Quiz
3
Dieses Quiz hat ein Zeitlimit und öffnet sich deshalb im gewohnten Player.
Fragen in diesem Quiz (94)
1For which routes does the distance bgp 10 50 70 command set the administrative distance?
- Afor BGP internal routes only
- Bfor all BGP routes
- Cfor BGP external routes only
- Dbetween BGP routes and IGP routes
2Which effect of the terminal monitor command is true?
- AIt puts the device into global configuration mode
- BIt configures the device to log messages to the console
- CIt displays the configuration of the syslog server
- DIt configures a syslog server
3Refer to the exhibit.
An attempt to deny web access to a subnet blocks all traffic from the subnet. Which interface command immediately removes the effect of ACL 102?
- Ano ip access-class 102 in
- Bno ip access-class 102 out
- Cno ip access-group 102 in
- Dno ip access-group 102 out
- Eno ip access-list 102 in
4Which prompt does a Cisco switch display when it is running in privileged exec mode?
- Aswitch(config-if)#
- Bswitch#
- Cswitch(config)#
- Dswitch>
5Which two differences between distance-vector and link-state routing protocols are true? (Choose two)
- AOnly distance-vector routing protocols maintain identical topology tables on all connected neighbors
- BDistance-vector routing protocols are less susceptible to loops than link-state protocols
- COnly distance-vector routing protocols send full routing table updates
- DOnly link-state routing protocols use the Bellman-Ford algorithm
- ELink-state routing protocols offer faster convergence than distance-vector protocols during network changes
6Which option is the primary purpose of traffic shaping?
- Aenabling policy-based routing
- Bproviding best-effort service
- Climiting bandwidth usage
- Denabling dynamic flow identification
7You are configuring an IP SLA ICMP Echo operation to troubleshoot a network connectivity issue. When do you enter an IP address to test the IP SLA?
- AWhen you enable the ICMP Echo operation
- BWhen you define the ICMP Echo operation
- CWhen you specify the test frequency
- DWhen you verify the IP SLA operation
8Which two statements about 1000BASE-T UTP cable are true? (choose two)
- AIt use four wires
- BIt is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 feet in length
- CIt uses four wire pairs
- DIt is most appropriate for installations up to 1000 meters in length
- EBoth ends of the cable can transmit and receive simultaneously
9Which two neighbor types are supported in BGP environment? (Choose two)
- AExternal
- BAutonomous
- CRemote
- DInternal
- EDirectly attached
10Which two statements about IPv6 multicast address are true? (Choose two)
- AIf the liftime parameter is set to 1,the route is permanent.
- BThey use the prefix FC80::/8
- CThey use the prefix FF00::/8
- DThey identify a group of interfaces on different devices
- EIf the scope parameter is set to 5,the route is local to the node
11Under which two circumstances is a switch port that is configured with PortFast BPDU guard error-disable? (Choose two)
- AWhen the switch receives a request for an IP address from an individual PC
- BWhen the switch receives a BPDU from a connected switch
- CWhen a wireless access point running in bridge mode is connected to a switch
- DWhen a single IP address is configured on the switch
- EWhen a connected server has more than one VLAN configured on its NIC
12What are two advantages of static routing? (Choose two)
- AIt can be implemented easily even in large environments
- BIt produces minimal CPU load
- CIt cannot be used to load-balance traffic over multiple links
- DIt allows the administrator to control the path of traffic
- EIt allows the network to respond immediately to changes
13Refer to the exhibit. Which BGP configuration do you need to apply to router R4 to allow traffic to flow normally on this network?
- Arouter bgp 1
no synchronization
neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 192.168.1.1 ebgp-multihop 4
neighbor 192.168.2.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 192.168.2.1 ebgp-multihop 4
neighbor 192.168.3.1 remote-as 5
no auto-summary - Brouter bgp 1
no synchronization
neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 192.168.2.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 192.168.3.1 remote-as 5
no auto-summary - Crouter bgp 1
no synchronization
neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 192.168.2.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 192.168.2.1 ebgp-multihop 4
neighbor 192.168.3.1 remote-as 5
no auto-summary - Drouter bgp1
no synchronization
neighbor 192.168.1.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 192.168.1.1 ebgp-multihop 4
neighbor 192.168.2.1 remote-as 1
neighbor 192.168.2.1 ebgp-multihop 4
neighbor 192.168.3.1 remote-as 5
neighbor 192.168.3.1 ebgp-multihop 4
no auto-summary
- Arouter bgp 1
14Which command can you enter on a Cisco IOS device to enable a scheduled algorithm that directs lookup calls to multiple DNS hosts?
