Quiz
Semester 1 NMS Quiz
Questions in this quiz (57)
1In most cases in the sympathetic nervous system, Acetylcholine is the pre-ganglionic neurotransmitter and Noradrenaline is the post-ganglionic neurotransmitter.
- ATrue
- BFalse
2Pre-ganglionic neurones are longer in the sympathetic nervous system when compared to the parasympathetic nervous system.
- ATrue
- BFalse
3What unique features does the sympathetic nervous system contain that is absent in the parasympathetic nervous system?
- ASympathetic chain
- BUnmyelinated neurones
- CPlexuses
4The motor components of the somatic nervous system contain pre and post ganglionic components after exit from the spinal cord.
- ATrue
- BFalse
5Acetylcholine causes the adrenal medulla to secrete what substance? What is this type of interaction known as?
- AAdrenaline
- BVIP
- CNitric Oxide
- DNeuro-endocrine interface
- EEndocrine interface
- FAutonomic interface
6What is the main neurotransmitter at post-ganglionic sympathetic fibres?
- AGlutamate
- BNoradrenaline
- CAcetylcholine
- DVIP
7Anticholinesterases are useful in treating myasthenia gravis. Why?
- AThey prolong the time that acetylcholine is present in the synaptic cleft and increases its number, thereby allowing acetylcholine to outcompete with antibodies for the binding site and allow normal contractions to occur, relieving the symptoms of M.G.
- BThey prolong the time that noradrenaline is present in the synaptic cleft and increases its number, thereby allowing noradrenaline to outcompete with antibodies for the binding site and allow normal contractions to occur, relieving the symptoms of M.G.
- CThey decrease the time that acetylcholine is present in the synaptic cleft and increases its number, thereby allowing acetylcholine to outcompete with antibodies for the binding site and allow normal contractions to occur, relieving the symptoms of M.G.
8Which are examples of non-depolarising blockers?
- ATubocurarine
- BPancuronium
- CSuxamethonium
- DHexamethonium
9What is an example of a depolarising neuromuscular blocker?
- ASuxamethonium
- BTubocurarine
- CPancuronium
- DHexamethonium
10What is an example of a non-competitive antagonist of nicotinic receptors?
- AHexamethonium
- BSuxamethonium
- CTubocurarine
- DPancuronium
11What is an example of a muscarinic receptor antagonist?
- AAtropine
- BTropicamide
- CAcetylcholine
- DPilocarpine
12The myenteric plexus is located between which two layers of the GI tract?
- ACircular muscle
- BLongitudinal muscle
- CSubmucosa
- DMucosa
13The submucosal plexus is located between which two layers?
- ASubmucosa
- BCircular muscle
- CLongitudinal muscle
- DMucosa
14The myenteric plexus is present throughout the GI tract
- ATrue
- BFalse
15In general, the submucosal plexus controls muscular activity.
- ATrue
- BFalse
16What is the mechanism of action of botulinum toxin?
- AProteases cleave the SNARE complex that mediates exocytosis of neurotransmitter
- BCompetitive antagonist at the nicotinic acetylcholine receptors
- CNon-competitive antagonist at the nicotonic acetylcholine receptor
- DDepolarising blocker of the neuromuscular junction
17Anticholinesterases exhibit suxamethonium-like properties when used in excess.
- ATrue
- BFalse
18Why does calcium aid in synaptic transmission?
- ACalcium causes a conformational change in synaptotagmin which causes acetylcholine to fuse with the presynaptic membrane.
- BCalcium causes a conformational change in ryanodine which causes acetylcholine to fuse with the presynaptic membrane.
19If the end plate potential in a muscle cell exceeds threshold, what happens?
- AMuscle contraction
- BAction potential produced
- CRelease of acetylcholine by exocytosis
20When an action potential travels along a T-tubule to a muscle triad, what series of events occur?
- AAction potential causes conformational shape change of the DHP receptor. This receptor then causes unplugging of ryanodine from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes mass efflux of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and subsequent triggering of contraction.
- BAction potential causes conformational shape change of the DHP receptor. This receptor then causes mass efflux of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and subsequent triggering of contraction.
