the fire
- Ckeeping flames from burning at the tank vents
- Dprotecting exposed areas of the superstructure from flames
46What is the main reason of implementing provisions on International Conferences or Convention onboard?
- AProvide uniform practice.
- BReduce accidents at sea.
- CPort State recommendations
- DClass Society recommendations
47Automatically closed fire dampers installed in the vessel's ventilation system are operated by the use of a ____________.
- Afusible link
- Bremote operated valve
- CCO2 system pressure switch
- Dheat or smoke detector
48If the crew are still on board and salvage tug is around, what would the master do if it is determined that saving the ship is not possible?
- AAbandonship and let go
- BSave the ship
- CDon't abandonship
- DContact coast guard
49Mechanically foam used for firefighting is produced by mechanically mixing and agitating ___________.
- Afoam chemical with air and water
- Bsoda acid and water
- Cdry chemical and water
- Dbicarbonate soda with air and water
50Which is NOT a mandatory requirement of the shipboard oil pollution emergency plan?
- ADiagrams
- BSteps to control a discharge
- CNational and local coordination
- DReporting requirements
51What is termed as the process of killing the ineffective bacteria from the water so as to make it safe for drinking?
- ADisinfection
- BSterilization
- CTri-oxidation
- DUltra-hydration
52Which of the following statements is true concerning Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)?
- AAFFF controls the vaporization of flammable liquids by means of a water film.
- BThe agent cannot be used in conjunction with dry chemicals.
- CAFFF can only be produced from fresh water.
- DBecause AFFF works through surface tension, it can not be broken up if it is agitated.
53 What is a major advantage of using a positive pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus?
- AThe speed with which it can be put into operation is around 45 seconds.
- BThe equipment is lightweight and the wearer can work without difficulty in confined spaces.
- CThe average operating time is over an hour.
- DFacial hair will not affect the mask performance.
54Which of the following conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration above the explosive limit?
- AThe mixture is too rich to burn.
- BThe mixture is too lean to burn.
- CThe vapor is about to explode.
- DConditions are perfect for combustion.
55According to the Pollution Prevention Regulation, who makes final decision of when oil transfer may begin?
- AThe designated persons in charge of vessel and facility
- BThe senior deck officer
- CThe captain of the port
- DAny local coast guard representative
56During man overboard situation, the first person who saw the incident shall _______ .
- Athrow a life ring and inform the bridge
- Bthrow a life ring and shout for help
- Cshout for help and do not lose sight of the man in the water
- Dthrow a marker and inform any deck officer around
57Why an upper limit switch is used when handling lifeboat equipment?
- ATo prevent the davits from pulling up against the stops
- BTo keep the tricing line from releasing or getting tangled
- CTo assist in cranking in the lifeboat
- DTo stop the lifeboat from being lowered
58“Dry Powder” fire extinguishers, which contain a mixture of graphite and sodium chloride as the extinguishing agent, are generally used to fight which type of fire?
- AClass D
- BClass B
- CClass C
- DClass A
59Which of the following fire extinguishing agents has the greatest capacity for heat absorption?
- AWater fog
- BDry chemical
- CChemical foam
- DCarbon dioxide
60Mechanically foam used for firefighting is produced by mechanically mixing and agitating ___________.
- Afoam chemical with air and water
- Bsoda acid and water
- Cdry chemical and water
- Dbicarbonate soda with air and water
61Which of the following statements is true concerning Aqueous Film Forming Foam (AFFF)?
- AAFFF controls the vaporization of flammable liquids by means of a water film.
- BThe agent cannot be used in conjunction with dry chemicals.
- CAFFF can only be produced from fresh water.
- DBecause AFFF works through surface tension, it can not be broken up if it is agitated.
62Which of the following statements concerning chemical foam is TRUE?
- AIt is formed as a result of the reaction between dry powder and water.
- BIt is recommended for use on fires in main propulsion electric motors.
- CFoam bubbles are formed as a result of mechanical mixing with air.
- DIt is useful in fighting chemicals fires only.
63Chemical foam is most suitable for use on a fire involving _____________.
- Aoil
- Bburning insulation
- Chot bulkheads
- Delectrical machinery
64Which of the following statements is true concerning carbon dioxide when used as a fire extinguishing agent?
- AIts smothering effect is excellent for class B fires.
- BCarbon dioxide is corrosive when exposed to fire.
- CCarbon dioxide should be applied slowly to a large engine room fire.
- DIts total cooling effect is far greater than water
65The MAIN objection to the use of a dry chemical fire extinguisher on an electrical fire is that the __________.
- Adry chemical leaves a powder residue which may render electrical equipment inoperative
- Bextinguishing action is not as good as with soda acid
- Cpowder conducts electricity back to the fire fighter
- Dextinguisher will need to be recharged
66Through which of the listed process is sufficient heat produced to cause spontaneous ignition?
