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CCNA2 Final Exam

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Final exam Information Technology (CCNA2) Quiz on CCNA2 Final Exam, created by Jess K on 13/01/2017.
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator is configuring a router as a DHCPv6 server. The administrator issues a show ipv6 dhcp pool command to verify the configuration. Which statement explains the reason that the number of active clients is 0?
Image:
07516802-e31c-455e-9343-daa2482c763d (image/png)
Answer
  • The default gateway address is not provided in the pool.
  • No clients have communicated with the DHCPv6 server yet.
  • The IPv6 DHCP pool configuration has no IPv6 address range specified.
  • The state is not maintained by the DHCPv6 server under stateless DHCPv6 operation

Question 2

Question
Which command, when issued in the interface configuration mode of a router, enables the interface to acquire an IPv4 address automatically from an ISP, when that link to the ISP is enabled?
Answer
  • ip dhcp pool
  • ip address dhcp
  • service dhcp
  • ip helper-address

Question 3

Question
Which kind of message is sent by a DHCP client when its IP address lease has expired?
Answer
  • a DHCPDISCOVER broadcast message
  • a DHCPREQUEST broadcast message
  • a DHCPREQUEST unicast message
  • a DHCPDISCOVER unicast message

Question 4

Question
Refer to the exhibit. R1 has been configured as shown. However, PC1 is not able to receive an IPv4 address. What is the problem?
Image:
96b6ccbe-7d06-4d6d-8ba4-8246ab9ec773 (image/png)
Answer
  • A DHCP server must be installed on the same LAN as the host that is receiving the IP address.
  • R1 is not configured as a DHCPv4 server.
  • The ip address dhcp command was not issued on the interface Gi0/1.
  • The ip helper-address command was applied on the wrong interface.

Question 5

Question
A college marketing department has a networked storage device that uses the IP address 10.18.7.5, TCP port 443 for encryption, and UDP port 4365 for video streaming. The college already uses PAT on the router that connects to the Internet. The router interface has the public IP address of 209.165.200.225/30. The IP NAT pool currently uses the IP addresses ranging from 209.165.200.228-236. Which configuration would the network administrator add to allow this device to be accessed by the marketing personnel from home?
Answer
  • ip nat pool mktv 10.18.7.5 10.18.7.5
  • ip nat outside source static 10.18.7.5 209.165.200.225
  • ip nat inside source static tcp 10.18.7.5 443 209.165.200.225 443 ip nat inside source static udp 10.18.7.5 4365 209.165.200.225 4365
  • ip nat inside source static tcp 209.165.200.225 443 10.18.7.5 443 ip nat inside source static udp 209.165.200.225 4365 10.18.7.5 4365
  • No additional configuration is necessary.

Question 6

Question
What is a disadvantage of NAT?
Answer
  • There is no end-to-end addressing.
  • The router does not need to alter the checksum of the IPv4 packets.
  • The internal hosts have to use a single public IPv4 address for external communication.
  • The costs of readdressing hosts can be significant for a publicly addressed network.

Question 7

Question
Which type of traffic would most likely have problems when passing through a NAT device?
Answer
  • Telnet
  • IPsec
  • HTTP
  • ICMP
  • DNS

Question 8

Question
What benefit does NAT64 provide?
Answer
  • It allows sites to use private IPv6 addresses and translates them to global IPv6 addresses.
  • It allows sites to connect multiple IPv4 hosts to the Internet via the use of a single public IPv4 address.
  • It allows sites to connect IPv6 hosts to an IPv4 network by translating the IPv6 addresses to IPv4 addresses.
  • It allows sites to use private IPv4 addresses, and thus hides the internal addressing structure from hosts on public IPv4 networks.

Question 9

Question
Refer to the exhibit. The Gigabit interfaces on both routers have been configured with subinterface numbers that match the VLAN numbers connected to them. PCs on VLAN 10 should be able to print to the P1 printer on VLAN 12. PCs on VLAN 20 should print to the printers on VLAN 22. What interface and in what direction should you place a standard ACL that allows printing to P1 from data VLAN 10, but stops the PCs on VLAN 20 from using the P1 printer? (Choose two.)
Image:
d042af7e-b4a0-4235-84f3-ccab5e7d78b6 (image/png)
Answer
  • R1 Gi0/1.12
  • R1 S0/0/0
  • R2 S0/0/1
  • R2 Gi0/1.20
  • inbound
  • outbound

Question 10

Question
Which two packet filters could a network administrator use on an IPv4 extended ACL? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • destination MAC address
  • ICMP message type
  • computer type
  • source TCP hello address
  • destination UDP port number