- Aip domain round-robin
- Bip name-server 192.168.10.14 192.168.10.15
- Cip domain lookup
- Dip domain list
15Which API use HTTP messages to transfer data to applications residing on different host?
- AOpFlex
- BREST
- COpenStack
- DOpenFlow
16Which two services can be provided by a wireless controller? (Choose two)
- Aissuing IP addresses to wired devices
- Bmitigating threats from the internet
- Cproviding authentication services to users
- Dmanaging interference in a dense network
- ELayer 3 routing between wired and wireless devices
17Refer to the exhibit. Given the output shown from this Cisco Catalyst 2950, what is the most likely reason that interface FastEthernet 0/10 is not the root port for VLAN 2?
Switch# show spanning-tree interface fastethernet0/10
- AThis switch has more than one interface connected to the root network segment in VLAN 2.
- BThis switch is running RSTP while the elected designated switch is running 802.1d Spanning Tree.
- CThis switch interface has a higher path cost to the root bridge than another in the topology.
- DThis switch has a lower bridge ID for VLAN 2 than the elected designated switch.
18Which value is included in the initial TCP syn message?
- Aa session ID
- Bsequence number
- Ca TTL number
- Dan acknowledgment number
19Which two cable specifications can support 1-Gbps Ethernet? (Choose two)
- ACategory 5e
- BRG11
- CRG-6
- DCategory 6
- ECategory 3
20What two actions can be taken to secure the virtual terminal interfaces on a router? (Choose two)
- AAdministratively shut down the interface
- BEnter an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-class command
- CPhysically secure the interface
- DCreate an access list and apply it to the virtual terminal interfaces using the access-group command
- EConfigure a virtual terminal password and login process
21Which type of device should you use to preserve IP addresses on your network?
- Afirewall
- BWLAN controller
- Cload balancer
- Dintrusion prevention device
22Which two conditions can be used to elect the spanning-tree root bridge? (Choose two)
- Athe highest MAC address
- Bthe lowest MAC address
- Cthe highest port priority
- Dthe lowest system ID
- Ethe lowest switch priority
23It you change the weight and distance parameters on a device with an established BGP neighbor, which additional task must you perform to allow the two devices to continue exchanging routes?
- AReset the BGP connections on the device
- BReset the gateway interface
- CClear the IP routes on the device
- DChange the weight and distance settings on the other device to match
24Which network topology allows all traffic to flow through a central hub?
- Abus
- Bstar
- Cmesh
- Dring
25What is true about Ethernet? (Choose two)
- A802.2 Protocol
- B802.3 Protocol
- C10BaseT half duplex
- DCSMA/CD stops transmitting when congestion occurs
- ECSMA/CA stops transmitting when congestion occurs
26If a router has 3 hosts connected in one port and two other hosts connected in another port, how may broadcast domains are present on the router?
- A5
- B2
- C3
- D4
27On which type of device is every port in the same collision domain?
- Aa router
- Ba Layer 2 switch
- Ca hub
- Da Host PC
- Ea Printer
- Fa Tablet
- Ga WiFiDildo
28Which MTU size can cause a baby giant error?
- A1500
- B9216
- C1600
- D1518
29What are three characteristics of the TCP protocol? (Choose three)
- AThe connection is established before data is transmitted.
- BIt uses a single SYN-ACK message to establish a connection.
- CIt ensures that all data is transmitted and received by the remote device.
- DIt uses separate SYN and ACK messages to establish a connection
- EIt supports significantly higher transmission speeds than UDP.
- FIt requires applications to determine when data packets must be retransmitted.
30Which of the following statements describe the network shown in the graphic? (Choose two)
- AThere are two broadcast domains in the network.
- BThere are four broadcast domains in the network.
- CThere are six broadcast domains in the network.
- DThere are four collision domains in the network.
- EThere are five collision domains in the network.
- FThere are seven collision domains in the network.
31A network interface port has collision detection and carrier sensing enabled on a shared twisted pair network. From this statement, what is known about the network interface port?
- AThis is a 10 Mb/s switch port.
- BThis is a 100 Mb/s switch port.
- CThis is an Ethernet port operating at half duplex.
