Quiz
Week 9- Skeletal & Muscular Systems
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Questions in this quiz (36)
1All of the following are true about somites except:
- AThey begin to develop in the 6th week
- BThey form the craniocaudal sequence for the embryo and are the origin of most of the axial skeleton and associated musculature
- CThey develop from the paraxial mesoderm as the neural tube is forming
- DThey differentiate into 2 parts, the sclerotome and dermomyotome
- EThey appear as bead-like elevations along the dorsolateral surface of the embryo
2Which of the following structures will eventually form vertebrae and ribs?
- ANotochord
- BSclerotome
- CDermomyotome
- DMeningotome
3Which answer best describes the kind of bones developed through intramembranous ossification?
- AFemurs and Humerus
- BRubs and Sternum
- CFlat bones of the Calvaria/Skullcap, Maxilla, Mandible
- DMalleus, Incus, Stapes, Hyoid
4All of the following are considered to be lethal birth defects except:
- AAnecephaly
- BBilateral renal agensis
- CPierre Robin sequence
- DThanatophoric dysplasia
5All of the following are true regarding Rickets except:
- AIt ca be due to vitamin D deficiency and hypophosphatemia
- BAffected individuals have short stature
- CAffected individuals have abnormal appearing bones/limbs aside from just short stature
- DAffected individuals rarely have other clinical manifestations
- EThere are both recessive and X-linked forms
6Which of the following ultrasound findings is not associated with renal agenesis?
- AContractures
- BBrachycephaly
- CAnyhdramnios/Oligohydramnios
- DAbsent blood flow to renal arteries
7Which type of joint is capable of secreting protective fluid to cushion the surrounding bones?
- AFibrous joint
- BCartilaginous joint
- CSynovial joint
8All of the following are part of the axial skeleton except:
- ACranium
- BVertebral column
- CRibs
- DClavicles
- ESternum
9In the 5th week the sclerotomes in the vertebral column have loosely arranged cells cranially and densely packed cells caudally. By the ___ week the vertebra are in the cartilaginous stage, arranging bone models and by the ___ week ossification beings. By ___ the bony halves are fused.
- A6th, 7th, 3-5 years of life
- B6th, 10th, the end of the 1st year of life
- C8th, 12th, birth
- D8th, 9th, 3-5 years of life
10All of the following birth defects can be features of Down syndrome except:
- ACongenital heart defects
- BPyelectasis
- CMacroglossia
- DSplayed cerebellum/banana sign
- ECongenital megacolon/Hirschsprung's
11Which structure(s) describe where the cranial sutures meet and enable the bones of the skull to undergo shape changes during birth?
- AFontanelles
- BCalvaria
- CFibrous neurocranium
- DHyaline cartilage
12The increase in the size of the skull bones is greatest during which period?
- AEmbryonic period
- BFetal period
- CBirth-2 years
- D3 to 5 years
13All of the following statements are true regarding sex determination except:
- AThe female phenotype requires 2 X chromosomes
- BThe male phenotype requires a functional Y chromosome
- COvarian and testicular development being around the same embryonic age
- DHormones are required for male sex determination but not for female sex determination
14Which of the following causes a long, wedge shaped cranium caused by early closer of the sagittal suture and is the most common type of idiopathic/isolated craniosynostosis?
- AScaphocephaly
- BBrachycephaly
- CPlagiocephaly
- DTrignocephaly
15The most common type of skeletal dysplasia is:
- ACamptomelic dysplasia
- BChondrodypslasia punctata
- CAchondroplasia
- DOsteogenesis imperfecta
16The myotome regions of the somites form _______ and the splanchnic mesoderm forms ______.
- ALimb muscles; head and neck muscles
- BSkeletal muscles; cardiac and smooth muscles
- CHead and neck muscles; skeletal muscles
- DCardiac and smooth muscles; limb muscles
17Which of the following is a risk factor for having a child with a skeletal dysplasia?