Question 11

Question
A network administrator is explaining to a junior colleague the use of the lt and gt keywords when filtering packets using an extended ACL. Where would the lt or gt keywords be used?
Answer
  • in an IPv6 extended ACL that stops packets going to one specific destination VLAN
  • in an IPv4 named standard ACL that has specific UDP protocols that are allowed to be used on a specific server
  • in an IPv6 named ACL that permits FTP traffic from one particular LAN getting to another LAN
  • in an IPv4 extended ACL that allows packets from a range of TCP ports destined for a specific network device

Question 12

Question
Which three values or sets of values are included when creating an extended access control list entry? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • access list number between 1 and 99
  • access list number between 100 and 199
  • default gateway address and wildcard mask
  • destination address and wildcard mask
  • source address and wildcard mask
  • source subnet mask and wildcard mask
  • destination subnet mask and wildcard mask

Question 13

Question
A network administrator is designing an ACL. The networks 192.168.1.0/25, 192.168.0.0/25, 192.168.0.128/25, 192.168.1.128/26, and 192.168.1.192/26 are affected by the ACL. Which wildcard mask, if any, is the most efficient to use when specifying all of these networks in a single ACL permit entry?
Answer
  • 0.0.0.127
  • 0.0.0.255
  • 0.0.1.255
  • 0.0.255.255
  • A single ACL command and wildcard mask should not be used to specify these particular networks or other traffic will be permitted or denied and present a security risk.

Question 14

Question
The computers used by the network administrators for a school are on the 10.7.0.0/27 network. Which two commands are needed at a minimum to apply an ACL that will ensure that only devices that are used by the network administrators will be allowed Telnet access to the routers? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • access-class 5 in
  • access-list 5 deny any
  • access-list standard VTY permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.127
  • access-list 5 permit 10.7.0.0 0.0.0.31
  • ip access-group 5 out
  • ip access-group 5 in

Question 15

Question
A network administrator is adding ACLs to a new IPv6 multirouter environment. Which IPv6 ACE is automatically added implicitly at the end of an ACL so that two adjacent routers can discover each other?
Answer
  • permit ip any any
  • permit ip any host ip_address
  • permit icmp any any nd-na
  • deny ip any any

Question 16

Question
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
Answer
  • It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
  • It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
  • It has an administrative distance of 1.
  • It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

Question 17

Question
Refer to the exhibit. How did the router obtain the last route that is shown?
Image:
571ed624-b138-4584-a20a-0352c44cedbe (image/png)
Answer
  • The ip route command was used.
  • The ipv6 route command was used.
  • Another router in the same organization provided the default route by using a dynamic routing protocol.
  • The ip address interface configuration mode command was used in addition to the network routing protocol configuration mode command.

Question 18

Question
Which statement is correct about IPv6 routing?
Answer
  • IPv6 routing is enabled by default on Cisco routers.
  • IPv6 only supports the OSPF and EIGRP routing protocols.
  • IPv6 routes appear in the same routing table as IPv4 routes.
  • IPv6 uses the link-local address of neighbors as the next-hop address for dynamic routes.

Question 19

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of route is 172.16.0.0/16?
Image:
d70e46de-6d07-4cb9-af64-96320df82c1b (image/png)
Answer
  • child route
  • ultimate route
  • default route
  • level 1 parent route

Question 20

Question
Which two factors are important when deciding which interior gateway routing protocol to use? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • scalability
  • ISP selection
  • speed of convergence
  • the autonomous system that is used
  • campus backbone architecture

Question 21

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Which type of IPv6 static route is configured in the exhibit?
Image:
4dafb05a-3fb6-4c73-9d9a-ffa159af6efc.gif (image/gif)
Answer
  • directly attached static route
  • recursive static route
  • fully specified static route
  • floating static route

Question 22

Question
A router has used the OSPF protocol to learn a route to the 172.16.32.0/19 network. Which command will implement a backup floating static route to this network?
Answer
  • ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.240.0 S0/0/0 200
  • ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 200
  • ip route 172.16.0.0 255.255.224.0 S0/0/0 100
  • ip route 172.16.32.0 255.255.0.0 S0/0/0 100

Question 23

Question
Which summary IPv6 static route statement can be configured to summarize only the routes to networks 2001:db8:cafe::/58 through 2001:db8:cafe:c0::/58?
Answer
  • ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/62 S0/0/0
  • ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/54 S0/0/0
  • ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/56 S0/0/0
  • ipv6 route 2001:db8:cafe::/60 S0/0/0

Question 24

Question
Refer to the exhibit. If RIPng is enabled, how many hops away does R1 consider the 2001:0DB8:ACAD:1::/64 network to be?
Image:
b812c470-5a19-4bfc-bdbb-874875a7dc20 (image/png)
Answer
  • 1
  • 2
  • 3
  • 4

Question 25

Question
Which statement is true about the difference between OSPFv2 and OSPFv3?
Answer
  • OSPFv3 routers use a different metric than OSPFv2 routers use.
  • OSPFv3 routers use a 128 bit router ID instead of a 32 bit ID.
  • OSPFv3 routers do not need to elect a DR on multiaccess segments.
  • OSPFv3 routers do not need to have matching subnets to form neighbor adjacencies.

