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Flashcards

WrongATP

Dan Anderson English 200 cards

Cards in this deck (200)

  1. 1What period of time must a person be hospitalized before an injury may be defined by the NTSB as a serious injury?48 hours; commencing within 7 days
  2. 2Which constitutes substantial damage, according to NTSB 830?Failure of a component which would adversely affect the performance, and which would require replacement. Doesn’t include damage to wingtips or rotor blades strangely.
  3. 3Within what time period should the nearest NTSB field office be notified when an aircraft is involved in an accident which results in substantial damage?Immediately
  4. 4The area beyond the end of a runway which does not contain obstructions and can be considered when calculating takeoff performance of turbine-powered aircraft.Clear way -it’s not less than 500 feet and is the start of the 1.25% Clearway plane where no obstacle May protrude exceed threshold lights
  5. 5V sub2Takeoff safety speed -one engine inoperative climb
  6. 6Maximum operating limit V speedVmo/Mmo -AKA Maximum operating limit speed or Mach Number. It’s like VNE but for a jet
  7. 7Maximum speed during takeoff that the pilot May abort the takeoff and stop the airplane within the accelerate-stop distanceVsub1
  8. 8You are on a takeoff roll in a 14 CFR Part 25 certificated-jet and see an engine fire warning light as you see Vsub1 pass. You know you will now need more than the calculated distance to stop, so youContinue the takeoff as briefed and handle the fire as a flight emergency.
  9. 9A category II ILS pilot authorization, when originally issued, is normally limited toCategory II operations not less than 1600 RVR & 150-Foot DH
  10. 10When May category II limitations be removed?When three category II ILS approaches have been completed to a 150-foot DH & landing
  11. 11When a facsimile replaces received for an airman medical certificate, for what maximum time is the document valid?60 days
  12. 12When a type rating is to be added to an ATP Certificate, and the practical test is scheduled in an approved flight simulator and an aircraft, the applicant isRequired to have at least a current third class medical certificate
  13. 13Within the past 6 months, a pilot has accomplished: 2 approaches in helicopter 2 approaches In airplane 2 approaches in gliderFour approaches in an aircraft, approved training device, flight simulator (that is representative of the aircraft category), holding, intercepting and tracking courses using navigation systems
  14. 14What recent experience is required to be eligible for the practical test for the original issuance of a category II authorizationWithin previous 6 months six ILS approaches, 3 of which may be flown to category I DH by use of approach coupler
  15. 15A person who applies for the knowledge test for ATP with airplane category multi engine class rating mustPresent a graduation certificate from an authorized training provider
  16. 16For airport/standby reserve, all time spent in the airport/standby reserve time isPart of the flight crew member’s flight duty period
  17. 17Window of circadian low means a period of maximum sleepiness that occurs between0100-0500
  18. 18Flight crew members must receive fatigue education and awareness trainingAnnually for flight crew member schedulers, operational control individuals, flight crew members and dispatchers
  19. 19Limiting flight time for all crew members will includeAny flying by flight crew members for any certificate holder or 91K program manager- does not include instruction
  20. 20Flight time hours for flight crew members are limited to100 in 672 consecutive
  21. 21To be considered acclimated in a new theater of operations, a required flight crew member must have ____ hours of rest36 I’m
  22. 22RVR 40 expressed in SM?3/4 SM
  23. 23RVR 32 expressed in SM?5/8 SM
  24. 24RVR 16 expressed in SM?1/4 SM
  25. 25When is an inner marker really necessary?Category II & III
  26. 26Substitutions for outer marker?1. Compass locator
    2. PAR
    3. ASR
    4. DME, VOR or other fixes authorized in SIAP
  27. 27What is the maximum permissible variation between the two bearing indicators on a dual VOR system when checking on VOR against the other?4 degrees on the ground & in flight
  28. 28The prescribed visibility criteria of RVR 32 for the runway of intended operation is not reported.5/8 SM
  29. 29Before requesting RVSM clearance, each personShall correctly annotate the flight plan
  30. 30Which operational requirements must be observed when ferrying a large, turbine engine powered airplane when one of its engines is inoperative?The WX conditions at takeoff and landing must be VFR,not en route
  31. 31When a turbine engine powered airplane is to be ferried to another base of repair of an inoperable engine, which operational requirement must be observed?Only required flight crew members may be aboard
  32. 32Which operational requirement must be observed by a commercial operator when ferrying a large three engine jet powered airplane from one facility to another to repair an inoperative engine?No passengers may be carried
  33. 33When a pilot plans a flight using GPS NAVAIDs which rule applies?The airplane must have sufficient fuel to proceed, by means of one other independent navigation system, to a suitable airport and complete an instrument approach by use of the remaining airplane radio system. Not 150% winds.
