Quiz
7. Performance
Create a free account to finish this quiz
Save your progress and see your final score.
Already have an account? Sign in
Questions in this quiz (26)
151) For a turboprop powered aeroplane, a 2200 m long runway at the destination aerodrome is expected to be "wet". The "dry runway" landing distance, should not exceed:
- A1540 m.
- B1147 m.
- C1339 m.
- D1771 m.
265) An aeroplane executes a steady glide at the speed for minimum glide angle. If the forward speed is kept constant, what is the effect of a lower mass?
Rate of descent / Glide angle / CL/CD ratio- Adecreases / constant / decreases
- Bincreases / increases / constant
- Cincreases / constant / increases
- Dincreases / increases / decreases
366) Which of the following statements is correct?
- AInduced drag decreases with increasing speed.
- BInduced drag increases with increasing speed.
- CInduced drag is independant of the speed.
- DInduced drag decreases with increasing angle of attack.
467) A flight is planned with a turbojet aeroplane to an aerodrome with a landing distance available of 2400 m. Which of the following is the maximum landing distance for a dry runway?
- A1 440 m.
- B1 250 m.
- C1 090 m.
- D1 655 m.
568) How does the thrust of fixed propeller vary during take- off run ? The thrust
- Aincreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.
- Bvaries with mass changes only.
- Chas no change during take-off and climb.
- Ddecreases slightly while the aeroplane speed builds up.
669) Which of the following statements is correct?
- AVR is the speed at which, during rotation, the nose wheel comes off the runway.
- BVR is the speed at which the pilot should start to rotate the aeroplane.
- CVR should not be higher than V1.
- DVR should not be higher than 1.05 VMCG.
770) Field length is balanced when
- Aone engine acceleration from V1 to VLOF plus flare distance between VLOF and 35 feet are equal.
- Btake-off distance equals accelerate-stop distance.
- Ccalculated V2 is less than 110% VMCA and V1, VR, VMCG.
- Dall engine acceleration to V1 and braking distance for rejected take-off are equal.
872) Which of the following answers is true?
- AV1>VR
- BV1 < VMCG
- CV1<=VR
- DV1 > Vlof
9166) Which of the equations below expresses approximately the unaccelerated percentage climb gradient for small climb angles?
- AClimb Gradient = ((Thrust - Drag)/Weight) x 100
- BClimb Gradient = ((Thrust + Drag)/Lift) x 100
- CClimb Gradient = ((Thrust - Mass)/Lift) x 100
- DCimb Gradient = (Lift/Weight) x 100
1062) On a long distance flight the gross mass decreases continuously as a consequence of the fuel consumption. The result is:
- AThe speed must be increased to compensate the lower mass.
- BThe specific range increases and the optimum altitude decreases.
- CThe specific range decreases and the optimum altitude increases.
- DThe specific range and the optimum altitude increases.
1141) The Density Altitude
- Ais used to calculate the FL above the Transition Altitude.
- Bis used to determine the aeroplane performance.
- Cis equal to the pressure altitude.
- Dis used to establish minimum clearance of 2.000 feet over mountains.
1230) The climb gradient of an aircraft after take-off is 6% in standard atmosphere, no wind, at 0 ft pressure altitude. Using the following corrections:
"± 0,2 % / 1 000 ft field elevation"
"± 0,1 % / °C from standard temperature" " - 1 % with wing anti-ice"
" - 0,5% with engine anti-ice"
The climb gradient after take-off from an airport situated at 1 000 ft, 17° C; QNH 1013,25 hPa, with wing and engine anti-ice operating for a functional check is :- A3,9 %
- B4,3 %
- C4,7 %
- D4,9 %
1331) Which one of the following statements concerning drift- down is correct?
- AThe drift-down procedure requires a minimum descent angle after an engine failure at cruising altitude.
- BThe drift-down procedure requires a minimum obstacle clearance of 35 ft.
- CAn engine failure at high cruising altitude will always result in a drift-down, because it is not permitted to fly the same altitude with one engine inoperative as with all engines operating.
- DWhen determining the obstacle clearance during drift-down, fuel dumping may be taken into account.
1432) Two identical turbojet aeroplanes (whose specific fuel consumption is assumed to be constant) are in a holding pattern at the same altitude. The mass of the first one is 95 000 kg and its hourly fuel consumption is equal to 3100 kg/h. Since the mass of the second one is 105 000 kg, its hourly fuel consumption is:
- A3787 kg/h
- B3426 kg/h
- C3259 kg/h
- D3602 kg/h
1533) As long as an aeroplane is in a positive climb
- AVX is always below VY.
- BVX is sometimes below and sometimes above VY depending on altitude.
- CVX is always above VY.
- DVY is always above VMO.
1634) What is the advantage of balancing V1, even in the event of a climb limited take-off?
- AThe safety margin with respect to the runway length is greatest.
- BThe take-off distance required with one engine out at V1 is the shortest.
- CThe accelerate stop distance required is the shortest.
- DThe climb limited take-off mass is the highest.
1735) What happens to the drag of a jet aeroplane if, during the initial climb after take off, constant IAS is maintained?
(Assume a constant mass.)- AThe drag decreases.
- BThe drag increases initially and decreases thereafter.
- CThe drag remains almost constant.
- DThe drag increases considerably.
1836) The point where Drag coefficient/Lift coefficient is a minimum is
- Aat stalling speed (VS).
- Bon the "back side" of the drag curve.
- Cthe point where a tangent from the origin touches the drag curve.
- Dthe lowest point of the drag curve.
1937) The speed VR
- Amust be higher than VLOF.
- Bmust be equal to or lower than V1.
- Cis the speed at which rotation to the lift-off angle of attack is initiated.
- Dmust be higher than V2.
2038) At a given mass, the stalling speed of a twin engine aircraft is 100 kt in the landing configuration. The minimum speed a pilot must maintain in short final is:
- A130 kt
- B115 kt
- C125 kt
- D120 kt
2153) When the outside air temperature increases, then
- Athe field length limited take-off mass decreases but the climb limited take-off mass increases.
- Bthe field length limited take-off mass increases but the climb limited take-off mass decreases.
- Cthe field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass decreases.
- Dthe field length limited take-off mass and the climb limited take-off mass increases.
2240) For take-off obstacle clearance calculations, obstacles in the first segment may be avoided
- Aby banking not more than 15° between 50 ft and 400 ft above the runway elevation.
- Bby banking as much as needed if aeroplane is more than 50 ft above runway elevation.
- Conly by using standard turns.
- Dby standard turns - but only after passing 1500 ft.
2374) A jet aeroplane is climbing at constant Mach number below the tropopause. Which of the following statements is correct?
- AIAS decreases and TAS decreases.
- BIAS increases and TAS increases.
- CIAS decreases and TAS increases.
- DIAS increases and TAS decreases.
2442) Which of the following factors leads to the maximum flight time of a glide?
- AHigh mass.
- BLow mass.
- CHeadwind.
- DT ailwind.
2543) A constant headwind
- Aincreases the descent distance over ground.
- Bincreases the angle of the descent flight path.
- Cincreases the angle of descent.
- Dincreases the rate of descent.
2644) The second segment begins
- Awhen landing gear is fully retracted.
- Bwhen flap retraction begins.
- Cwhen flaps are selected up.
- Dwhen acceleration starts from V2 to the speed for flap retraction.
Information
- Description
- Tema 1 Performances Quiz on 7. Performance, created by Jose Antonio Vazquez on 08/11/2018.
- Author
- Jose Antonio Vazquez
- Language
- Español
- Views
- 565
- Tags
- Rating
- No ratings yet Rate this quiz