- AHeat of oxidation
- BHeat of expansion
- CLatent heat of sublimation
- DLatent heat of condensation
67Fires resulting from “spontaneous combustion” are usually caused by the improper disposal of________.
- Aoily rags
- Bcigarette butts
- Cburner torches
- Dlighted matches
68Which of the following conditions is true concerning flammable liquid vapors with a concentration above the explosive limit?
- AThe mixture is too rich to burn.
- BThe mixture is too lean to burn.
- CThe vapor is about to explode.
- DConditions are perfect for combustion.
69Which of the petroleum products listed has the lowest flash point?
- ADiesel oil
- BHydraulic oil
- CLubricating oil
- DRefrigeration oil
70Gasoline is a flammable liquid whose vapors are ___________.
- Aall of the above
- Bheavier than air
- Ctoxic
- Dhighly explosive
71Which of the listed tanks present the greatest potential for an explosion?
- AA partially filled tank of diesel oil
- BA full tank of diesel oil
- CA full tank of lubricating oil
- DA partially filled tank of hydraulic oil
72A liquid, as listed on a Material Safety Data Sheet (MSDS) having a flash point at or above 100°F is called a/an ____________.
- Acombustible liquid
- Bexplosive liquid
- Cflammable liquid
- Dviscous liquid
73If a fire hose is left unattended and under pressure with the nozzle shut off, the fire hose will _____.
- ARemain motionless
- BBurst under pressure
- CLash about violently
- DBecome elongated by 125%
74Fire main outlet valves or hydrants located on e decks shall be in _____.
- Aprotected against freezing or be fitted with valves and drain valves
- Bbehind glass or a suitably marked enclosure
- Copened up and internally examined at each Coast Guard biannual inspection for certification
- Dopen area or at the gangway near the emergency hallway
75Automatically closed fire dampers installed in the vessel's ventilation system are operated by the use of a ____________.
- Afusible link
- Bremote operated valve
- CCO2 system pressure switch
- Dheat or smoke detector
76In firefighting, the term 'protecting exposures' means _____________.
- Ataking measures to prevent the spread of fire from the involved compartment to an adjacent compartment
- Bprotecting fire fighters from direct exposure to the heat of the fire
- Ckeeping flames from burning at the tank vents
- Dprotecting exposed areas of the superstructure from flames
77If a fire occurs in an electric cable, in which the inner layers of insulation have burned, you should FIRST _________.
- Asecure power to the cable
- Bcut the cable with a cable cutter
- Cinsulate the melted ends
- Dremove the electrical load on the cable
78 According to 46 CFR's Part 96, what is the minimum period of time that an approved self-contained breathing apparatus (SCBA) is required to provide an air supply?
- A30 minutes
- B10 minutes
- C15 minutes
- D60 minutes
79 Which unit will provide excellent mobility to the wearer in an unsafe atmosphere and provide oxygen to sustain life?
- AA self-contained breathing apparatus
- BA fresh air breathing apparatus
- CAn ammonia gas mask
- DImmersion suit
80 What is a major advantage of using a positive pressure type self-contained breathing apparatus?
- AThe speed with which it can be put into operation is around 45 seconds.
- BThe equipment is lightweight and the wearer can work without difficulty in confined spaces.
- CThe average operating time is over an hour.
- DFacial hair will not affect the mask performance.
81 When firing a pyrotechnic distress signal, it should be aimed__________.
- Aapproximately 60° above the horizon
- Binto the wind
- Cstraight ahead
- Dat the vessel whose attention you want to attract
82 In lifeboat situations, which of the following visual distress signals is acceptable for daylight use only?
- AOrange smoke signal
- BHandled red flare
- CSelf-contained rocket propelled parachute red flare
- DRed aerial pyrotechnic flare
83Which of the following conditions represents the appropriate time for setting off distress flares and rockets?
- AOnly when there is a chance of them being seen by rescue vessels
- BAt half-hour intervals
- CAt one hour intervals
- DImmediately upon abandoning the vessel
84When using a handheld smoke signal aboard a survival craft, you should activate the signal_________.
- Aon the downwind side of the craft
- Bon the upwind side of the craft
- Cinside the craft
- Dat the stern of the craft
85 A distress___________.
- Amay be used individually in conjunction with other distress signals
- Bconsists of 5 or more short blasts of the fog signal apparatus
- Cconsists of the raising and lowering of a large white flag
- Dis used to indicate doubt about another vessel’s intensions
86 After having activated the emergency position indicating radio beacon, you should ____________.
- Aleave it on continuously
- Bturn it off for five minutes every half-hour
- Cturn it off and on at five minute intervals
- Dturn it off during daylight hours
87 If you have to abandon ship, the EPIRB can be used to _____________.
- Asend radio homing signals to searching aircraft
- Bhold the lifeboat's head up into the seas
- Cgenerate orange smoke
- Dseal leaks in rubber rafts
88The centrifugal brake mechanism incorporated in a lifeboat handling winch is intended to _________.