  34. 34When must an air carrier airplane be DME OR suitable RNAV system equipped?Whenever VOR equipment is required
  35. 35While on an IFR flight in controlled airspace the failure of which unit will precipitate an immediate notification to ATC?DME, Not airborne radar or even the fact of an engine out in multi engine (which does trigger a notification to nearest “appropriate ground station, as spelled out in OPSPEC.
  36. 36Before an ETOPS flight my commence, an ETOPSPre-departure service check must be certified by a PDSC Signatory person
  37. 37If a flight engineer becomes incapacitated, who may perform the flight engineer’s duties?Any flight crew member, if qualified
  38. 38An air carrier airplane’s airborne radar must be in satisfactory operating coondition prior to dispatch if the flight will beConducted under VFR conditions at night with scattered thunderstorms reported en route
  39. 39If an air carrier airplanes’s airborne radar is inoperative and thunderstorms are forecast along the route an airplane may be dispatched onlyIn day VFR conditions
  40. 40An airplane operated by a flag carrier operator flying over uninhabited terrain must carry which survival equipment?Suitable pyrotechnic signaling devices & an approved survival type ELT
  41. 41A flight navigator or a specialized means of navigation is required aboard an air carrier airplane operated outside the contiguous 48 states& DC whenThe airplane’s position cannot be reliably fixed for a period of more than one hour
  42. 42An airplane has seats for 149 passengers and eight crew members. What is the minimum number of flight attendants required with 97 passengers aboard?Three. It’s based upon the seating capacity, not actual numbers of pax. 51-100 pax triggers this because it’s one attendant for every 50 seats
  43. 43When a flight engineer is a required crew member, it is necessary forAt least one other flight crew member to be qualified to perform flight engineer duties, but a certificate is not required
  44. 44The required flight crew member functions that are to be performed in the event of an emergency shall be assigned by theCertificate holder
  45. 45The training required by flight crew members who have not qualified and served in same capacity on another airplane of the same group isInitial training
  46. 46How often must a crew member actually operate the airplane emergency equipment, after initial training?Once every 24 calendar months
  47. 47An example of air carrier experience aa pilot may use towards the 1000 hours required to serve as SIC?In part121 operations
  48. 48What is one of the requirements that must be met by an airline pilot tore-establish recency of experience?At least one full stop landing must be made.
  49. 49A pilot flight crew member, other than PIC, must have received an IPC or Line-Oriented simulator training within preceding24 calendar months (but 6 months if referring to PIC)
  50. 50A flag carrier may schedule a pilot to fly in an airplane, having two pilots and one additional flight crew member for no more than ______ hours during any 24 consecutive hours12
  51. 51The maximum number of hours that a supplemental air carrier pilot may fly, as a crew member, in a commercial operation, in any consecutive 30 days is100 hours
  52. 52A supplemental air carrier ma schedule a pilot, on a three pilot crew, for flight deck duty during any 24-hour consecutive periofor not more than8 hours
  53. 53Each crew member shall have readily available for individual use on each flight aFlashlight in good working order
  54. 54Who is required to submit a written report on a deviation that occurs during an emergency?Person who declares the emergency
  55. 55When PIC is responsible for a deviation during an emergency, the pilot should submit a written report within10 days after returning to home base
  56. 56An aircraft dispatcher declares an emergency for a flight and a deviation results. A written report shall be sent through the air carrier’s operations manager by thePIC to the FAA administrator within 10 days of the event.
  57. 57What action shall the PIC take if it becomes necessary to shut down one of the two engines in an air carrier airplane?Land at the nearest suitable airport in point of time at which a safe landing can be made.
