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Bio Psyc Weeks 8-11: Emotion, Motivated Behaviours I: Reproductive Behaviours, Motivated Behaviours II – Sleep, Psychological Disorders

Karis Allen
Quiz by Karis Allen, updated more than 1 year ago
Karis Allen
Created by Karis Allen over 3 years ago
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Weeks 8-11 Biological Psychology

Resource summary

Question 1

Question
The major components of an emotional response include:
Answer
  • Feelings and behaviour
  • Behaviour and moods
  • Hormonal secretions and cognition
  • Behaviour and physiological components

Question 2

Question
The autonomic component of an emotional response functions to
Answer
  • Mobilise energy for vigorous movement
  • Restore physiological balance after an emotional experience
  • Promote digestion of nutrients
  • Facilitate healing of damaged tissue

Question 3

Question
The neural systems that comprise fear are integrated by neurons within the
Answer
  • Hypothalamus
  • Amygdala
  • Ventromedial prefrontal cortex
  • Thalamus

Question 4

Question
Activation of the ____________ nucleus of the ___________ elicits an emotional response:
Answer
  • Lateral; amygdala
  • Central; amygdala
  • Medial; hypothalamus
  • Central; hypothalamus

Question 5

Question
The expression of an emotional response is inhibited by input from the:
Answer
  • Lateral amygdala
  • Central amygdala
  • Ventromedial prefrontal cortex
  • Lateral hypothalamus

Question 6

Question
Elevated levels of which neurotransmitter inhibits aggression:
Answer
  • Glutamate
  • GABA
  • Dopamine
  • Serotonin

Question 7

Question
Which drug would be expected to inhibit aggression:
Answer
  • Haloperidol
  • Cocaine
  • Fluoxetine (Prozac)
  • Amphetamine

Question 8

Question
A human male who has a long record of assault, arson and murder, would be expected to show __________ levels of ___________ in his cerebrospinal fluid:
Answer
  • elevated; 5-HIAA
  • reduced; 5-HIAA
  • elevated; GABA
  • reduced; GABA

Question 9

Question
Phineas Gage, who was injured when a steel rod was accidentally driven through his skull, exhibited impulsive, emotional behavior as a result of widespread damage to his:
Answer
  • Occipital cortex
  • Cingulate cortex
  • Ventromedial prefrontal cortex
  • Amygdala

Question 10

Question
Which of the following is an example of a moral dilemma:
Answer
  • Changing the ingredients of a recipe
  • Throwing another person onto a grenade to save many others
  • Walking away from a fight
  • Watching someone else throw another person onto a grenade to save many others

Question 11

Question
A combination of inadequate activation of the ___________ and enhanced activation of the ____________ may result in excessive anger that results in harm to other people:
Answer
  • Prefrontal cortex; hypothalamus
  • Prefrontal cortex; amygdala
  • Amygdala; prefrontal cortex
  • Hypothalamus; prefrontal cortex

Question 12

Question
The proposition that facial expressions of emotion are innate is supported by the observation that:
Answer
  • The same facial expression for an emotion is observed in all cultures
  • Blind children show different facial emotional expressions that sighted children
  • Some facial expressions are only expressed in adulthood
  • Facial expression of emotion change over time in a culture

Question 13

Question
A chimeric face is
Answer
  • A happy face
  • A wrinkled face
  • Created by pasting different facial images to form a single unit
  • Recognisable when upside down

Question 14

Question
The ability to recognise negative emotions expressed by others is most likely to be impaired after damage to:
Answer
  • Right hemisphere
  • Somatosensory Cortex
  • Cerebellum
  • Basal ganglia

Question 15

Question
According to the James-Lange theory, feelings of emotion are:
Answer
  • Culturally determined responses to stimuli
  • Produced by feedback from the behaviours and physiological responses caused by emotion-producing situations
  • Dependent upon the genetic makeup of an individual
  • Produced by activity within the thalamus in response to sensory cues