Question 26

Question
What happens immediately after two OSPF routers have exchanged hello packets and have formed a neighbor adjacency?
Answer
  • They exchange DBD packets in order to advertise parameters such as hello and dead intervals.
  • They negotiate the election process if they are on a multiaccess network.
  • They request more information about their databases.
  • They exchange abbreviated lists of their LSDBs.

Question 27

Question
What does the cost of an OSPF link indicate?
Answer
  • A higher cost for an OSPF link indicates a faster path to the destination.
  • Link cost indicates a proportion of the accumulated value of the route to the destination.
  • Cost equals bandwidth.
  • A lower cost indicates a better path to the destination than a higher cost does.

Question 28

Question
Which three pieces of information does a link-state routing protocol use initially as link-state information for locally connected links? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • the link router interface IP address and subnet mask
  • the type of network link
  • the link next-hop IP address
  • the link bandwidth
  • the cost of that link

Question 29

Question
Which three requirements are necessary for two OSPFv2 routers to form an adjacency? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • The two routers must include the inter-router link network in an OSPFv2 network command.
  • The OSPFv2 process is enabled on the interface by entering the ospf process area-id command.
  • The OSPF hello or dead timers on each router must match.
  • The OSPFv2 process ID must be the same on each router.
  • The link interface subnet masks must match.
  • The link interface on each router must be configured with a link-local address.

Question 30

Question
A router needs to be configured to route within OSPF area 0. Which two commands are required to accomplish this? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • RouterA(config)# router ospf 0
  • RouterA(config)# router ospf 1
  • RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 0
  • RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 0.0.0.255 area 0
  • RouterA(config-router)# network 192.168.2.0 255.255.255.0 0

Question 31

Question
What are two features of a link-state routing protocol? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • Routers send periodic updates only to neighboring routers.
  • Routers send triggered updates in response to a change.
  • Routers create a topology of the network by using information from other routers.
  • The database information for each router is obtained from the same source.
  • Paths are chosen based on the lowest number of hops to the designated router.

Question 32

Question
Why would an administrator use a network security auditing tool to flood the switch MAC address table with fictitious MAC addresses?
Answer
  • to determine which ports are not correctly configured to prevent MAC address flooding
  • to determine when the CAM table size needs to be increased in order to prevent overflows
  • to determine if the switch is forwarding the broadcast traffic correctly
  • to determine which ports are functioning

Question 33

Question
Two employees in the Sales department work different shifts with their laptop computers and share the same Ethernet port in the office. Which set of commands would allow only these two laptops to use the Ethernet port and create violation log entry without shutting down the port if a violation occurs?
Answer
  • switchport mode access switchport port-security
  • switchport mode access switchport port-security switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security violation restrict
  • switchport mode access switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky
  • switchport mode access switchport port-security maximum 2 switchport port-security mac-address sticky switchport port-security violation protect

Question 34

Question
Which problem is evident if the show ip interface command shows that the interface is down and the line protocol is down?
Answer
  • An encapsulation mismatch has occurred.
  • A cable has not been attached to the port.
  • The no shutdown command has not been issued on the interface.
  • There is an IP address conflict with the configured address on the interface.

Question 35

Question
What caused the following error message to appear?01:11:12: %PM-4-ERR_DISABLE: psecure-violation error detected on Fa0/8, putting Fa0/8 in err-disable state 01:11:12: %PORT_SECURITY-2-PSECURE_VIOLATION: Security violation occurred, caused by MAC address 0011.a0d4.12a0 on port FastEthernet0/8. 01:11:13: %LINEPROTO-5-UPDOWN: Line protocol on Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down 01:11:14: %LINK-3-UPDOWN: Interface FastEthernet0/8, changed state to down
Answer
  • Another switch was connected to this switch port with the wrong cable.
  • An unauthorized user tried to telnet to the switch through switch port Fa0/8.
  • NAT was enabled on a router, and a private IP address arrived on switch port Fa0/8.
  • A host with an invalid IP address was connected to a switch port that was previously unused.
  • Port security was enabled on the switch port, and an unauthorized connection was made on switch port Fa0/8.

Question 36

Question
While analyzing log files, a network administrator notices reoccurring native VLAN mismatches. What is the effect of these reoccurring errors?
Answer
  • All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
  • The control and management traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being misdirected or dropped.
  • All traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being switched correctly regardless of the error.
  • Unexpected traffic on the error-occurring trunk port is being received.