  58. 58If an intoxicated person creates a disturbance aboard an air carrier aircraft, the certificate holder must submit a report, concerning the incident, to the administer within5 days
  59. 59Where can the pilot of a flag air carrier airplane find the latest FDC NOTAMS?Any company dispatch facility
  60. 60The reserve fuel supply for a domestic air carrier flight is45 minutes at normal fuel consumption in addition to the fuel required to fly to and land at the most distant alternate airport
  61. 61Upon arrival at the most distant airport, what is the fuel reserve requirement for a turboprop flag air carrier airplane?30 minutes plus 15 % of the total time required, or 90 minutes at Normal cruising speed, whichever is less
  62. 62The fuel reserve required, for a turboprop supplemental air carrier airplane upon the arrival at the destination airport for which an alternate airport is not specified, is3 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption
  63. 63The minimum amount (planned) of fuel to be aboard a flag air carrier turbojet airplane on a flight within the 48 contiguous United States, after reaching the most distant alternate airport, should be45 minutes at normal cruising fuel consumption
  64. 64An alternate airport is not required for a supplemental or commercial air carrier, turbojet powered airplane on an IFR flight outside the 48 contiguous United States, if enough fuel,Is aboard the airplane to fly to the destination and then to fly for at least 2 hours at normal cruising fuel consumption
  65. 65The fuel reserve required for a turbine engine (other than turboprop ) supplennair carrier airplane upon arrival over the most distant alternate airport outside the contiguous 48 is30 minutes at holding speed, at 1500 feet over the airport
  66. 66A turbine engine powered flag air carrier airplane is released to an airport which has no available alternate. What is the required fuel reserve?2 hours at normal cruise fuel consumption
  67. 67Category II ILS operations below 1600 RVR & and a 150-foot DH may be approved after the PIC hasLogged 100 hours make/model flight time under 14 CFR Part 121 and 3 category ILS approaches in actual or simulated IFR Conditions with 150-foot DH since the beginning of the sixth preceding month
  68. 68Which contains crew names, a flight release or a dispatch release?A flight release
  69. 69Which does a supplemental air carrier use a Flight release or a dispatch release?A flight release
  70. 70Which does a flag air carrier use, a flight release or dispatch release?A dispatch release, and henc3 do not provide crew names
  71. 71Which do domestic air carriers use, a flight release or a dispatch release?A dispatch release and therefore don’t provide crew names
  72. 72Definition of supplementary air carrierSupplemental Operations are usually a for-hire operation that doesn't fall under the normal operations of the 121 carrier and are generally unscheduled operations. This would include a passenger charter of an airliner.
  73. 73The certificates air carrier operators who must attach to, or include on, the flight release form the name of each flight crew member, flight attendants and designated PIC areSupplemental and commercial
  74. 74What information must the PIC of a supplementary air carrier or commercial operator carry to the destination?Copy of the flight plan
  75. 75Who is responsible for keeping copies of the certificate holders manual up to date with approved changes or additions?Each of the certificate holder’s employees who are furnished the manual
  76. 76Not a required item on the load manifestList of passenger names and weights but crew members and positions are listed
  77. 77Procedures for keeping copies of the aircraft maintenance log in the aircraft and available to appropriate personnel is shall be set forth inThe certificate holders manual
  78. 78Which restriction must be observed regarding the carrying of cargo in the passenger compartment?It is packaged or covered to avoid possible injury to occupants
  79. 79A requirement for pilot use of oxygen in a pressurized airplane?The pilot at the controls shall use oxygen continuously any time the cabin pressure altitude is more than 12000 feet
  80. 80Above which altitude/flight level must at least one of the two pilots, at the controls of a pressurized aircraft (with quick donning masks) wear a secured and sealed oxygen mask?FL 350
  81. 81If a certificate holder deviates from the provisions of regulations which pertain to medical use of oxygen by passengers, a complete report of the incident shall be sent to the FAA within10 working days
  82. 82Which is a requirement regarding the carriage and operation of oxygen equipment for medical use ba.by passengers?No person may smoke within 10 feet of oxygen storage and dispensing equipment
  83. 83What aircraft operating under 14 CFR Part 135 are required to have a third gyroscope bank and pitch indicator installed?All airplanes that are turbojet powered
  84. 84An approved CVR is required equipment in?Multi-engine, turbine powered airplanes having a pax seating configuration of 20 or more seats
  85. 85No person may operate an aircraft under 14 CFR Part 135, carrying pax under VFR at night, unlessIt is equipped with a flashlight having at least two Dcells or equivalent
  86. 86In addition to fully equipped life rafts and life preservers, what emergency equipment must be provided during extended over water operations?Each aircraft must have at least one life raft, equipped with a survival type emergency locator transmitter
  87. 87In which aircraft, or under what conditions, is airborne thunderstorm detection equipment required?Small aircraft having a pax seating configuration of ten seats or more, excluding any pilot seat, that are engaged in pax carrying ops
  88. 88FARs require that interior emergency lights on aircraft having a pax seating configuration of 20 toBe operable manually from the flight crew station and a point in the pax compartment
  89. 89What performance is required of a multi-engine airplane with the critical engine inoperable, while carrying pax for hire in IMC?Climb at least 50 FPM at the MEAs of route to be flown, or 5000 feet, whichever is higher.
