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Childhood Year 1: Pathology focus :)

Deleted user 121 questions Updated 13 Mar 2018

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Questions in this quiz (121)

1What is characteristic of the Paget's disease?
1. Aincreased osteoblast and osteoclast activity
2. B"bone pain" generally in one area, commonly pelvis and spine
3. Cstructurally disorganized bone matrix with both excessive bone mass and bone resorption
4. Dincreased osteoblast but decreased osteoclast activity
5. Euniform concentric rings of organized bone matrix
6. F"bone pain" spreading out to different areas of the body
2Osteoblasts mature into these cells [blank_start]osteocytes[blank_end] once trapped in the bone matrix; they activate bone formation via [blank_start]altered signalling[blank_end] and apoptosis.
1. Aosteocytes
2. Baltered signalling
3What do osteoblasts do?
1. Asynthesize new bone matrix
2. Babsorb and resorb more bone matrix
3. Ccontrol bone metabolism
4What is characteristic of osteoclasts?
1. Afrom hematopoeitic stem cells
2. Bacts as macrophages
3. Cresorb bone
4. Dmake more bone matrix
5. Eacts as fibroblasts
6. Ffrom mesenchymal stem cells
5Where would you have the most interstitial growth?
1. Aepiphysis
2. Bmetaphysis
3. Cdiaphysis
4. Depiphyseal growth plates
5. Eperiosteum
6[blank_start]Interstitial[blank_end] growth is [blank_start]lengthening[blank_end] growth. This is due to increased number of matrix-depositing cells. [blank_start]Appositional[blank_end] growth is [blank_start]widening[blank_end] growth. This is due to increased matrix deposition by the same number cells.
1. AInterstitial
2. BAppositional
3. Cwidening
4. Dlengthening
7In terms of calcium metabolism, the thyroid releases what hormone?
1. Acalcitonin
2. BTSH (thyroid-stimulating hormone)
3. CT4
4. DT3
5. EPTH (parathyroid hormone)
8Calcitonin causes increased calcium deposition in bone by inhibiting bone resorption.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
9What does parathyroid hormone do?
1. Aincrease osteoclast activity
2. Bincrease osteoblast activity
3. Cincrease osteocyte activity
4. Ddecrease osteoclast activity
5. Edecrease osteoblast activity
6. Fdecrease osteocyte activity
10Falling onto an outstretched hand/wrist causes what type of fracture most commonly?
1. Ascaphoid fracture
2. Bradial styloid fracture
3. Chumeral fracture
4. D3rd metacarpal fracture
5. Eulnar styloid process
6. Flunate fracture

11What are bones of the hand?
1. Ascaphoid
2. Blunate
3. Ctriquetrum
4. Dpisiform
5. Etrapezium
6. Ftrapezoid
7. Gcapitate
8. Hhamate
12What nerve would you damage if you were to break the shaft of the humerus?
1. Aradial
2. Baxillary
3. Cmusculocutaneous
4. Dmedial
5. Eulnar
13If the radial nerve is damaged, how might it present?
1. Awrist drop even with fully extended forearm/arm
2. Binability to abduct arm
3. Cinability to flex elbow
4. Dinability to flex shoulder
5. EBenedict claw with fully extended forearm/arm
14What does the musculocutaneous innervate muscle-wise?
1. Aflexor muscles of the arm
2. Bflexor muscles of the forearm
3. Cextensor muscles of the arm
4. Dextensor muscles of the forearm
5. E3.5 fingers of the hand
15What does the axillary innervate muscle-wise?
1. Adeltoid, teres minor (shoulder muscles)
2. Bposterior arm flexor muscles
3. Cposterior forearm extensor muscles
16What does the radial nerve NOT innervate muscle-wise?
1. Aposterior arm
2. Bposterior forearm
3. Cposterior medial 2 fingers of the hand
17What does musculocutaneous innervate muscle-wise?
1. Aanterior forearm
2. Banterior arm
3. Canterior 3 medial fingers
4. Dposterior 3 medial fingers
5. Eposterior arm
18What does ulnar nerve innervate muscle-wise?