Question 37

Question
Which three pairs of trunking modes will establish a functional trunk link between two Cisco switches? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • dynamic desirable – dynamic desirable
  • dynamic auto – dynamic auto
  • dynamic desirable – dynamic auto
  • dynamic desirable – trunk
  • access – trunk
  • access – dynamic auto

Question 38

Question
What are two ways of turning off DTP on a trunk link between switches? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • Change the native VLAN on both ports.
  • Configure attached switch ports with the dynamic desirable command option.
  • Configure attached switch ports with the nonegotiate command option.
  • Configure one port with the dynamic auto command option and the opposite attached switch port with the dynamic desirable command option.
  • Place the two attached switch ports in access mode.

Question 39

Question
A network administrator is using the router-on-a-stick method to configure inter-VLAN routing. Switch port Gi1/1 is used to connect to the router. Which command should be entered to prepare this port for the task?
Answer
  • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree vlan 1
  • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# spanning-tree portfast
  • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport mode trunk
  • Switch(config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 Switch(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

Question 40

Question
Which two characteristics describe the native VLAN? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • Designed to carry traffic that is generated by users, this type of VLAN is also known as the default VLAN.
  • The native VLAN traffic will be untagged across the trunk link.
  • This VLAN is necessary for remote management of a switch.
  • High priority traffic, such as voice traffic, uses the native VLAN.
  • The native VLAN provides a common identifier to both ends of a trunk.

Question 41

Question
On a switch that is configured with multiple VLANs, which command will remove only VLAN 100 from the switch?
Answer
  • Switch# delete flash:vlan.dat
  • Switch(config-if)# no switchport access vlan 100
  • Switch(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan 100
  • Switch(config)# no vlan 100

Question 42

Question
What is the purpose of setting the native VLAN separate from data VLANs?
Answer
  • The native VLAN is for carrying VLAN management traffic only.
  • The security of management frames that are carried in the native VLAN can be enhanced.
  • A separate VLAN should be used to carry uncommon untagged frames to avoid bandwidth contention on data VLANs.
  • The native VLAN is for routers and switches to exchange their management information, so it should be different from data VLANs.

Question 43

Question
A network contains multiple VLANs spanning multiple switches. What happens when a device in VLAN 20 sends a broadcast Ethernet frame?
Answer
  • All devices in all VLANs see the frame.
  • Devices in VLAN 20 and the management VLAN see the frame.
  • Only devices in VLAN 20 see the frame.
  • Only devices that are connected to the local switch see the frame.

Question 44

Question
Refer to the exhibit. The partial configuration that is shown was used to configure router on a stick for VLANS 10, 30, and 50. However, testing shows that there are some connectivity problems between the VLANs. Which configuration error is causing this problem?
Image:
4e77a440-3597-4be0-b209-f359cad1123c (image/png)
Answer
  • A configuration for the native VLAN is missing.
  • There is no IP address configured for the FastEthernet 0/0 interface.
  • The wrong VLAN has been configured on subinterface Fa0/0.50.
  • The VLAN IP addresses should belong to the same subnet.

Question 45

Question
What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?
Answer
  • The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.
  • The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.
  • The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.
  • The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.

Question 46

Question
Which command will create a static route on R2 in order to reach PC B?
Image:
48a43aed-8343-47eb-b5b2-cdcf004c7c3e (image/png)
Answer
  • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.1 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
  • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254
  • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.2.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.3.1
  • R2(config)# ip route 172.16.3.0 255.255.255.0 172.16.2.254

Question 47

Question
In IPv6, all routes are level [blank_start]1[blank_end] ultimate routes.
Answer
  • 1

Question 48

Question
Static routes are configured by the use of the [blank_start]ip route[blank_end] global configuration command.
Answer
  • ip route

Question 49

Question
The OSPF Type 1 packet is the [blank_start]Hello[blank_end] packet.
Answer
  • Hello

Question 50

Question
The default administrative distance for a static route is [blank_start]1[blank_end] .
Answer
  • 1

Question 51

Question
Match the order in which the link-state routing process occurs on a router. (Not all options are used.) [blank_start]step 2[blank_end] Each router is responsible for “saying hello” to its neighbours on directly connected networks [blank_start]step 3[blank_end] Each router builds a Link-State Packet (LSP) containing the state of each directly connected link [blank_start]step 1[blank_end] Each router learns about its own directly connected networks [blank_start]---------[blank_end] Each router increment the hop count for the destination network [blank_start]step 4[blank_end] Each router floods the LSP to all neighbours, who then store all LSPs received in a database [blank_start]step 5[blank_end] Each router uses the database to construct a complete map of the topology and computes the best path to each destination network
Answer
  • step 2
  • step 3
  • step 1
  • ---------
  • step 4
  • step 5