  90. 90The weight and CG of an aircraft used in 135ops must have been calculated from those values established by actual weighing of the aircraft within what period of timeMulti-engine aircraft, preceding 36 colander moths
  91. 91No person may take off in aircraft under IFRfrom an airport that has takeoff wx minimums but that is below landing minimums unless there is an alternate airport within1 hour at Normal cruise speed in still air from the departure airport. The scenario requiring continuing one one engine in still air is a 121 requirement only
  92. 92A takeoff ma6 not be made from an airport that is below the authorized IFR landing minimums unlessThere is an alternate airport with the required IFR landing minimums within 60 minutes flying time at normal cruising speed in still air
  93. 93An alternate for a destination airport (circling not authorized) is not required if, , for at least one hour before and after the ETA, the required visibility exists, and the forecast ceiling is at least1500 feet above the lowest published minimum, or 2000 feet above the airport elevation, whichever is higher.
  94. 94After passing the FAF on a VOR approach, a WX report is received indicating the visibility is below prescribed minimums. In this situation the pilotMay continue the approach and land, if at the MDA, the actual WX conditions are at least equal to the minimums prescribed in the procedure
  95. 95Which is one required condition for a pilot take off under IFR with less than standard takeoff minimums at an airport where a straight in instrument approach procedure is authorized and there is an approved WX reporting sourceWind direction and velocity must be such that a straight in approach can be made to the runway served by the procedure.
  96. 96Runway factor for reciprocating engine powered large transport category airplanes?.70
  97. 97Runway factor turboprop.7
  98. 98A 30 degree bank will increase the induced drag by33%
  99. 99A 45 degree bank will increase the induced drag by100%
  100. 100A 60 degree bank will increase the induced drag by300%
  101. 101Biggest difference between inboard ailerons and outboard?Inboard are used fast or slow whereabouts outboard are only slow
  102. 102Purpose of a control tabMove the flight controls in the event of manual reversion. This is an emergency feature for lost hydraulics
  103. 103Which direction from the primary control surface does an elevator adjustable trim tab move when the control surface is movedRemains fixed fall positions relative to the primary control surface.
  104. 104What is the purpose of the servo tabReduce control forces by deflecting in the proper direction to move the primary flight control
  105. 105Which direction from the primary control surface does a servo tab move?Opposite direction
  106. 106Which direction from the primary control surface Does an anti-servo tab move?Same direction, preventing from moving to full deflection
  107. 107Which is a purpose of leading edge slatson high performance wingsDirect air from the high pressure area under the leading edge along the top of the wing resulting in improved stall characteristics at low speeds
  108. 108One method of boundary layer control is accomplished by injectingA high speed jet of air into the boundary layer. It’s an additional means of increasing the maximum lift coefficient of a section of the airfoil. Doing so when operating at high angles of attack can delay the onset of a stall.
  109. 109When at a high angle of attack the boundary layer tends toStagnate and stop. The airflow will separate from the surface and a stall occurs.
  110. 110How can an airplane produce the same lift in ground effect as when out of ground effect?A lower angle of attack The reduction of wingtip vertices due to ground effect alters the span wise lift distribution
  111. 111Propellar driven airplanes can develop my lift at slower airspeeds with higher power on becauseThe dynamic pressure is created downstream of the propellaes
  112. 112How do you solve increase of induced drag with given bank angle?1. Cos (bank angle)
    2. 1 divided by that ratio
    3. That quotient squared
  113. 113What affects indicated stall speed?Weight, load factor and power. It's affected by an airplane's total weight, weight distribution within the airplane, angle of bank, pitch attitude, control coordination, drag, and power settings, BUT NOT BY ANGLE OF ATTACK OR AIR DENSITY.