1. Aposterior forearm muscles
2. Bposterior arm muscles
3. Canterior forearm muscles
4. Danterior arm muscles
5. Eanterior medial 2 fingers
6. Fposterior lateral 2 fingers
19If there is loss of elbow flexion (can't flex biceps), there is damage to the [blank_start]musculocutaneous[blank_end] nerve.
1. Amusculocutaneous
20if there is shoulder weakness or you're unable to abduct shoulder, then there is damage to the [blank_start]axillary[blank_end] nerve.
1. Aaxillary
21A hand of benediction is sign of damage to the [blank_start]median[blank_end] nerve.
1. Amedian
22Being unable to abduct or adduct the last 2 fingers is indicative of damage to the [blank_start]ulnar[blank_end] nerve.
1. Aulnar
23What does the ulnar provide sensory innervation to?
1. Aposterior and anterior 1.5 medial fingers
2. Bposterior and anterior lateral 2.5 fingers
24What does the median provide sensory innervation to?
1. Aanterior 3.5 lateral fingers
2. Bposterior 3.5 lateral fingers
3. Canterior 1.5 lateral fingers
4. Dposterior 1.5 lateral fingers
25What does radial nerve provide sensory innervation to?
1. Alateral arm
2. Bposterior forearm
3. Cposterior hand
4. Danterior hand
5. Eanterior forearm
6. Fmedial arm
26The axillary nerve innervates the...in sensory wise
1. Aregimental badge area
2. Banatomical snuffbox area
3. Cradial styloid badge area
27Musculocutaneous provides sensory innervation to lateral forearm down to the thenar prominence (at the base of the thumb.)
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
28Numbness at the back of the wrist and hand is due to damage to the sensory innervation by the [blank_start]radial[blank_end] nerve.
1. Aradial
29Damage to the [blank_start]median[blank_end] nerve will lead to parethesia to the lateral 3 anterior fingers.
1. Amedian
30Loss of sensation in the median of the hand and the medial first 2 fingers is damage to the [blank_start]ulnar[blank_end] nerve.
1. Aulnar
31Damage to the radial nerve leads to wrist drop. What are some pathologies in which the radial nerve gets hurt?
1. ARadial nerve palsy
2. BSaturday night nerve palsy
3. CHumerus shaft fracture
4. DErb's palsy
5. EBell's palsy
6. FKlumpke's palsy
32How might you injure the axillary nerve?
1. Adislocation of the humeral head
2. Bsurgical neck of the humerus fracture
3. Cdislocation of the clavicle
4. Dpulling the deltoid muscle
33You might harm the musculocutaneous nerve via a medial epicondyle fracture.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
34A winged scapula is indicative of damage to the [blank_start]long thoracic nerve[blank_end] (spinal roots C5-C7.)
1. Along thoracic nerve
35The spinal roots of the musculocutaneous nerve are (in numerical order from least to greatest) are [blank_start]C5[blank_end], [blank_start]C6[blank_end], and [blank_start]C7[blank_end].
1. AC5
2. BC6
3. CC7
36The Axillary nerve is from the roots [blank_start]C5[blank_end] and [blank_start]C6[blank_end] (in numerical order.)
1. AC5
2. BC6
37The radial nerve is from the spinal roots [blank_start]C5[blank_end] to [blank_start]T1[blank_end].
1. AC5
2. BT1
38The ulnar nerve is from the spinal roots of [blank_start]C8[blank_end] and [blank_start]T1[blank_end].
1. AC8
2. BT1
39The spinal roots of the median nerve is [blank_start]C5[blank_end] or [blank_start]C6[blank_end] to [blank_start]T1[blank_end].
1. AC5
2. BC6
3. CT1
40Which of these myotomes and action pairings are correct?
1. AC4: shoulder elevation
2. BC5: chicken abduction (wings)
3. CC6: elbow flexion
4. DC6: wrist extension
5. EC7: elbow extension
6. FC7: wrist flexion
7. GC8: thumb extension (thumbs up)
8. HT1: finger abduction (fanned fingers)
9. IC6: wrist flexion
10. JC6: elbow extension
41What is true regarding Erb's palsy?