- Aautomatically control the speed of lowering by gravity
- Bautomatically stop the boat if electric power fails
- Cmechanically stop the boat when the hand break fails
- Dhold the load suspended during lowering operations
89 After the lifeboat has reached the top of the davit heads, the davit arms begin moving up the tracks until the movement is stopped by the __________.
- Alimit switch
- Bhoist man
- Cbrake handle
- Dpreventer bar
90Limit switches on gravity davits should be tested by __________.
- Apushing the switch lever arm while the winch is running
- Bthe engineers, from a panel in the engine room
- Cshutting off the current to the winch
- Dit can be tested as long as the port surveyor is the one inspecting it
91 When abandoning ship, after launching the motor lifeboat you should __________.
- Astay in the immediate area
- Bplot course for nearest land
- Cgo only with the direction of the sea
- Dgo one direction until fuel runs out
92 If you are forced to abandon ship in a lifeboat, you should _______.
- Aremain in the immediate vicinity
- Bhead for the nearest land
- Chead for the closest sea-lanes
- Dvote on what to do, so all hands will have a part in the decision
93 Using a sea anchor with the survival craft will ___________.
- Areduce your drift rate
- Bkeep the survival craft from turning over
- Caid in recovering the survival craft
- Dincrease your visibility
94 All personnel should be familiar with the lifeboats _________.
- Aboarding and operating procedures
- Bmaintenance schedule
- Cnavigational system
- Dfuel consumption rates
95Engines for lifeboats are required to have sufficient fuel to operate for how many hours?
- A24 hours
- B6 hours
- C12 hours
- D18 hours
96 When a rescue vessel approaches a survival craft in heavy seas, the person in charge of the survival craft should ________.
- Await for calmer weather before transferring personnel
- Btie up the rescue vessel
- Ctransfer only those who are seasick
- Dtransfer all personnel immediately
97The purpose for the bag or box on top of some survival craft is to ______________.
- Aright it in case of capsize
- Bincrease area for radar detection
- Cact as a sail in case of a power loss
- Dsteady the craft in heavy seas
98Which of the lifeboat parts listed must be painted bright red?
- AReleasing gear lever
- BHatches
- CBoat hooks
- DCompass
99 Fire and lifeboat stations are required to be listed on the _____________.
- Amuster list
- Bship's articles
- Cbunk card
- Dforecastle card
100 A hydrostatic release mechanism for a liferaft ____________.
- Amust be submerged to a certain depth to release automatically
- Bmust be wet before it will release
- Cshould be kept in a watertight cover except in an emergency
- Dwill inflate the raft in its cradle if operated manually
101 Which of the following operations should be carried out when launching an inflatable liferaft by hand?
- AMake sure the operating cord is secured to the vessel before throwing it over the side
- BOpen the liferaft casing
- CTurn the valve on the CO2 cylinder to start inflation
- DAfter inflation, detach operating cord from liferaft
102 If an inflatable liferaft inflates upside down, you can right it by ________________.
- Astanding on the CO2 bottle, holding the bottom straps, and throwing your weight backwards
- Bpushing up on one side.
- Cgetting at least three or four men to push down on the side containing the CO2 cylinder
- Ddoing nothing, it will right itself after the canopy supports inflate
103" You have abandoned ship in tropical waters. Which procedure(s) should be used during a prolonged peroid in a raft? I. Wet clothes during the day to decrease perpiration.
II. Get plenty of rest.
III. Keep the entrance curtins open."- AI, II and III
- BI only
- CII only
- DIII only
104 When a ship is abandoned and there are several liferafts in the water, one of the FIRST things to be done is __________.
- Asecure the rafts together to keep them from drifting apart
- Bseparate the rafts as much as possible to increase chances of detection
- Ctransfer all supplies to one raft
- Dtransfer all the injured to one raft
105 When the machinery spaces on a tank vessel are protected by a fixed foam extinguishing system, what additional protection is required by Regulations (46 CFR) outside of the machinery space entrance?
- ATwo fire hydrants with hose, nozzle and application
- BOne portable foam extinguisher
- CTen cubic feet of sand of with scoop
- DOne semi-portable CO2 extinguisher
106 The primary function of an automatic sprinkler system is to______.
- Alimit the spread of the fire and control the amount of heat produced
- Binstantaneously extinguish the fire which triggered it
- Cprotect people in the areas which have had sprinkler heads installed
- Dalert the crew to the fire
107 A fireman's outfit carried onboard cargo vessels, must have a _____.
- Aself-contained breathing apparatus
- Bcanister -type gas mask
- Cfresh -air breathing apparatus
- Dcombustible gas indicator
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- competency Quiz on c12, created by mrk nthny on 06/08/2016.
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- mrk nthny
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- Created on 6 Aug 2016 · updated on 6 Apr 2018
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