- DThis is an Ethernet port operating at full duplex.
- EThis is a port on a network interface card in a PC.
32If there are 3 hosts connected in one port of a switch and two other hosts connected in another port, how many collision domains are present on the router?
- A5
- B2
- C3
- D4
- E1
- F0
33Which three elements are fields in a basic Ethernet data frame? (Choose three)
- APreamble
- BTime to Live
- CType/length
- DFrame check sequence
- EVersion
- FHeader Checksum
34What interconnection cable can you use when you use a MDI connection?
- Acut-through
- Bstraight-through
- Ccrossover
- Drollover
35For what two purposes does the Ethernet protocol use physical addresses? (Choose two)
- Ato uniquely identify devices at Layer 2
- Bto allow communication with devices on a different network
- Cto differentiate a Layer 2 frame from a Layer 3 packet
- Dto establish a priority system to determine which device gets to transmit first
- Eto allow communication between different devices on the same network
- Fto allow detection of a remote device when its physical address is unknown
36In an Ethernet network, under what two scenarios can devices transmit? (Choose two)
- Awhen they receive a special token
- Bwhen there is a carrier
- Cwhen they detect no other devices are sending
- Dwhen the server grants access
- Ewhen the medium is idle
37How many broadcast domains are shown in the graphic assuming only the default VLAN is configured on the switches?
- A1
- B6
- C12
- D2
38Which type of cable must you use to connect two device with MDI interfaces?
- Arolled
- Bcrossover
- Ccrossed
- Dstraight through
39Which statement about upgrading a Cisco IOS device with TFTP server?
- Athe operation is performed in active mode
- Bthe operation is performed in unencrypted format
- Cthe operation is performed in passive mode
- Dthe Cisco IOS device must be on the same LAN as the TFTP server
40Which two options are fields in an Ethernet frame? (Choose two)
- Aframe check sequence
- Bheader
- Csource IP address
- Ddestination IP address
- Etype
41Which two statements about UDP are true? (Choose two)
- AIt can transmit data at a rate higher than the path capacity
- BIt uses a three-way handshake to ensure that traffic is transmitted properly
- CIt guarantees packet delivery
- DIt includes protection against duplicate packets
- EIt can be used for multicast and broadcast traffic
42Which two statements about fiber cable are true? (Choose two)
- ASingle-mode fiber supports SC and LC connectors only
- BSingle-mode cable is most appropriate for installations longer 10 km
- CFiber cable is relatively inexpensive and supports a higher data rate than coaxial cable
- DMultimode cable supports speeds between 100 Mbps and 100 Gbps
- EMultimode cable supports speeds between 100 Mbps and 9.92 Gbps
43Which statements correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Chosse Two)
- AThe transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
- BThe data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
- CPackets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
- DPackets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
- EThe presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
44What layer of the OSI Model is included in TCP/IP Model‟s INTERNET layer?
- AApplication
- BSession
- CData Link
- DPresentation
- ENetwork
45Where does routing occur within the DoD TCP/IP reference model?
- Aapplication
- Binternet
- Cnetwork
- Dtransport
46Which of the following correctly describe steps in the OSI data encapsulation process? (Choose two)
- AThe transport layer divides a data stream into segments and may add reliability and flow control information.
- BThe data link layer adds physical source and destination addresses and an FCS to the segment.
- CPackets are created when the network layer encapsulates a frame with source and destination host addresses and protocol-related control information.
- DPackets are created when the network layer adds Layer 3 addresses and control information to a segment.
- EThe presentation layer translates bits into voltages for transmission across the physical link.
47Which option is the benefit of implementing an intelligent DNS for a cloud computing solution?
- AIt reduces the need for a backup data center.
- BIt can redirect user requests to locations that are using fewer network resources.
- CIt enables the ISP to maintain DNS records automatically.
- DIt eliminates the need for a GSS.
48What are the three major components of Cisco network virtualization? (Choose three)
- Anetwork access control
- Bpath isolation
- Cvirtual network services
- Dpolicy enforcement
49Which three technical services support cloud computing?
- Anetwork-monitored power sources
- Blayer 3 network routing
- Cip localization
- Dredundant connections
- EVPN connectivity
- Fextended SAN services
50Which command can you enter to determine whether serial interface 0/2/0 has been configured using HDLC encapsulation?