1. Adamage to the upper part of the brachial plexus (C5 and C6)
2. Bdamage to the lower part of the brachial plexus (C7 C8 and T1)
3. Cmotorbike accidents can cause this
4. Dimproper birthing techniques (pull baby's head against pelvic bones while labor) can cause this
5. Elanding on an outstretched arm from a big height can cause this
6. Fresults in a "waiter's tip"
7. Gresults in a "clawed hand"
8. Hdamage to the axillary nerve
9. Idamage to the suprascapular nerve
10. Jdamage to the musculocutaneous nerve
42What is the myasthenia gravis?
1. AAt the neuromuscular junction, the body produces antibodies against the acetylcholine receptors
2. BIntense morning sickness that needs anti-emetics as treatment
3. Cthe gradual degradation of muscle fibers, starting from top of the head to bottom of the feet
4. Dloss of sensation in some or all motor units of certain muscles
43How might myasthenia gravis present?
1. Aptosis
2. Bfluctuating fatiguability
3. Cdysphagia
4. Dlimb weakness
5. Efever
6. Fconstant fatigue
7. Gslow reaction times
44How would you manage myasthenia gravis?
1. Aacetylcholine esterase inhibitors
2. Bacetylcholine reuptake enhancers
3. Cacetylcholine esterase activators
4. Dacetylcholine agonists
45The [blank_start]abdominal aorta[blank_end] bifurcates into the [blank_start]right common illiac[blank_end] and the [blank_start]left common illiac[blank_end]. The right illiac again bifurcates into the [blank_start]internal illiac[blank_end] and the [blank_start]external illiac[blank_end]. The external illiac becomes the [blank_start]right femoral[blank_end], which is the deep artery of the right thigh. In the popliteal fossa, the right femoral becomes the right [blank_start]popliteal[blank_end] artery. The right popliteal further bifurcates into the [blank_start]right anterior tibial[blank_end] and the [blank_start]right posterior tibial.[blank_end] The right posterior tibial, which is the pulse felt at the ankle, becomes the [blank_start]posterior right fibular.[blank_end] The right anterior tibial becomes the right [blank_start]dorsalis pedalis[blank_end].
1. Aabdominal aorta
2. Bcommon thoracic aorta
3. Cright common illiac
4. Dright mesenephric
5. Eleft common illiac
6. Fleft mesenephric
7. Ginternal illiac
8. Hinternal femoral
9. Iexternal illiac
10. Jexternal femoral
11. Kright femoral
12. Lright fibular
13. Mpopliteal
14. Ntibial
15. Oright anterior tibial
16. Pright anterior popliteal
17. Qright posterior tibial.
18. Rright posterior popliteal
19. Sposterior right fibular.
20. Tanterior right fibular.
21. Udorsalis pedalis
22. Vdorsis plantaris
46Which of the following could cause carpal tunnel syndrome?
1. Apregnancy
2. Brheumatoid arthiritis
3. Crepetitive use of hands
4. Dseptic arhritis
5. Eosteomalacia
6. Fosteoporosis
47Compression of the [blank_start]median[blank_end] nerve as it travels through the [blank_start]carpal[blank_end] [blank_start]tunnel[blank_end] in the wrist is Carpal Tunnel Syndrome.
1. Amedian
2. Bcarpal
3. Ctunnel
48How does Carpal Tunnel Syndrome present?
1. Anumbness
2. Bparasthesia/pain over median nerve area
3. Cthumb muscle atrophy
4. Dworse at ngiht
5. Eworse at day
6. Fredness
7. Gswelling
49What are management options of the carpal tunnel syndrome?
1. Alocal corticosteroids
2. Bnight time splinting
3. Cday time splinting
4. Danabolic steroids
5. Ealways surgical decompression
6. Fif severe surgical decompression
7. Gavoid further injury via strain
50What are the nerves of the lower limb?