- AAdvanced maternal age
- BAdvanced paternal age
- CMaternal age <25 years old
- DUncontrolled type 2 diabetes
18The appearance and number of sites is used to determine embryonic age.
- ATrue
- BFalse
19Intramembranous ossification occurs within a membranous sheath without prior cartilage formation.
- ATrue
- BFalse
20Endochondral ossification occurs in preexisting bone models made from cartilage tissue.
- ATrue
- BFalse
21Both the diaphyses (center bones) and epiphyses (ends of bone) remain cartilaginous throughout childhood/adolescence until bone growth is completed.
- ATrue
- BFalse
22Prenatal detection methods can rarely detect forms of skeletal dysplasia.
- ATrue
- BFalse
23Hyaline cartilage is the most widely distributed throughout the body (ie joints).
- ATrue
- BFalse
24Joints develop from condensed mesenchyme and by 8 weeks resemble adult joints.
- ATrue
- BFalse
25Short long bones identified on ultrasound can be a marker for skeletal dysplasia as well as for Down syndrome.
- ATrue
- BFalse
26The FGFR3 gene is implicated in craniosynostosis syndromes but not skeletal dysplasias.
- ATrue
- BFalse
27Accessory ribs, absence and/or variation of muscles, and unilateral multicycstic dysplastic kidneys are early common findings and usually of no clinical significance.
- ATrue
- BFalse
28The micro deletion in DiGeorge/Velocardiofacial syndrome is [blank_start]22q11.2[blank_end]
- A22q11.2
29A potential cause of arthrogryoposis/joint contractors is [blank_start]CT anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]neuropathic disorders[blank_end]; [blank_start]anhydramnios[blank_end]
- ACT anomalies
- Bneuropathic disorders
- Canhydramnios
30Describe 3 clinical features of CHARGE syndrome: [blank_start]coloboma[blank_end]; [blank_start]heart disease[blank_end]; [blank_start]atresia choanae[blank_end]; [blank_start]restricted growth[blank_end]; [blank_start]genital anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]ear anomalies[blank_end]
- Acoloboma
- Bheart disease
- Catresia choanae
- Drestricted growth
- Egenital anomalies
- Fear anomalies
31Describe 3 clinical features of VACTERL association: [blank_start]vertebral anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]anal atresia[blank_end]; [blank_start]cardiovascular anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]tracheoesophageal fistula[blank_end]; [blank_start]esophageal atresia[blank_end]; [blank_start]renal anomalies[blank_end]; [blank_start]limb defects[blank_end]
- Alimb defects
- Brenal anomalies
- Cesophageal atresia
- Dtracheoesophageal fistula
- Ecardiovascular anomalies
- Fanal atresia
- Gvertebral anomalies
32[blank_start]Poland sequence[blank_end] is a condition characterized by absence of the pectorals major muscle that results in hypo plastic fused ribs, unilateral absence of breast nipple, areola, hemivertebrae, syndactyly, brachydactylyl, and in some cases dextrocardia.
- APoland sequence
33The most common cytogenetic abnormality observed in spontaneously aborted fetuses is [blank_start]45,X[blank_end].
- A45,X
34A physiological omphalocele should be resolved by the [blank_start]10[blank_end]th week of gestation.
- A10
35A MSAFP value above [blank_start]2.50[blank_end] MoM will result in a prenatal screening test that indicates an increased risk for neural tube/abdominal wall defects.
- A2.50
36A nuchal translucency (NT) measurement greater than [blank_start]3[blank_end] mm will result in a prenatal screening test that indicates a greater than 20% chance for an underlying chromosome abnormality.
- A3
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- Description
- Genetic Counseling Quiz on Week 9- Skeletal & Muscular Systems, created by Bailey Sanderson on 03/12/2018.
- Author
- Bailey Sanderson
- Language
- English
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- History
- Created on 3 Dec 2018 · updated on 3 Dec 2018
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