- Arouter#show platform
- Brouter#show ip interface s0/2/0
- Crouter#show interfaces Serial 0/2/0
- Drouter#show ip interface brief
51Which Layer 2 protocol encapsulation type supports synchronous and asynchronous circuits and has built-in security mechanisms?
- AX.25
- BHDLC
- CPPP
- DFrame Relay
52Which statements about using leased lines for your WAN infrastructure are true? (Choose Two)
- ALeased lines provide inexpensive WAN access.
- BLeased lines with sufficient bandwidth can avoid latency between endpoints
- CLeased lines require little installation and maintenance expertise
- DMultiple leased lines can share a router interface.
- ELeased lines support up to T1 link speeds.
53Which two statements about using the CHAP authentication mechanism in a PPP link are true? (Choose two)
- ACHAP uses a two-way handshake.
- BCHAP uses a three-way handshake.
- CCHAP authentication periodically occurs after link establishment.
- DCHAP authentication passwords are sent in plaintext.
- ECHAP authentication is performed only upon link establishment.
- FCHAP has no protection from playback attacks.
54A network administrator needs to configure a serial link between the main office and a remote location. The router at the remote office is a non-Cisco router. How should the network administrator configure the serial interface of the main office router to make the connection?
- AMain(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# no shut - BMain(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation ppp
Main(config-if)# no shut - CMain(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)# ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)# encapsulation frame-relay
Main(config-if)# authentication chap
Main(config-if)# no shut - DMain(config)# interface serial 0/0
Main(config-if)#ip address 172.16.1.1 255.255.255.252
Main(config-if)#encapsulation ietf
Main(config-if)# no shut
- AMain(config)# interface serial 0/0
55Refer to the exhibit:
The Bigtime router is unable to authenticate to the Littletime router. What is the cause of the problem?
- AThe usernames are incorrectly configured on the two routers.
- BThe passwords do not match on the two routers.
- CCHAP authentication cannot be used on a serial interface.
- DThe routers cannot be connected from interface S0/0 to interface S0/0.
- EWith CHAP authentication, one router must authenticate to another router. The routers cannot be configured to authenticate to each other.
56Which option describes the purpose of traffic policing?
- AIt prioritizes routing protocol traffic.
- BIt remarks traffic that is below the CIR (Committed Information Rate)
- CIt drops traffic that exceeds the CIR.
- DIt queues and then transmits traffic that exceeds the CIR.
57Which statement about QoS default behavior is true?
- APorts are untrusted by default.
- BVoIP traffic is passed without being tagged.
- CVideo traffic is passed with a well-known DSCP value of 46.
- DPackets are classified internally with an environment.
- EPackets that arrive with a tag are untagged at the edge of an administrative domain.
58What 8-bit field exists in IP packet for QoS?
- ATos Field
- BDSCP
- CIP Precedence
- DCos
- ETTL
59Which two server types are used to support DNS lookup? (Choose two)
- Aauthoritative name server
- Bname resolver
- CDHCP server
60Which two functions can be performed by a local DNS server? (Choose two)
- Aforwarding name resolution requests to an external DNS server
- Bresolving names locally
- Ccopying updated IOS images to Cisco switches
- Dassigning IP addresses to local clients
- Etransferring split horizon traffic between zones
61Which part of the PPPoE server configuration contains the information used to assign an IP address to a PPPoE client?
- Avirtual-template interface
- BDHCP
- Cdialer interface
- DAAA authentication
62During which phase of PPPoE is PPP authentication performed?
- Athe PPP Session phase
- BPhase 2
- Cthe Active Discovery phase
- Dthe Authentication phase
- EPhase 1
63Which type of interface can negotiate an IP address for a PPPoE client?
- AEthernet
- Bdialer
- Cserial
- DFrame Relay
64It operates in Layer 1.
- AIt operates between Layer 2 and Layer 3.
- BIt operates in Layer 3.
- CIt operates in Layer 2.
65Which two statements about MPLS are true? (Choose two)
- AIt provides automatic authentication
- BIt can carry multiple protocols, including IPv4 and IPv6
- CIt encapsulates all traffic in an IPv4 header
- DIt uses labels to separate and forward customer traffic
- EIt tags customer traffic using 802.1q
66Which type of topology is required by DMVPN?
- Aring
- Bfull mesh
- Chub-and-spoke
- Dpartial mesh
67Which command would you configure globally on a Cisco router that would allow you to view directly connected Cisco devices?