1. AFemoral
2. BSciatic
3. CObturator
4. DCommon fibular
5. Ecommon fibular deep branch
6. Fcommon fibular superficial branch
7. Gtibial
8. Hsural
9. Ifibial
10. Jcommon femoral
51The [blank_start]sural[blank_end] nerve only innervates sensory-wise. It innervates the skin of the [blank_start]posterior[blank_end] leg and [blank_start]lateral[blank_end] foot.
1. Asural
2. Bposterior
3. Clateral
52What does the sciatic innervate muscle-wise?
1. Athe posterior compartment of the thigh
2. Bthe anterior compartment of the thigh
3. Clateral compartment of the thigh
4. Dthe medial compartment of the thigh
53What does the femoral nerve innervate muscle-wise?
1. Aanterior thigh
2. Bposterior thigh
3. Clateral thigh
4. Dmedial thigh
54What does the obturator nerve innervate muscle wise?
1. Aanterior thigh
2. Bposterior thigh
3. Clateral thigh
4. Dmedial thigh
55What does the common fibular deep branch innervate muscle wise?
1. Aanterior leg
2. Bposterior leg
3. Clateral leg
4. Dmedial leg
56What does the superficial branch of the common fibular innervate muscle-wise?
1. Aanterior leg
2. Bposterior leg
3. Clateral leg
4. Dmedial leg
57What does the tibial nerve innervate muscle-wise?
1. Aposterior leg
2. Banterior leg
3. Cmedial leg
4. Dlateral leg
5. Esole of the foot
6. Ftop of the foot
58The femoral nerve's sensory innervation includes the [blank_start]anterior[blank_end] thigh and [blank_start]medial[blank_end] leg.
1. Aanterior
2. Bmedial
59The obturator nerve's sensory innervation is the [blank_start]medial[blank_end] thigh.
1. Amedial
60The [blank_start]deep[blank_end] branch of the common fibular's sensory innervation is the skin of the upper lateral leg.
1. Asuperficial
61The deep branch of the common fibular's sensory innervation is the [blank_start]lower[blank_end] [blank_start]lateral[blank_end] leg and [blank_start]dorsal[blank_end] foot.
1. Adorsal
2. Blower
3. Clateral
62Both the [blank_start]sciatic[blank_end] nerve (which bifurcates in the [blank_start]popliteal[blank_end] fossa into the [blank_start]tibial[blank_end] nerve and the common fibular nerve) and the [blank_start]tibial[blank_end] nerve innervate (sensory-wise) the [blank_start]posterior[blank_end] thigh and [blank_start]posterior[blank_end] leg and [blank_start]plantar[blank_end] foot.
1. Asciatic
2. Bpopliteal
3. Ctibial
4. Dtibial
5. Eposterior
6. Fposterior
7. Gplantar
63The sciatic nerve's spinal roots are [blank_start]L4-S3[blank_end].
1. AL4-S3
2. BL2-S3
3. CL1-L2
4. DL3-S2
5. EL4-S2
64Dorsiflexion is a sign of damage to what nerve?
1. Atibial
2. Bdeep branch of the common fibular
3. Ccommon fibular
4. Dfemoral
5. Esural
65Inability to dorsiflex (so basically having a foot drop) is indicative of damage to what nerve?
1. Acommon fibular
2. Bsciatic
3. Cfemoral
4. Dsural
5. Eobturator
6. Fsuperficial branch of the common fibular
66What movements does the femoral nerve allow?
1. Aflexion of hips
2. Bextension of the knee
3. Cextension of the hips
4. Dflexion of the knees
5. Eabduction of the leg
6. Fadduction of the leg
67What innervates hip extension and knee flexion?
1. AInferior gluteal
2. Bsciatic nerve
3. Csuperior gluteal
4. Dtibial
5. Ecommon fibular
68The [blank_start]obturator[blank_end] nerve allows hip adduction. On the other hand, the [blank_start]superior[blank_end] [blank_start]gluteal[blank_end] nerve allows hip abduction.
1. Aobturator
2. Bsuperior
3. Cgluteal
69What are the main types of arthritis?