Question 16

Question
Which of the following is true of the sex chromosomes?
Answer
  • Factors coded on the Y chromosome control the development of the male sex glands
  • The Y chromosome contains the blueprint for the female foetus
  • The sex chromosomes are the largest among the 23 pairs
  • The mother donates her Y chromosome to form a male foetus

Question 17

Question
_____________________ exert(s) a defeminising action during prenatal development:
Answer
  • Testosterone
  • Anti-Müllerian hormone
  • Estradiol
  • Androgens

Question 18

Question
The size of the bed nucleus of the stria terminalis is an indicator of
Answer
  • Prenatal androgenisation
  • Sexual orientation
  • Ambivalent sexuality
  • Gender identity

Question 19

Question
The key factor that determines whether the undifferentiated gonads develop into testes is:
Answer
  • The SRY gene located on the Y chromosome
  • The secretion of testosterone from the adrenal glands
  • The SRY gene located on the X chromosome
  • The secretion of androgens from the gonads

Question 20

Question
A pheromone is a:
Answer
  • Chemical located on the tongue that detects sugar
  • Chemical that is released by one animal that affects the behaviour of another animal
  • Type of enzyme that deactivates cyclic nucleotides
  • Chemical that is released in the body that affects the behaviour of the individual that released it

Question 21

Question
Which of the following is true of pheromone action in humans
Answer
  • Menstrual cycles are delayed by exposure to human sweat
  • Women are attracted to the underarm sweat from men
  • Men prefer the smell of t-shirts worn by women during their fertile phase
  • Men and women show decreased sexual behaviour after exposure to pheromones

Question 22

Question
A hormone that promotes the prenatal development of the Woffian system is said to have a(n):
Answer
  • Defeminising effect
  • Activational effect
  • Masculinising effect
  • Feminising effect

Question 23

Question
The prenatal development of the internal reproductive structures of the female:
Answer
  • Requires the suppression of the Müllerian system by the anti- Müllerian hormone
  • Requires secretion of estradiol by the pituitary gland
  • Is caused by secretion of progesterone
  • Requires no hormone

Question 24

Question
The genetic sex of a foetus is determined by:
Answer
  • The hormones released by the pituitary gland during foetal development
  • A single gene on the X chromosome
  • The gonads
  • The sex chromosome inherited from the father

Question 25

Question
The key event that starts sexual maturation at the onset of puberty is that:
Answer
  • The ovaries and testes release gonadotropic hormones
  • Estradiol and testosterone are released from the hypothalamus
  • The hypothalamus secretes gonadotropin-releasing hormones
  • LH and FSH are released from the hypothalamus

Question 26

Question
Which of the following is known to speed up the onset of female puberty:
Answer
  • Low levels of body fat
  • High plasma levels of leptin
  • Malnutrition
  • High plasma levels of Estradiol

Question 27

Question
An increased prevalence of homosexuality/bisexuality is noted in:
Answer
  • Women with congenital adrenal hyperplasia
  • Women with Turner’s Syndrome
  • Men born during the late winter months to stressed mothers
  • Men born with congenital adrenal hyperplasia

Question 28

Question
The key effect of luteinising hormone (LH) is to:
Answer
  • Stimulate beard growth
  • Impair the growth of ovarian follicles
  • Induce ovulation
  • Guide the implantation of the fertilised ovum

Question 29

Question
A human female is more likely to initiate sexual activity with her partner:
Answer
  • Just prior to menstruation
  • When estradiol levels are lowest
  • Just after a surge of testosterone from her adrenal glands
  • At a point in the menstrual cycle when estradiol levels are highest

Question 30

Question
The ________________ would not be considered a human sex organ:
Answer
  • Ovaries
  • Adrenal gland
  • Testes
  • External genitalia