- Acdp run
- Benable cdp
- Ccdp enable
- Drun cdp
68Which statement about LLDP is true?
- AIt is a Cisco proprietary protocol.
- BIt is configured in global configuration mode.
- CThe LLDP update frequency is a fixed value.
- DIt runs over the transport layer.
69What is true about Cisco Discovery Protocol?
- Ait discovers the routers, switches and gateways.
- Bit is network layer protocol
- Cit is physical and data link layer protocol
- Dit is proprietary protocol
70Which two statements about IPv4 multicast traffic are true? (Choose two)
- AIt burdens the source host without affecting remote hosts.
- BIt uses a minimum amount of network bandwidth.
- CIt is bandwidth-intensive.
- DIt simultaneously delivers multiple streams of data.
- EIt is the most efficient way to deliver data to multiple receivers.
71What are benefits of private IPv4 IP addresses?
- AThey are routed the same as public IP addresses.
- BThey are less costly than public IP addresses
- CThey can be assigned to devices without Internet connections.
- DThey eliminate the necessity for NAT policies.
- EThey eliminate duplicate IP conflicts.
72What will happen if a private IP address is assigned to a public interface connected to an ISP?
- AA conflict of IP addresses happens, because other public routers can use the same range.
- BAddresses in a private range will not be routed on the Internet backbone.
- COnly the ISP router will have the capability to access the public network.
- DThe NAT process will be used to translate this address to a valid IP address.
73Which switching method duplicates the first six bytes of a frame before making a switching decision?
- Afragment-free switching
- Bcut-through switching
- Cstore-and-forward switching
- DASIC switching
74Refer to the exhibit. Which of these statements correctly describes the state of the switch once the boot process has been completed?
- AAs FastEthernet0/12 will be the last to come up, it will not be blocked by STP.
- BRemote access management of this switch will not be possible without configuration change.
- CMore VLANs will need to be created for this switch.
- DThe switch will need a different IOS code in order to support VLANs and STP.
75The network administrator normally establishes a Telnet session with the switch from host A. The administrator‟s attempt to establish a connect via Telnet to the switch from host B fails, but pings from host B to other two hosts are successful. What is the issue for this problem?
- AHost B and the switch need to be in the same subnet.
- BThe switch needs an appropriate default gateway assigned
- CThe switch interface connected to the router is down.
- DHost B need to be assigned an IP address in vlan 1.
76Configuration of which option is required on a Cisco switch for the Cisco IP phone to work?
- APortFast on the interface
- Bthe interface as an access port to allow the voice VLAN ID
- Cvoice VLAN ID in interface and global configuration mode
- DCisco Discovery Protocol in global configuration mode
77A technician has installed SwitchB and needs to configure it for remote access from the management workstation connected SwitchA. Which set of commands is required to accomplish this task?
- ASwitchB(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1
SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown - BSwitchB(config)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown - CSwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#ip default-gateway 192.168.8.254 255.255.255.0 SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown - DSwitchB(config)#ip default-network 192.168.8.254
SwitchB(config)#interface vlan 1
SwitchB(config-if)#ip address 192.168.8.252 255.255.255.0
SwitchB(config-if)#no shutdown
- ASwitchB(config)#interface FastEthernet 0/1
78Which three statements accurately describe layer 2 Ethernet switches? (choose three)
- AMicrosegmentation decreases the number of collisions on the network
- BIf a switch receives a frame for an unknown destination, it uses ARP to resolve the address.
- CSpanning Tree Protocol allows switches to automatically share vlan information.
- DIn a properly functioning network with redundant switched paths, each switched segment will contain one root bridge with all its ports in the forwarding state. All other switches in that broadcast domain will have only one root port.
- EEstablishing vlans increases the number of broadcast domains.
- FSwitches that are configured with vlans make forwarding decisions based on both layer 2 and layer 3 address information.
79What are three benefits of implementing VLANs? (Choose three)
- Amore efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many physical groups to use the same network infrastructure.
- BA higher level of network security can be reached by separating sensitive data traffic from other
network traffic. - CBroadcast storms can be mitigated by increasing the number of broadcast domains, thus reducing their size.
- DA more efficient use of bandwidth can be achieved allowing many logical networks to use the same network infrastructure.
- EPort-based VLANs increase switch-port use efficiency, thanks to 802.1 Q trunks.