- CAction potential causes conformational shape change of the DNP receptor. This receptor then causes unplugging of synaptotagmin from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes mass efflux of calcium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and subsequent triggering of contraction.
- DAction potential causes conformational shape change of the DHP receptor. This receptor then causes unplugging of ryanodine from the sarcoplasmic reticulum. This causes mass efflux of sodium ions from the sarcoplasmic reticulum and subsequent triggering of contraction.
21What regulatory proteins does actin have associated with it?
- ATropomyosin
- BTroponin
- CTropocollagen
- DTropoelastin
22What is the role of calcium in muscle fibres?
- ATo bind to troponin, causing a conformational change which exposes myosin head binding sites.
- BTo bind to tropomyosin, causing a conformational change which exposes myosin head binding sites.
- CTo bind to tropomyosin, causing a conformational change which exposes actin head binding sites.
- DTo bind to troponin, causing a conformational change which exposes actin head binding sites.
23Which is longer, the action potential or muscle contraction?
- AAction potential
- BMuscle contraction
24What are the 3 energy systems of muscle contraction?
- APhosphocreatine
- BLactic acid
- COxidative phosphorylation
- DSubstrate level phosphorylation
- EHyaluronic acid
- FGlucuronic acid
25Muscle contraction occurs in which order?
- ACross-bridge attachment -> Power stroke, hydrolysing ATP via the ATPase capacity of the myosin head -> binding of ATP which breaks cross-bridge attachment -> hydrolysis of ATP which recocks the myosin head to its original position -> repeat
- BCross-bridge attachment -> Power stroke, hydrolysing GTP via the GTPase capacity of the myosin head -> binding of GTP which breaks cross-bridge attachment -> hydrolysis of GTP which recocks the myosin head to its original position -> repeat
- CCross-bridge detachment-> Power stroke, hydrolysing ATP via the ATPase capacity of the myosin head -> binding of ATP which causes cross-bridge attachment -> hydrolysis of ATP which recocks the myosin head to its original position -> repeat
26Do slow twitch fibres or fast twitch fibres produce greater force?
- ASlow twitch
- BFast twitch
27Which type of muscle fibre generally fatigues quicker?
- AFast twitch
- BSlow twitch
28The spinal cord exists from?
- AC1 -> L2
- BC1 -> L1
- CC1 -> T10
- DC1 -> S3
29How many spinal nerves are there, and how many are there for each section of the spinal cord?
- A31 - 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal pair
- B31 - 6 cervical, 12 thoracic, 6 lumbar, 6 sacral, 1 coccygeal pair
- C30 - 7 cervical, 14 thoracic, 3 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal pair
- D27 - 8 cervical, 12 thoracic, 5 lumbar, 5 sacral, 1 coccygeal pair
30Why do the first 7 cervical nerves begin above the cervical vertebrae but the thoracic spinal nerves begin below the thoracic sections of the spinal cord?
- AThere are 8 cervical spinal nerves but only 7 cervical vertebrae therefore the thoracic spinal nerves are 'displaced' and run below each thoracic vertebrae piece.
- BThere are 6 cervical spinal nerves and 7 cervical vertebrae so the thoracic spinal nerves are 'displaced' and run below each thoracic vertebrae piece.
31The meninges of the nervous system run in what order from inside to outside?
- APAD
- BDAP
- CPDA
- DDPA
32What is a dermatome?
- AAn area of skin with single spinal nerve innervation
- BAn area of skin with dual spinal nerve innervation
- CAn area of muscle with single spinal nerve innervation
- DAn area of muscle with dual spinal nerve innervation
33What is a myotome?
- AAn area of muscle with single spinal nerve innervation
- BAn area of muscle with dual spinal nerve innervation
- CAn area of skin with single spinal nerve innervation
- DAn area of skin with dual spinal nerve innervation
34Conditions such as shingles do not show the usefulness of dermatomes.
- ATrue
- BFalse
35Sulci are the depressions in the brain structure.
- ATrue
- BFalse
36Gyri are the ridges in the brain.
- ATrue
- BFalse
37Upper motor neurones are found where?
- ABrain
- BSpinal cord
38In the context of motor units, a graded force describes what?