Question 31

Question
The various stages of sleep are easily distinguished by:
Answer
  • Visible changes in respiration
  • Changes in motor movements
  • Changes in the electrical activity of the brain
  • The quality and quantity of dreams

Question 32

Question
The transition between wakefulness and sleep is marked by the appearance of which type of EEG waves:
Answer
  • Alpha
  • Beta
  • Delta
  • Theta

Question 33

Question
You are watching the EEG of a person whose output contains 85% delta wave activity. Your best guess is that this person is:
Answer
  • In stage 4 of slow-wave sleep
  • Dreaming
  • Making the transition from wakefulness to sleep
  • In REM sleep

Question 34

Question
Typically, humans show which pattern of blood flow and cognitive activity during REM sleep:
Answer
  • Cortical blood flow is reduced during REM sleep as blood is shunted to the genitals
  • Cerebral blood flow is low in the primary visual cortex
  • Cerebral blood flow is high in the visual association cortex and low in the prefrontal cortex
  • Cerebral blood flow is high in the prefrontal cortex

Question 35

Question
It may be inappropriate to treat insomnia with benzodiazepines because:
Answer
  • Medication withdrawal symptoms can result in increased insomnia
  • Sleeping medication may lead to daytime hangovers
  • People with insomnia may be underestimating the amount of time they actually sleep
  • All of the above are correct

Question 36

Question
Nightmares that are particularly terrifying occur during:
Answer
  • Stage 1 sleep
  • Stage 2 sleep
  • Stage 4 sleep
  • REM sleep

Question 37

Question
The first day in a new job that is cognitively demanding and which involves the development of new skills, would be expected to:
Answer
  • Produce insomnia
  • Reduce the amplitude of delta activity in the frontal lobes
  • Increase the need for REM sleep
  • Increase the amount of time spent that night spent in slow-wave sleep

Question 38

Question
A build up of carbon dioxide in the blood is characteristic of the sleep disorder known as:
Answer
  • Narcolepsy
  • Sleep apnoea (apnea)
  • Somnambulism
  • Pavor nocturnus

Question 39

Question
A person who exhibits sudden paralysis may be suffering from:
Answer
  • Somnambulism
  • A sleep attack
  • Hynagogic hallucinations
  • An episode of cataplexy

Question 40

Question
Human narcolepsy:
Answer
  • Can be treated by using sleep-inducing drugs
  • Is caused by an absence of orexin in most people with narcolepsy
  • Involves the intrusion of slow-wave sleep components into the awake state
  • Is caused by an absence of dopamine in most people with narcolepsy

Question 41

Question
The occurrence of SLEEP ATTACKS in narcolepsy can be alleviated by drugs that:
Answer
  • Impair the release of orexin in the brain
  • Block hypocretin 2 receptors in the hypothalamus
  • Act as catecholamine agonists
  • Alleviated the symptoms of depression

Question 42

Question
Weight gain is a common outcome for a person suffering from:
Answer
  • Somnambulism
  • Sleep-related eating disorder
  • REM sleep disorder
  • Narcolepsy

Question 43

Question
The primary function of slow-wave sleep is to:
Answer
  • Rest the brain
  • Promote dreaming
  • Facilitate brain development
  • Rest the body

Question 44

Question
Research has suggested that ___________ sleep is important for ___________ memory:
Answer
  • Slow-wave; non-declarative
  • REM; declarative
  • Stage 2; declarative
  • REM; non-declarative

Question 45

Question
Prolonged sleep deprivation in humans results in:
Answer
  • Impaired concentration
  • Perceptual illusions
  • Partial recovery of lost stage 4 sleep
  • All of the above are correct

Question 46

Question
All of the following are positive symptoms of schizophrenia EXCEPT:
Answer
  • Social withdrawal
  • Auditory hallucinations
  • Thought disorder
  • Visual hallucinations

Question 47

Question
The negative symptoms of schizophrenia:
Answer
  • Are best illustrated by delusions
  • Are likely to be caused by excessive brain dopamine activity
  • Represent the absence of typical behaviours
  • Are best illustrated by hallucinations