Question 52

Question
Which information does a switch use to populate the MAC address table?
Answer
  • the destination MAC address and the incoming port
  • the destination MAC address and the outgoing port
  • the source and destination MAC addresses and the incoming port
  • the source and destination MAC addresses and the outgoing port
  • the source MAC address and the incoming port
  • the source MAC address and the outgoing port

Question 53

Question
Refer to the exhibit. How many broadcast and collision domains exist in the topology?
Image:
2ef4d0e1-cfcd-43ba-8096-89267c299188 (image/png)
Answer
  • 10 broadcast domains and 5 collision domains
  • 5 broadcast domains and 10 collision domains
  • 5 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains
  • 16 broadcast domains and 11 collision domains

Question 54

Question
What is a function of the distribution layer?
Answer
  • fault isolation
  • network access to the user
  • high-speed backbone connectivity
  • interconnection of large-scale networks in wiring closets

Question 55

Question
Which switching method drops frames that fail the FCS check?
Answer
  • borderless switching
  • cut-through switching
  • ingress port buffering
  • store-and-forward switching

Question 56

Question
When a Cisco switch receives untagged frames on a 802.1Q trunk port, which VLAN ID is the traffic switched to by default?
Answer
  • data VLAN ID
  • native VLAN ID
  • unused VLAN ID
  • management VLAN ID

Question 57

Question
Which statement describes a route that has been learned dynamically?
Answer
  • It is automatically updated and maintained by routing protocols.
  • It is unaffected by changes in the topology of the network.
  • It has an administrative distance of 1.
  • It is identified by the prefix C in the routing table.

Question 58

Question
Refer to the exhibit. R1 was configured with the static route command ip route 209.165.200.224 255.255.255.224 S0/0/0 and consequently users on network 172.16.0.0/16 are unable to reach resources on the Internet. How should this static route be changed to allow user traffic from the LAN to reach the Internet?
Image:
9c359d91-876c-4dbd-bfca-b8e52e0a7270 (image/png)
Answer
  • Add an administrative distance of 254.
  • Change the destination network and mask to 0.0.0.0 0.0.0.0
  • Change the exit interface to S0/0/1.
  • Add the next-hop neighbor address of 209.165.200.226.

Question 59

Question
Refer to the exhibit. A Layer 3 switch routes for three VLANs and connects to a router for Internet connectivity. Which two configurations would be applied to the switch? (Choose two.)
Image:
2dd1b8da-6de1-46dd-9d56-93832e1cc670 (image/png)
Answer
  • (config)# interface gigabitethernet 1/1 (config-if)# no switchport
  • (config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.252 (config)# interface vlan 1 (config-if)# ip address 192.168.1.2 255.255.255.0 (config-if)# no shutdown
  • (config)# interface gigabitethernet1/1 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
  • (config)# interface fastethernet0/4 (config-if)# switchport mode trunk
  • (config)# ip routing

Question 60

Question
How is the router ID for an OSPFv3 router determined?
Answer
  • the highest IPv6 address on an active interface
  • the highest EUI-64 ID on an active interface
  • the highest IPv4 address on an active interface
  • the lowest MAC address on an active interface

Question 61

Question
Which two statements are characteristics of routed ports on a multilayer switch? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • In a switched network, they are mostly configured between switches at the core and distribution layers.
  • They support subinterfaces, like interfaces on the Cisco IOS routers.
  • The interface vlan command has to be entered to create a VLAN on routed ports.
  • They are used for point-to-multipoint links.
  • They are not associated with a particular VLAN.

Question 62

Question
Match the switching characteristic to the correct term. (Not all options are used.) This is the ability to store frames before forwarding them. [blank_start]buffering[blank_end] Each switch port can simultaneously send and receive data. [blank_start]full duplex[blank_end] Each switch port creates this by reducing the possibility of collisions. [blank_start]collision domain[blank_end] Switches use this to forward frames to the destination. [blank_start]MAC address table[blank_end]
Answer
  • buffering
  • broadcast domain
  • half duplex
  • switching database
  • full duplex
  • collision domain
  • MAC address table

Question 63

Question
A small-sized company has 20 workstations and 2 servers. The company has been assigned a group of IPv4 addresses 209.165.200.224/29 from its ISP. What technology should the company implement in order to allow the workstations to access the services over the Internet?
Answer
  • static NAT
  • dynamic NAT
  • port address translation
  • DHCP

Question 64

Question
What best describes the operation of distance vector routing protocols?
Answer
  • They use hop count as their only metric.
  • They send their routing tables to directly connected neighbors.
  • They flood the entire network with routing updates.
  • They only send out updates when a new network is added.