1. Aosteoarthritis
2. Binflammatory arthritis
3. Cseptic arthritis
4. Drheumatoid arthritis
5. Ecrystal-induced arthritis
70[blank_start]Primary[blank_end] osteoarthritis and [blank_start]secondary[blank_end] osteoarthritis are the two types of osteoarthritis.
1. APrimary
2. Bsecondary
71The three types of inflammatory arthritis: rheumatoid, [blank_start]crystal-induced,[blank_end] and [blank_start]psoriatic[blank_end].
1. Acrystal-induced,
2. Bpsoriatic
72What are the two types of crystal-induced arthritis?
1. Agout
2. Bpseudogout
3. Crheumatoid
4. Dpsoriatic
5. Enone of the above
73What is a degenerative disease that affects the joints, often due to wear and tear of articular cartilage?
1. Aosteoarthritis
2. Bsynovitis
3. Ccrepitus
4. Djoint stiffness
5. Esubarticular sclerosis
74How might osteoarthritis present?
1. Ajoint stiffness in the evening/morning
2. Bgenerally worse after walking
3. Cpalpable bony swelling on the hands' interphalangeal joints
4. Dreduced range of motion
5. Ecrepitus in the joints
6. Finsomnia
7. Ggeneralized swelling around major joints
8. Hlocked joints
9. Isynovitis
75An X-ray investigation of osteoarthritis will show...
1. Areduced joint space
2. Bsubarticular sclerosis
3. Costeophytes
4. Dbony cysts
5. Eglued up joint space
6. Fcartilage cysts
7. Gosteocytes
76For osteoarthritis, the only management is supportive/palliative.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
77What is an autoimmune disease that also ends in joint destruction?
1. Arheumatoid arthritis
2. Bseptic arthritis
3. Costeoarthritis
4. Dgout
78What is characteristic of rheumatoid arthritis?
1. Aspecific joint pain in the morning
2. Bspecific joint pain in the evening
3. Cjoints affected symetrically
4. Djoint inflammation
5. Ejoints affected asymetrically
79All of these are part of the management of rheumatoid arthritis BUT
1. ANSAIDs
2. Bphysiotherapy
3. CMethtrexate
4. DDMARDs
5. EAntibiotics followed by corticosteroids
80Which of the following regarding the investigation of rheumatoid arthritis is true?
1. Awill find rheumatoid factor in serum
2. Bx-ray will reveal bone erosion
3. Cx-ray will reveal reduced joint space
4. Dperiarticular osteopenia
5. Evisible deformity
6. Fx-ray will reveal
7. Gexcessive bone growth
81The deposition of monosodium urate crystals in joints is a type of arthritis called [blank_start]gout[blank_end]. This usually happens if there are high levels of [blank_start]uric[blank_end] acid in the blood. The risk factors are [blank_start]obesity[blank_end] and [blank_start]purine[blank_end] (one of the building blocks of DNA) rich food. The most common occurence is at the big [blank_start]toe[blank_end] joint. Symptoms include [blank_start]synovitis[blank_end] (swelling of the joint), [blank_start]malaise[blank_end] (general ill-feeling), and [blank_start]tophi[blank_end] [blank_start]lumps[blank_end] (crystals.) These crystals are visible under polarized light microscopy. The primary way to test for this is to take [blank_start]aspirate[blank_end] fluid in the joint, gram stain it to rule out septic arthritis, and test the fluid for levels of uric acid.
1. Agout
2. Buric
3. Cpurine
4. Dobesity
5. Etoe
6. Fsynovitis
7. Gmalaise
8. Htophi
9. Ilumps
10. Jaspirate
82The treatment plan is for what?
1. NSAIDs
2. Colchicine
3. Corticosteroids
1. Achronic gout
2. Bacute gout
3. Cgoutisis
4. Dpseudogout
83Other than lifestyle changes to reduce urate levels, we give those with [blank_start]chronic[blank_end] [blank_start]gout[blank_end] the drug allopurinol.