  114. 114Two things which never affect indicated stall speed?1. Angle of Attack
    2. Air Density
  115. 115Which is a purpose of wing-mounted vortex generators?Delays the onset of drag divergence at high speeds and aids in maintaining aileron effectiveness at high speeds
  116. 116How can turbulent air cause an increase in stalling speed of an airfoil?An abrupt change of relative wind. So much so that it can cause a stall at significantly higher speeds than in stable conditions. Sudden relative wind changes can result in increase of AOA, precipitating a stall although the cause is more likely pilot attempts for control than the quick sheer gust.
  117. 117Airflow separation over the wing can be delayed by using vortex generators (VGs) -how?Directing high pressure air over the wing or flap through slots and making the wing surface smooth. VGs make the wing surface rough, creating a turbulent flow that increases the speed of the air.
  118. 118What must an airplane stall warning device sense?Relative wind. Stalls occur at the critical angle of attack (AOA). AOA is the angle between wing cord line and the relative wind, so we have to know where it is.
  119. 119An aircraft in a steady state, constant altitude turn -does it affect stall speeds?Yes. It experiences higher stall speeds. It's higher in a level turn than it is in straight and level flight due to the higher AOAs required to maintain level flight while in the turn. A portion of the vertical component has been robbed or redirected to the horizontal.
  120. 120How does the stall speed (KCAS) vary as you climb from sea level to 33,000 feet?It remains relatively unchanged throughout the climb.
  121. 121Two things that remain relatively unchanged as you climb from sea level to 33,000 feet.Stall speed and IAS. Despite the fact that air is increasingly less dense as you climb. You do go faster at altitude so even though the air striking the wing or entering the pitot is thinner, it's going faster and the change is negligible.
  122. 122What is load factor?Lift divided by total weight or the ratio of the total airload acting on the airplane to the gross weight of the airplane. Lift is divided, not multiplied or subtracted from, the total weight.
  123. 123The type stability if the aircraft attitude remains in the new position after the controls have been neutralizedNeutral longitudinal static stability.
  124. 124The type of stability if the aircraft attitude tends to move farther from its original position after the controls have been neutralizedNegative static stability
  125. 125The type of stability if the aircraft attitude tends to return to its original position after the controls have been neutralizedPositive static stability
  126. 126The engine's thrust line above the center of gravityproduces a stabilizing affect
  127. 127The engine's thrustline below the CGhas a destabilizing affect
  128. 128Definition of pitch attitudethe angle formed between the airplane's longitudinal axis, which extends from the nose, to the tail of the airplane, and the natural horizon.
  129. 129Definition of angle of attackangle formed between the wing cord line and the relative wind.
  130. 130What affects indicated stall speed? (Hint: "Will Look For Waldo At Bank PA CC'D Principal Skinner")Load Factor
    Weight distribution
    Angle of Bank
    Pitch Attitude
    Control Coordination
    Drag
    Power Settings
  131. 131Two things which never affect indicated stall speed?1. Angle of Attack
    2. Air Density
  132. 132One typical takeoff errorpremature rotation which may increase takeoff distance. One of the options was Delayed rotation which may extend the climb distance -incorrect because it increases takeoff speed.
  133. 1331 NM in feet6076.1
  134. 134To determine NM to distance in feet on runway problemsAvg SPD knots X 6076.1 divided by 3600 seconds per hour X number of seconds equals distance in feet
  135. 135Excessive takeoff speeds result in ___ % takeoff distance increase for each ___% additional takeoff speed.Excessive takeoff speeds result in 2% takeoff distance increase for each 1% additional takeoff speed.
  136. 136When is aerodynamic braking ineffective?At speeds less than 60 - 70% of touchdown speed
  137. 137For airplanes with relatively low thrust to weight ratios, a10% increase in takeoff gross weight results in a takeoff distance increase of approximately25-30%
  138. 138Which maximum range factor decreases as weight decreases?Airspeed. Max range is at L/D max . But as weight decreases in fuel burn, so does this optimum airspeed due to a reduction in the maximum L/D. Even for a jet, airspeed must be reduced as weight decreases to get max range.
  139. 139What must a pilot do to maintain best range preference a tailwind is encountered?Decrease speed to take advantage of the wind.