Question 65

Question
Which three advantages are provided by static routing? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • The path a static route uses to send data is known.
  • No intervention is required to maintain changing route information.
  • Static routing typically uses less network bandwidth and fewer CPU operations than dynamic routing does.
  • Configuration of static routes is error-free.
  • Static routes scale well as the network grows.
  • Static routing does not advertise over the network, thus providing better security.

Question 66

Question
When configuring a switch to use SSH for virtual terminal connections, what is the purpose of the crypto key generate rsa command?
Answer
  • show active SSH ports on the switch
  • disconnect SSH connected hosts
  • create a public and private key pair
  • show SSH connected hosts
  • access the SSH database configuration

Question 67

Question
Which two commands can be used to verify the content and placement of access control lists? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • show processes
  • show cdp neighbor
  • show access-lists
  • show ip route
  • show running-config

Question 68

Question
Refer to the exhibit. What summary static address would be configured on R1 to advertise to R3?
Image:
f33068bd-094f-48ed-9315-ed45271aa9d3 (image/png)
Answer
  • 192.168.0.0/24
  • 192.168.0.0/23
  • 192.168.0.0/22
  • 192.168.0.0/21

Question 69

Question
A network technician has been asked to secure all switches in the campus network. The security requirements are for each switch to automatically learn and add MAC addresses to both the address table and the running configuration. Which port security configuration will meet these requirements?
Answer
  • auto secure MAC addresses
  • dynamic secure MAC addresses
  • static secure MAC addresses
  • sticky secure MAC addresses

Question 70

Question
Which value represents the “trustworthiness” of a route and is used to determine which route to install into the routing table when there are multiple routes toward the same destination?
Answer
  • routing protocol
  • outgoing interface
  • metric
  • administrative distance

Question 71

Question
Which type of router memory temporarily stores the running configuration file and ARP table?
Answer
  • flash
  • NVRAM
  • RAM
  • ROM

Question 72

Question
What is the purpose of an access list that is created as part of configuring IP address translation?
Answer
  • The access list permits or denies specific addresses from entering the device doing the translation.
  • The access list defines the private IP addresses that are to be translated.
  • The access list prevents external devices from being a part of the address translation.
  • The access list defines the valid public addresses for the NAT or PAT pool.

Question 73

Question
A new network policy requires an ACL to deny HTTP access from all guests to a web server at the main office. All guests use addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:DB8:19:C::/64. The web server is configured with the address 2001:DB8:19:A::105/64. Implementing the NoWeb ACL on the interface for the guest LAN requires which three commands? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • permit tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80
  • deny tcp host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 any eq 80
  • deny tcp any host 2001:DB8:19:A::105 eq 80
  • permit ipv6 any any
  • deny ipv6 any any
  • ipv6 traffic-filter NoWeb in
  • ip access-group NoWeb in

Question 74

Question
An OSPF router has three directly connected networks; 172.16.0.0/16, 172.16.1.0/16, and 172.16.2.0/16. Which OSPF network command would advertise only the 172.16.1.0 network to neighbors?
Answer
  • router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.255.255 area 0
  • router(config-router)# network 172.16.0.0 0.0.15.255 area 0
  • router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 255.255.255.0 area 0
  • router(config-router)# network 172.16.1.0 0.0.0.0 area 0

Question 75

Question
Refer to the exhibit. A small business uses VLANs 8, 20, 25, and 30 on two switches that have a trunk link between them. What native VLAN should be used on the trunk if Cisco best practices are being implemented?
Image:
570968a3-5be3-40d6-9776-f3a5b89be811.gif (image/gif)
Answer
  • 1
  • 5
  • 8
  • 20
  • 25
  • 30

Question 76

Question
A network technician is configuring port security on switches. The interfaces on the switches are configured in such a way that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source address are dropped and no notification is sent. Which violation mode is configured on the interfaces?
Answer
  • off
  • restrict
  • protect
  • shutdown

Question 77

Question
Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address 192.135.250.27?
Answer
  • 255.0.0.0
  • 255.255.0.0
  • 255.255.255.0
  • 255.255.255.224

Question 78

Question
Which subnet mask would be used as the classful mask for the IP address 128.107.52.27?
Answer
  • 255.0.0.0
  • 255.255.0.0
  • 255.255.255.0
  • 255.255.255.224

Question 79

Question
A standard ACL has been configured on a router to allow only clients from the 10.11.110.0/24 network to telnet or to ssh to the VTY lines of the router. Which command will correctly apply this ACL?
Answer
  • access-group 11 in
  • access-class 11 in
  • access-list 11 in
  • access-list 110 in