1. Agout
2. Bchronic
84Accumulation of monosodium urate monohydrate crystals in joints causes pseudogut as well.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
85What is of clinical importance regarding septic arthritis?
1. Amedical emergency
2. Btake the aspirate fluid in join and gram stain it
3. Ctake a blood culture (full blood count) and see if there's a high amount of leukocytes
4. Dtake a blood culture (full blood count) and see if there's a high amount of c-reactive protein
5. Ex-ray will show increased joint space
6. Fx-ray will show decreased joint space
7. Gchronic/gradual development
8. Hto manage, should drain aspirate fluid
9. Ito manage, should give antibiotics
10. Jpresents like an infection plus reduced joint functionality and synovitis
86Prostacyclin is prostaglandin [blank_start]12[blank_end], which is produced by the [blank_start]epithelium[blank_end]. Prostacyclin prevents excess [blank_start]platelet[blank_end] [blank_start]aggregation[blank_end] during the platelet plug.
1. A12
2. Bepithelium
3. Cplatelet
4. Daggregation
87[blank_start]Thrombocytoplenia[blank_end] is when there are too few platelets in the body. It can be treated with [blank_start]thrombopoietin[blank_end], which will increase the platelet number. It takes [blank_start]6[blank_end] days for progress to be apparent though.
1. AThrombocytoplenia
2. Bthrombopoietin
3. C6
88Platelets only adhere to smooth epithelial surfaces.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
89[blank_start]Von[blank_end] [blank_start]Willebrand[blank_end] Disease is when a person is missing vWF and therefore have difficulty with [blank_start]hemostasis[blank_end] (the stopping of bloodloss.)
1. AWillebrand
2. BVon
3. Chemostasis
90If there is a suspicion of liver disease, one should check if [blank_start]coagulation[blank_end] is affected because it very well could be.
1. Acoagulation
91Coagulation can be affected in:

diseases affecting [blank_start]protein[blank_end] [blank_start]formation[blank_end]

[blank_start]genetic[blank_end] diseases of the clotting [blank_start]factors[blank_end]
1. Aprotein
2. Bformation
3. Cgenetic
4. Dfactors
92There are 2 coagulation pathways: they meet up at factor [blank_start]10[blank_end].

The intrinsic pathway begins with factor [blank_start]12[blank_end]. This is when the [blank_start]inside[blank_end] of the blood vessel gets damage without any necessary external damage. Ex: [blank_start]hypertension[blank_end] (erodes.)

The extrinsic pathways begin with factor [blank_start]3[blank_end]. Damage from [blank_start]outside[blank_end] to the blood vessel. Usually accompanies tissue damage.
1. A10
2. B12
3. C3
4. Dhypertension
5. Einside
6. Foutside
93The outside aspect of a scab is called an [blank_start]eschar[blank_end].
1. Aeschar
94What is true regarding vitamin K?
1. Aproduces anticoagulant protein c
2. Bproduces coagulant protein z
3. Cproduces anticoagulant protein s
4. Dproduces factor 7
5. Eproduces factor 9
6. Fproduces prothrombin
7. Gproduces factor 10
8. Hproduces fibrinogen
9. Iproduces factor 5
95Vitamin K helps with bone metabolism by increasing calcification.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
96Vitamin K is from kale and kiwi.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
97Vitamin K is stored in muscle
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
98The "tea and toast" diet is associated with vitamin [blank_start]B[blank_end][blank_start]12[blank_end] deficiency. Patients can present as [blank_start]weakness[blank_end], paresthesia (tingliness), and [blank_start]irritability[blank_end]. Vegetarians and [blank_start]vegans[blank_end] often have this. B12 helps make the [blank_start]myelin[blank_end] [blank_start]sheath[blank_end] in neurons.
1. AB
2. B12
3. Cweakness
4. Dirritability
5. Emyelin
6. Fsheath
7. Gvegans
99[blank_start]Allodynia[blank_end] is when the patient complains that "everything" is painful, even stimuli that are not usually painful.