  140. 140To minimize fuel consumption with a headwindIncrease speed
  141. 141The most efficient cruise control in a turbojet isClimbing cruise
  142. 142What are the reasons for variations in geometric pitch along a Propellar?It permits a relatively constant AOA along its length when in cruising flight. It’s not about hub or root stalling, not about angle of incidence.
  143. 143What effect does high relative humidity have upon max power output of modern aircraft engines?Reciprocating engines will experience a significant loss of BHP. Turbojets have a negligible loss.
  144. 144What performance should a pilot of a light, twin engine airplane be able to maintain at VMC?Heading. VMC represents MCA with a critical engine inoperative. Standard is you must at least be able to stop the turn within 20 degrees using max rudder and max bank of 5 degrees into operative engine. VMC doesn’t mean must be able to climb or maintain, only hold course.
  145. 145What effect if any does altitude have on VMC for an airplane with I supercharged engines?Decreases with altitude. For a
  146. 146Which engine is the "critical" enginie of a twin engine airplane?The engine whose failure has the most adverse effect on directional control (left). Clockwise rotation as seen from pilot's seat so if left fails the P factor of remaining right on it's right side has a longer moment arm from centerline,...
  147. 147Which condition has the effect of reducing critical engine failure speed?Slush on the runway or inoperative antiskid. It dictates adjustments, such as a reduction in critical engine failure speed (V1), an increase in required runway length or a penalty in runway limited weight. Incorrect answers included low gross wt & high density altitude.
  148. 148What is the safest and most efficient takeoff and initial climb procedure in a light, twin-engine airplane? Accelerate toAn airspeed slightly above Vmc, then lift off and climb at the best rate of climb speed. Incorrect included best engine out, rate of climb,... and Vx
  149. 149If an engine failure occurs at an altitude above single engine ceiling, what airspeed should be maintained?Vyse
  150. 150What procedure is recommended for an engine out approach and landing?The flightpath and procedures should be almost identical to normal approach and landing.
  151. 151Which parts in the turbojet engine is subjected to the high temperatures and severe centrifugal forces?Turbine wheel.
  152. 152Which place in the turbojet engine is subjected to the highest temperature?Turbine inlet
  153. 153For an airplane with a relatively high thrust to weight ratio, a 10% increase in takeoff gross weight would result in a takeoff distance increase of approximately21% -distance varies at least as the square of the gross weight varies.
  154. 154High Density Altitude conditions result inHigher true airspeeds
  155. 155What recovery would be appropriate in the event of compressor stalls?Reduce throttle and then slowly advance the throttle again and decrease the aircraft's AOA.
  156. 156What is the movement of the center of pressure when the wingtips of a sweptwing airplane are shock stalled first?Inward and forward
  157. 157What is the result of a shock-induced separation of airflow occurring symmetrically near the wing root of a sweptwing aircraft?A severe moment of Mach Tuck inducing a loss of lift and a subsequent loss of downwash. It creates a diving moment, thus mach tuck
  158. 158Swept Wingsincreases the critical mach number
  159. 159For significant benefit, wing sweep must be at30-35 degrees. Sweepback will reduce the magnitude of change in the aerodynamic force coefficients due to compressibility. use of it on transonic will reduce and delay the drag rise and preserrve the maneuverability.
  160. 160Above the critical mach number, you can expectairflow separation
  161. 161As flight approaches the speed of sound,all changes in velocity and pressure will take place quite suddenly
  162. 162A buzz felt in the flight controls in cruise flight might be an indication ofdrag rise. It's associated with buffet, trim and stability changes and a decrease in control surface effectiveness. Aileron, rudder, and elevator surfaces subjected to this buffet may buzz.
  163. 163The number which produces a sharp change in the drag coefficient is thedrag divergence mach number, AKA force divergence or drag rise. It usually occurs 5 to 10% above the critical mach number.