Question 48

Question
The positive symptoms of schizophrenia may be caused by:
Answer
  • An imbalance of norepinephrine in the brain
  • A single recessive gene
  • A degenerative disorder of the brain
  • Excessive activity in dopamine circuits in the brain

Question 49

Question
The fact that the odds of a child born to two parents, both of whom have schizophrenia, is less than 50% suggests that:
Answer
  • Schizophrenia is associated with infertility
  • Schizophrenia is not produced by a single gene
  • Schizophrenia is a metabolic disorder
  • Schizophrenia is produced by a single dominant gene

Question 50

Question
Imagine that you have been handed a list of drugs and that beside each drug name is a number that represents the potency of that drug for blocking subcortical dopamine receptors (where a low number means a greater potency at blocking). Which would you choose for the treatment of schizophrenia?
Answer
  • Potency value =0.1
  • Potency value =0.3
  • Potency value =1.0
  • Potency value =5.0

Question 51

Question
Administration of high doses of which of the following drugs would be expected to produce the positive symptoms of schizophrenia:
Answer
  • L-DOPA
  • Methylphenidate
  • Cocaine
  • All of the above are correct

Question 52

Question
John has been diagnosed with schizophrenia and has shown improvement in positive symptoms while taking chlorpromazine (CPZ). You would expect his positive symptoms to return if John:
Answer
  • Stops taking CPZ and takes cocaine at a party
  • Takes double his CPZ does per day
  • Mixes alcohol with CPZ
  • Takes reserpine in addition to CPZ

Question 53

Question
The mesolimbic pathway projects from the ___________ to the __________:
Answer
  • Substantia nigra; caudate
  • Globus pallidus; ventral tegmental area
  • Ventral tegmental area; frontal cortex
  • Ventral tegmental area; nucleus accumbens and amygdala

Question 54

Question
Clozapine is referred to as an “atypical” antipsychotic drug because it:
Answer
  • Can reverse symptoms of schizophrenia without producing tardive dyskinesia
  • Is more potent at blocking D2 than D4 receptors
  • Effectively treats schizophrenia but also produces motor side effects
  • Does not have any effect on dopamine

Question 55

Question
The negative symptoms of schizophrenia may be related to:
Answer
  • Excessive birth weight
  • Damage to the cells of the brain
  • Overactivity of dopaminergic neurons
  • Having an older mother

Question 56

Question
Which of the following supports the contention that schizophrenia is associated with brain damage:
Answer
  • The size of the lateral ventricles increases in people with schizophrenia
  • The size of the lateral ventricles decreases in people with schizophrenia
  • Older people, who have already lost substantial numbers of neurons, are more likely to develop schizophrenia than younger people
  • The neurological symptoms observed in schizophrenia are unique to schizophrenia

Question 57

Question
The major affective disorders are also known as:
Answer
  • Anxiety disorders
  • Schizoaffective disorders
  • Manic-depressive disorders
  • Mood disorders

Question 58

Question
_______________is/are NOT an effective treatment for unipolar depression:
Answer
  • Drugs that block the reuptake of serotonin or norepinephrine
  • Sleep deprivation
  • Lithium salts
  • Electroconvulsive therapy

Question 59

Question
The ability of fluoxetine (Prozac) to function as an effective treatment for _____________ is related to its capacity to ____________:
Answer
  • Delusions and hallucinations; block serotonin reuptake
  • Depression and obsessive-compulsive disorder; block serotonin reuptake
  • Anxiety disorders; inhibit MAO
  • Obsessive-compulsive disorder; release glycine

Question 60

Question
A person with ____________ allele(s) of the gene for the _____________ transporter is at risk for depression:
Answer
  • A long and a short; dopamine
  • Two long; serotonin
  • Two short; serotonin
  • Two long; GABA
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