- FVLANs make it easier for IT staff to configure new logical groups, because the VLANs all belong to the same broadcast domain. Broadcast storms can be mitigated by decreasing the number of broadcast domains, thus increasing their size.
80Which command can you enter to view the ports that are assigned to VLAN 20?
- ASwitch#show ip interface brief
- BSwitch#show interface vlan 20
- CSwitch#show ip interface vlan 20
- DSwitch#show vlan id 20
81What are three advantages of VLANs? (Choose three)
- AThey allow access to network services based on department, not physical location.
- BThey provide a method of conserving IP addresses in large networks.
- CThey utilize packet filtering to enhance network security.
- DThey can simplify adding, moving, or changing hosts on the network.
- EThey provide a low-latency internetworking alternative to routed networks.
- FThey establish broadcast domains in switched networks.
82Which command can you enter to determine whether a switch is operating in trunking mode?
- Ashow vlan
- Bshow ip interface brief
- Cshow interfaces
- Dshow interface switchport
83Which two commands can be used to verify a trunk link configuration status on a Cisco switch? (choose two)
- Ashow interfaces trunk
- Bshow interfaces switchport
- Cshow ip interface brief
- Dshow interfaces vlan
84Refer to the exhibit:
Switch port FastEthernet 0/24 on AlSwitch1 will be used to create an IEEE 802.1Q-complaint trunk to another switch. Based on the output shown, What is the reason the trunk does not form, even thought the proper cabling has been attached?
- AVLANs have not been created yet.
- BAn IP address must be configured for the port.
- CThe port is currently configured for access mode.
- DThe correct encapsulation type has not been configured
- EThe no shutdown command has not been entered for the port.
85Refer to the topology shown in the exhibit. Which ports will be STP designated ports if all the links are operating at the same bandwidth? (Choose three)
- ASwitch A – Fa0/0
- BSwitch A – Fa0/1
- CSwitch B – Fa0/0
- DSwitch B – Fa0/1
- ESwitch C – Fa0/0
- FSwitch C – Fa0/1
86If the primary root bridge experiences a power loss, which switch takes over?
- Aswitch 0040.0ВС0.90C5
- Bswitch 00E0.F90B.6BE3
- Cswitch 0004.9A1A.C182
- Dswitch 00E0.F726.3DC6
87If primary and secondary root switches with priority 16384 both experience catastrophic losses, which tertiary switch can take over?
- Aa switch with priority 20480
- Ba switch with priority 8192
- Cswitch with priority 4096
- Da switch with priority 12288
88Which protocol supports sharing the VLAN configuration between two or more switches?
- Amulticast
- BSTP
- CVTP
- Dsplit-horizon
- EDTP
89How to enable VLANs automatically across multiple switches?
- AConfigure VLAN
- BConfiture NTP
- CConfigure each VLAN
- DConfigure VTP
90Which VTP mode can not make a change to vlan?
- AServer
- BClient
- CTransparent
- DOff
91A network administrator needs to configure port security on a switch. Which two statements are true? (Choose two)
- AThe network administrator can apply port security to dynamic access ports
- BThe network administrator can configure static secure or sticky secure mac addresses in the voice vlan.
- CThe sticky learning feature allows the addition of dynamically learned addresses to the running configuration.
- DThe network administrator can apply port security to EtherChannels.
- EWhen dynamic mac address learning is enabled on an interface, the switch can learn new addresses up to the maximum defined.
92Refer to the exhibit. While troubleshooting a switch, you executed the “show interface port-channel 1 etherchannel” command and it returned this output. Which information is provided by the Load value?
- Athe percentage of use of the link
- Bthe preference of the link
- Cthe session count of the link
- Dthe number source-destination pairs on the link
93What is the status of port-channel if LACP is misconfigured?
- AForwarding
- BEnabled
- CDisabled
- DErrdisabled
- EFaild
- FWasted
94Which technology can enable multiple VLANs to communicate with one another?
- Ainter-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch
- Binter-VLAN routing using a Layer 2 switch
- Cintra-VLAN routing using router on a stick
- Dintra-VLAN routing using a Layer 3 switch
Informationen
- Beschreibung
- Quiz am 3, erstellt von Tamás Juhász am 28/03/2019.
- Autor
- Tamás Juhász
- Sprache
- English
- Aufrufe
- 6
- Bewertung
- Noch keine Bewertungen Bewerte dieses Quiz