Question 80

Question
A security specialist designs an ACL to deny access to a web server from all sales staff. The sales staff are assigned addressing from the IPv6 subnet 2001:db8:48:2c::/64. The web server is assigned the address 2001:db8:48:1c::50/64. Configuring the WebFilter ACL on the LAN interface for the sales staff will require which three commands? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • permit tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80
  • deny tcp host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 any eq 80
  • deny tcp any host 2001:db8:48:1c::50 eq 80
  • permit ipv6 any any
  • deny ipv6 any any
  • ip access-group WebFilter in
  • ipv6 traffic-filter WebFilter in

Question 81

Question
To enable RIP routing for a specific subnet, the configuration command network 192.168.5.64 was entered by the network administrator. What address, if any, appears in the running configuration file to identify this network?
Answer
  • 192.168.5.64
  • 192.168.5.0
  • 192.168.0.0
  • No address is displayed.

Question 82

Question
What is the minimum configuration for a router interface that is participating in IPv6 routing?
Answer
  • Ipv6
  • Link-access
  • To have only a link-local IPv6 address
  • Protocol
  • OSPF

Question 83

Question
Which two statements are true about half-duplex and full-duplex communications? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • Full duplex offers 100 percent potential use of the bandwidth.
  • Half duplex has only one channel.
  • All modern NICs support both half-duplex and full-duplex communication.
  • Full duplex allows both ends to transmit and receive simultaneously.
  • Full duplex increases the effective bandwidth.

Question 84

Question
The acronym describes the type of traffic that has strict QoS requirements and utilizes a one-way overall delay less than 150 ms across the network. [blank_start]VoIP[blank_end]
Answer
  • VoIP

Question 85

Question
Which two commands should be implemented to return a Cisco 3560 trunk port to its default configuration? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk allowed vlan
  • S1(config-if)# no switchport trunk native vlan
  • S1(config-if)# switchport mode dynamic desirable
  • S1(config-if)# switchport mode access
  • S1(config-if)# switchport access vlan 1

Question 86

Question
Which command will enable auto-MDIX on a device?
Answer
  • S1(config-if)# mdix auto
  • S1# auto-mdix
  • S1(config-if)# auto-mdix
  • S1# mdix auto
  • S1(config)# mdix auto
  • S1(config)# auto-mdix

Question 87

Question
What is the effect of issuing the passive-interface default command on a router that is configured for OSPF?
Answer
  • Routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol
  • It prevents OSPF messages from being sent out any OSPF-enabled interface.
  • All of above

Question 88

Question
A network administrator is implementing a distance vector routing protocol between neighbors on the network. In the context of distance vector protocols, what is a neighbor?
Answer
  • routers that are reachable over a TCP session
  • routers that share a link and use the same routing protocol
  • routers that reside in the same area
  • routers that exchange LSAs

Question 89

Question
Refer to the exhibit. A network administrator has just configured address translation and is verifying the configuration. What three things can the administrator verify? (Choose three.)
Image:
36e37f9f-6df6-4bc1-b6b2-da966b4a213e (image/png)
Answer
  • Address translation is working.
  • Three addresses from the NAT pool are being used by hosts.
  • The name of the NAT pool is refCount.
  • A standard access list numbered 1 was used as part of the configuration process.
  • Two types of NAT are enabled.
  • One port on the router is not participating in the address translation.

Question 90

Question
Match the router memory type that provides the primary storage for the router feature. (Not all options are used.) console access [blank_start]–--[blank_end] full operating system [blank_start]flash[blank_end] limited operating system [blank_start]ROM[blank_end] routing table [blank_start]RAM[blank_end] startup configuration file [blank_start]NVRAM[blank_end]
Answer
  • –--
  • flash
  • ROM
  • RAM
  • NVRAM

Question 91

Question
Which two methods can be used to provide secure management access to a Cisco switch? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • Configure all switch ports to a new VLAN that is not VLAN 1.
  • Configure specific ports for management traffic on a specific VLAN.
  • Configure SSH for remote management.
  • Configure all unused ports to a “black hole.”
  • Configure the native VLAN to match the default VLAN.