1. AAllodynia
100[blank_start]Hyperalgesia[blank_end] is when you have an increased pain response to painful stimulus.
1. AHyperalgesia
101Primary healing is when you actively bring together both edges of the wound to stimulate heealing.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
102Secondary healing is when you leave the wound alone to heal
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
103Warfarin is given following
1. Aa prothrombin time test
2. Ba K reductase time test
3. Ca Synacthen test
4. Da plasmin time test
5. Ea water deprifation test
104Warfarin is an anticoagulant.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
105Warfarin works essentially by blocking the enzyme [blank_start]vitamin[blank_end] [blank_start]K[blank_end] [blank_start]reductase[blank_end], and thus blocks all the stuff said vitamin makes. It is prescribed for heart conditions--such as [blank_start]atrial[blank_end] [blank_start]fibrillation[blank_end]--and for thrombotic conditions--[blank_start]deep[blank_end] [blank_start]vein[blank_end] thrombosis and [blank_start]pulmonary[blank_end] embolisms are the classics. Also, it is given post [blank_start]orthopedic[blank_end] surgery.
1. Avitamin
2. BK
3. Creductase
4. Datrial
5. Efibrillation
6. Fdeep
7. Gvein
8. Hpulmonary
9. Iorthopedic
106Vitamin K enhances the functionality of Warfarin.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
107Antithrombin III deficiency is a hereditary, relatively harmless, and common condition.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
108DVT and pulmonary embolisms are both complications of Antithrombin III deficiency.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
109Warfarin acts on the thrombus by dissolving it.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
110TPA ([blank_start]tissue[blank_end] [blank_start]plasminogen[blank_end] [blank_start]activator[blank_end]) is used in drugs dealing with thrombotic problems. It [blank_start]dissolves[blank_end] the clot.
1. Atissue
2. Bplasminogen
3. Cactivator
4. Ddissolves
111What causes Hemophilia A?
1. AFactor 8 deficiency
2. BFactor 9 deficiency
3. CFactor 12 deficiency
4. DFactor 5 deficiency
112What is Hemophilia B due to?
1. AFactor 7 deficiency
2. BFactor 5 deficiency
3. CFactor 9 deficiency
4. DFactor 11 deficiency
113[blank_start]Vasculogenesis[blank_end] is the formation of new blood vessels completely from scratch from [blank_start]endothelial[blank_end] precursor cells.
1. AVasculogenesis
2. Bendothelial
114Myofibroblasts need a lot of extracellular matrix.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
115Mature tissue contains [blank_start]dense[blank_end] collagen (collagen [blank_start]I[blank_end]) and blood channels. It is [blank_start]acellular[blank_end] connective tissue.
1. Adense
2. BI
3. Cacellular
116What is true regarding Hypertrophic scars?
1. Afollowing physical injury
2. Bcan be itchy
3. Cslightly raised
4. Dlimit ability to move
5. Eappear shiny
117What is true regarding contracture scars?
1. Aextremely tight skin
2. Bcan limit ability to move
3. Ccommon with burns
4. Dshiny
5. Every fine white line
118What is true regarding keloid scars?
1. Areally noticeable
2. Braised
3. Cshiny
4. Dusually after minor skin damage
5. Enot raised
6. Ffine white line
7. Gitchy
119Sunken scars have a [blank_start]pitted[blank_end] kind of appearance. An example: [blank_start]chickenpox[blank_end] scars.
1. Apitted
2. Bchickenpox
120Scar treatment is often unecessary.
1. ATrue
2. BFalse
121Which of these are ways to treat scars?
1. Atopical silicone gel
2. Bpressure dressings
3. Csteroids
4. Dmake- up
5. Ecosmetic surgery
6. Fplastic surgery
7. Gflucloxacillin
8. Hacupuncture

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Description: User has deleted their subject information Quiz on Childhood Year 1: Pathology focus :), created by Deleted user on 07/03/2018.
Author: Deleted user
Language: English
Views: 21
History: Created on 7 Mar 2018 · updated on 13 Mar 2018
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Childhood Year 1: Pathology focus :)

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