- AThe amount of motor unit recruitment needed. If it is a large force then fast-twitch elements are recruited. If it is a small force then slow-twitch elements are recruited.
- BThe amount of motor unit recruitment needed. If it is a small force then fast-twitch elements are recruited. If it is a large force then slow-twitch elements are recruited.
39Recruitment of motor units describes what?
- AThe number of motor units firing, specifically an increase.
- BThe frequency of motor units firing, specifically an increase.
- CThe number of motor units firing, specifically a decrease.
- DThe frequency of motor units firing, specifically a decrease.
40Rate coding describes what?
- AThe frequency of motor units firing, specifically an increase.
- BThe number of motor units firing, specifically an increase.
- CThe frequency of motor units firing, specifically a decrease.
- DThe number of motor units firing, specifically a decrease.
41Contractile force is proportional to what?
- ACross-bridge number
- BForce produced by cross-bridges
- CVelocity produced by cross-bridges
- DNumber of ATP molecules
- EForce produced by Troponin conformation change
- FForce produced by Tropomyosin conformation change
42Slow-twitch fibres produce less force but over a longer period of time. Fast-twitch fibres produce more force but over a shorter period of time.
- ATrue
- BFalse
43Neurogenic and Myopathic motor unit diseases have what common symptoms?
- AWeakness
- BWasting
- CMuscle mass increase
- DAbsence of fasciculations
44ALS affects what part of the motor neuron?
- ACell body
- BAxon
45Peripheral neuropathies typically affect which part of the motor neuron?
- ACell body
- BAxon
46What is responsible for DMD?
- AA fault in dystrophin - a vital part of a protein complex that anchors the cytoskeleton of a muscle fibre to the ECM through the cell membrane
- BA fault in collagen - a vital part of a protein complex that anchors the cytoskeleton of a muscle fibre to the ECM through the cell membrane
- CA fault in elastin - a vital part of a protein complex that anchors the cytoskeleton of a muscle fibre to the ECM through the cell membrane
47What plasma indicator shows signs of DMD muscle damage?
- AHigh creatine kinase levels in the serum - should be only intracellular.
- BLow creatine kinase levels in the serum - should be only intravascular.
- CHigh plasma protein binding
- DLow plasma protein binding
48Dermatomyositis is a condition characterised by what?
- AInflammation and visible rashes, with atrophy of muscle fibres.
- BInflammation and visible rashes, with hypertrophy of muscle fibres.
49Efficacy of a drug means?
- AThe ability of a drug to produce a response
- BThe likelihood of a drug binding to a receptor
- CThe mechanism by which the drug acts
- DThe permeability of the drug to the plasma membrane
50What is meant by an inverse agonist?
- AA drug that decreases activity of the agonist and produces the opposite response to the agonist.
- BA drug that produces the same response as the agonist but with higher efficacy.
51What is meant by allosteric inhibition? What is an example and it's subsequent mechanism?
- ABinding of a drug to a site other than the agonist binding site.
- BBinding of a drug to the same site as the agonist binding site.
- CBenzodiazepam - binds to an alternative site on GABA receptors. This causes a conformational change and creates higher affinity for GABA to bind to the receptor. This therefore increases the inhibitory effect that GABA provides, making users feel drowsy.
- DBenzodiazepam - binds to an alternative site on GABA receptors. This causes a conformational change and creates lower affinity for GABA to bind to the receptor. This therefore decreases the inhibitory effect that GABA provides, making users feel more alert.
52The body can become desensitised to drugs. For example intake of tobacco which contains nicotine can cause inactivation of nAchR in very high doses.
- ATrue
- BFalse
53RMP is primarily maintained at -65mV to -70mV by?
- AThe permeability of the membrane to potassium ions
- BNa+/K+ ATPase
- CThe permeability of the membrane to sodium ions
- DNone of the options
54An action potential can be initiated in the absolute refractory period.
- ATrue
- BFalse
55An action potential can be initiated in the relative refractory period.
- ATrue
- BFalse
56Myelinated axons conduct action potentials faster.
- ATrue
- BFalse
57The 'feet' of motor proteins possess what property that allows them to 'walk' along the cytoskeleton?
- AATPase activity
- BGTPase activity
- CATP supply
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