  164. 164How do you solve for minimum speed at which a tire may sustain dynamic hydroplaning?8.73 time sqrt of tire pressure
  165. 165square root of 12111
  166. 166Square root of 708.36
  167. 167Square root of 808.94
  168. 168Square root of 909.48
  169. 169Square root of 10010
  170. 170Square root of 11010.48
  171. 171Square root of 607.74
  172. 172Square root of 708.36
  173. 173Square root of 808.94
  174. 174Test data indicate that ice, snow or frost having a thickness similar to medium or course sandpaper on the leading edge and upper surface of a wing canreduce lift by as much as 30% and increase drag by 40%
  175. 175The practice developed and accepted by the North American air carrier industry using traditional North American fluids to ensure that the freezing point of the remaining film is below the ambient temperature by at least20 degrees F
  176. 176Anti icing fluid should provide freezing point protection toa freezing point no greater than 20 degrees F below the ambient or airplane surface temperature
  177. 177Glycol content type I80%
  178. 178Glycol content Type 250%
  179. 179Which procedure increases holding time when deicing/anti-icing an airplane using a two-step process?Heated type 1 followed by cold type 2.
  180. 180Which process with decrease holding time in two-step process?Apply heated type 2
  181. 181What should the fluid temperature be in the last step of the two step process for de-icing?Cold
  182. 182what can a pilot expect if the pitot system ram air input and drain hole are blocked by ice?qThe airspeed indicator may act as an altimeter.
  183. 183How will the airspeed indiciator react if the ram air input to the pitot head is blocked by ice, but the drain hole and static port are not?Indication will rise to the top of the scale
  184. 184If both the ram air input and drain hole of the pitot static system become blocked, the indicated airspeed willincrease during a climb
  185. 185When setting the altimeter pilots should disregardAffects of non-standard atmospheric temperatures and pressures.
  186. 186Which VFR cloud clearance and visibilities apply to 3 SM clear cloudsClass B
  187. 187Which VFR cloud clearance and visibilities apply to 3 SM 500 below 1000 above 2000 horizontal?Classes C, D, E less than 10K, G night less than 1200 AGL, and G 1200-less than 10k night
  188. 188Which VFR cloud clearance and visibilities apply to 5SM 1000 above & below & 1 SM horizontal?E at or above 10K & G more than 1200 AGL when also at or above 10K
  189. 189Which VFR cloud clearance and visibilities apply to 1SM CLEAR CLOUDS?G 1200 AGL or less regardless of MSL
  190. 190Which VFR cloud clearance and visibilities apply to 1SM 500 below 1000 above 2000 horizontal?Class G more than 1200 AGL & less than 10K
  191. 191Which VFR cloud clearance and visibilities apply to 5 SM 1000 above & below 1SM Horizontal?Class G more than 1200 AGL & at or above 10K
  192. 192Why are certain areas that start 3NM from the coastline of the US and extend outward classified as warning areas?To warn pilots of nonparticipating aircraft of a potential danger within the area.
  193. 193What services are provided for aircraft operating within class C airspace?Sequencing of arriving aircraft, separation of aircraft (except VFR ) and traffic advisories.
  194. 194What in flight visibility and distance from clouds for flight at 8500 feet MAL (above 1200 feet AGL) in VFR conditions during daylight hours in uncontrolled airspace?1 mile, 1000 above 500 below 2000 horizontal
  195. 195What is the minimum in-flight visibility and distance from clouds required in VFR conditions above clouds at 13,500 feet MSL (above 1200 feet AGL) during daylight hours in uncontrolled airspace?5 miles; 1000 feet above; 1 mile horizontal; 1000 feet below
    * of the three possible answers two say 5 miles, one says 3. G Airspace has 1, 3 & 5 with daylight visibilities of 1 and 5 but everything above 1200/10,000 is 5 & the only horizontal of 1SM is this one (over 1200/10K)
  196. 196taxiway centerline lead-off lights are color-coded to warn pilots thatThey are within the runway environment or ILS Critical area
  197. 197What is the advantage of HIRL or MIRL on an IFR runway as compared to a VFR runway?Amber lights replace white on the last 2000 feet of runway for a caution zone.
  198. 198Runway centerline lights on an instrument runway are all white until thelast 3000 feet of the runway length where they turn amber and are completely red for the last 1000 feet.
  199. 199Waht is meant by the term FAROS?Flashing PAPIIs. Stand-Alone Final Approach Runway Occupancy Signal (FAROS) is a fully automated system providing runway occupancy status to a pilot on final approach. A PAPI flash or pulse indicates occupied GO AROUND!
  200. 200The illumination of the THL indicatesAnother vehicle on the runway. The Take Off Hold Lights system is designed to warn aircrews and vehicle operators that the runway is unsafe for takeoff.

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Flashcards on WrongATP, created by Dan Anderson on 26/05/2022.
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