Question 92

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Which highlighted value represents a specific destination network in the routing table?
Image:
875eed27-74a4-4549-bb31-ee838c3fb884 (image/png)
Answer
  • 0.0.0.0
  • 10.16.100.128
  • 10.16.100.2
  • 110
  • 791

Question 93

Question
Refer to the exhibit. Host A has sent a packet to host B. What will be the source MAC and IP addresses on the packet when it arrives at host B?
Image:
8b975bf2-eaa7-4d57-b6b8-31a0bdbe390a (image/png)
Answer
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source IP: 10.1.1.10
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 10.1.1.1
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 192.168.1.1
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE91.7799 Source IP: 10.1.1.10
  • Source MAC: 00E0.FE10.17A3 Source IP: 192.168.1.1

Question 94

Question
Which network design may be recommended for a small campus site that consists of a single building with a few users?
Answer
  • a network design where the access and distribution layers are collapsed into a single layer
  • a network design where the access and core layers are collapsed into a single layer
  • a collapsed core network design
  • a three-tier campus network design where the access, distribution, and core are all separate layers, each one with very specific functions

Question 95

Question
The network address 172.18.9.128 with netmask 255.255.255.128 is matched by which wildcard mask?
Answer
  • 0.0.0.31
  • 0.0.0.255
  • 0.0.0.127
  • 0.0.0.63

Question 96

Question
Which three addresses could be used as the destination address for OSPFv3 messages? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • FF02::5
  • FF02::6
  • FF02::A
  • 2001:db8:cafe::1
  • FF02::1:2
  • FE80::1

Question 97

Question
A network administrator is configuring port security on a Cisco switch. The company security policy specifies that when a violation occurs, packets with unknown source addresses should be dropped and no notification should be sent. Which violation mode should be configured on the interfaces?
Answer
  • off
  • restrict
  • protect
  • shutdown

Question 98

Question
A network administrator is configuring an ACL with the command access-list 10 permit 172.16.32.0 0.0.15.255. Which IPv4 address matches the ACE?
Answer
  • 172.16.20.2
  • 172.16.26.254
  • 172.16.47.254
  • 172.16.48.5

Question 99

Question
What are two reasons that will prevent two routers from forming an OSPFv2 adjacency? (Choose two.)
Answer
  • a mismatched Cisco IOS version that is used
  • use of private IP addresses on the link interfaces
  • one router connecting to a FastEthernet port on the switch and the other connecting to a GigabitEthernet port
  • mismatched OSPF Hello or Dead timers
  • mismatched subnet masks on the link interfaces

Question 100

Question
A part of the new security policy, all switches on the network are configured to automatically learn MAC addresses for each port. All running configurations are saved at the start and close of every business day. A severe thunderstorm causes an extended power outage several hours after the close of business. When the switches are brought back online, the dynamically learned MAC addresses are retained. Which port security configuration enabled this?
Answer
  • auto secure MAC addresses
  • dynamic secure MAC addresses
  • static secure MAC addresses
  • sticky secure MAC addresses

Question 101

Question
Which type of traffic is designed for a native VLAN?
Answer
  • management
  • user-generated
  • untagged
  • tagged

Question 102

Question
Which two statements are correct if a configured NTP master on a network cannot reach any clock with a lower stratum number?
Answer
  • The NTP master will claim to be synchronized at the configured stratum number.
  • An NTP server with a higher stratum number will become the master.
  • Other systems will be willing to synchronize to that master using NTP.
  • The NTP master will be the clock with 1 as its stratum number.
  • The NTP master will lower its stratum number.

Question 103

Question
A network engineer has created a standard ACL to control SSH access to a router. Which command will apply the ACL to the VTY lines?
Answer
  • access-group 11 in
  • access-class 11 in
  • access-list 11 in
  • access-list 110 in

Question 104

Question
A network administrator is configuring a new Cisco switch for remote management access. Which three items must be configured on the switch for the task? (Choose three.)
Answer
  • vty lines
  • VTP domain
  • loopback address
  • default gateway
  • default VLAN
  • IP address

Question 105

Question
A network administrator configures a router to provide stateful DHCPv6 operation. However, users report that workstations do not receive IPv6 addresses within the scope. Which configuration command should be checked to ensure that statefull DHCPv6 is implemented?
Answer
  • The dns-server line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.
  • The ipv6 nd managed-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.
  • The ipv6 nd other-config-flag is entered for the interface facing the LAN segment.
  • The domain-name line is included in the ipv6 dhcp pool section.

Question 106

Question
Refer to the exhibit. A company has an internal network of 172.16.25.0/24 for their employee workstations and a DMZ network of 172.16.12.0/24 to host servers. The company uses NAT when inside hosts connect to outside network. A network administrator issues the show ip nat translations command to check the NAT configurations. Which one of source IPv4 addresses is translated by R1 with PAT?
Image:
1c2a5451-7ac9-46ed-9d74-ee26c9201c99 (image/png)
Answer
  • 10.0.0.31
  • 172.16.12.5
  • 172.16.12.33
  • 192.168.1.10
  • 172.16.25.35

Question 107

Question
Which characteristic describes cut-through switching?
Answer
  • Frames are forwarded without any error checking.
  • Error-free fragments are forwarded, so switching accurs with lower latency.
  • Buffering is used to support different Ethernet speeds.
  • Only outgoing frames are checked for errors.
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