Quiz
SFPC 3
Create a free account to finish this quiz
Save your progress and see your final score.
Already have an account? Sign in
Questions in this quiz (196)
1Jackson Perkins is being considered for promotion to a higher risk position in the federal agency for which he currently works. His suitability investigation reflected two speeding tickets in the past five years on the compound where he currently works but no other traffic violations or criminal activity. Which suitability factor is most applicable to the facts in this scenario?
- AFactor 1: Misconduct or Negligence in Employment
- BFactor 2: Criminal or Dishonest Conduct
- CFactor 3: Material, Intentional False Statement or Deception or Fraud in Employment
2Which system captures position information to include position risk and sensitivity?
- APosition Designation Automated Tool (PDT)
- BElectronic Questionnaire for Investigations Processing (eQIP) system
- CDefense Civilian Personnel Data System (DCPDS)
3Who primarily conducts suitability adjudications?
- AOffice of Personnel Management (OPM)
- BDefense Civilian Personnel Advisory Service (DCPAS)
- CAdjudicator from the employing agency, component or DoD CAF
4Which type of investigation is used to reinvestigate employees in non-sensitive, high risk public trust positions?
- AT1R
- BT2R
- CT4R
5Which type of adjudication is required to determine if an individual should be allowed to hold a position of public trust?
- APublic Trust adjudication
- BHSPD-12 adjudication
- CSuitability adjudication
6When does OPM or the agency or component notify the subject of his or her appeal rights?
- AIn the final decision
- BIn the answer to the notice of a proposed action
- CIn the notice of proposed action
7Larry Lengal is applying for a federal position. Mr Lengal’s investigation revealed that he joined a group called Freedom Youth when he was in college. The group participated in anti-US demonstrations by the White House. Which suitability factor is most applicable to the facts in this scenario?
- AFactor 2: Criminal or Dishonest Conduct
- BFactor 7: Knowing and Willful Engagement in Acts/Activities designed to overthrow the US Government by Force
- CFactor 8: Statutory or Regulatory Bar to Employment
8Who is responsible for issuing government-wide debarments?
- AFBI
- BOPM
- CDoD
9What is the course of action if suitability issues are revealed during prescreening?
- AThe applicant will be debarred
- BThe file is referred to the suitability adjudicator
- CAn unfavorable suitability determination will be made
10Why is it important that components and agencies report their adjudicative decisions to OPM?
- ATo comply with Federal Law
- BTo ensure the information is available to other agencies to ensure efficiency of the civil service
11In which of the following cases would a suitability adjudication NOT be automatically required?
- AJanice is being promoted to a new position within the federal government which has a higher level of risk than her previous position.
- BJeff is applying for a federal position with the Department of Agriculture and has not previously held a federal job.
- CCarla is returning to the federal workforce after she left her federal service position 1 year ago to have her first child.
12To which of the following groups do fitness requirement apply?
- AContractor employees, employees serving in Federal competitive service position or Federal expected service positons that may convert to competitive service positions
- BContractor employees, and employees serving in Federal excepted service positions that cannot be noncompetitively converted to competitive service positions.
- CApplicants, appointees, and employees serving in Federal competitive services positions or Federal excepted service positions that may convert to competitive service positions.
13Which of the following is used to assess a position levels of risk and sensitivity?
- APosition Designation Automated Tool (PDT)
- BElectronic Questionnaires for Investigations processing (eQIP) system
- CPersonnel Investigations Processing System (PIPS)
- DCentral Verification System (CVS)
14What is a common problem found in personnel security investigation requests?
- ASubject provided discrepant information
- BSubject is not a federal employee
- CSubject has worked for several agencies
- DSubject has lived at one location for over 10 years
15The appeals process is centralized for all agencies, so the steps are the same no matter who the employing agency is.
- ATrue
- BFalse
16Review the following case details and determine whether a favorable adjudicative determination should be made.
The investigation into Stacy Brewer reveals that although she has never been implicated in a crime herself, her live-in boyfriend has multiple, drug-related convictions, and several of Ms. Brewer’s friends are in and out of jail on theft and drug charges. She did not disclose that she lived with her boyfriend on her SF-86. When asked about it, she said she intentionally did not list him on her SF-86 as she was afraid her clearance would be denied.
Should Ms. Brewer be granted eligibility?- AYes
- BNo
17The careful evaluation of favorable and unfavorable information from a subject’s past and present must take the __________ into consideration.
- AReview items
- BContinuous evaluation process
- CInvestigative process
- DWhole-person
18Straightforward cases may be reviewed automatically by an electronic adjudication system.
- ATrue
- BFalse
19To develop and resolve issues flagged in a standard investigation prior to completion of the personnel security investigation, which of the following is used?
- AT3R
- BPR
- CNAC
- DEFI Model
20A more comprehensive personnel security investigation may replace a less comprehensive one.
- ATrue
- BFalse
21The subject interview is a standard investigative element of which two PSIs?
- ATier 5 and T5R
- BTier 3 and Tier 5
- CTier 3 and T3R
- DT3R and T5R
22Prior and current investigative records (for example, from DoD, OPM, and IC databases) are always checked for Tier 3 and Tier 5 initial reinvestigations.
- ATrue
- BFalse
23The Supreme Court found in Cole v. Young that the regulations of the personnel security program (PSP) apply to all Federal government employees.
- ATrue
- BFalse
24A contractor employee requiring initial secret eligibility and access needs a Tier 3 investigation.
- ATrue
- BFalse
25Information from private individuals and the news media occasionally provides information to be about an individual holding security eligibility that is reviewed under continuous evaluation.
- ATrue
- BFalse
26What is the relationship between vulnerabilities and threats?
- ABoth are based in honesty
- BThere is no relationship between them
- CVulnerabilities exploit threats
- DThreats exploit vulnerabilities
27Review the following case details and determine whether a favorable adjudicative determination should be made.
The agency IT department discovered that Jerome Wilson accessed a network folder to which he was not authorized to use. Subsequent investigation showed that his supervisor had asked him to store sensitive files in the folder and had told Mr. Wilson his use was approved. When Mr. Wilson learned that his use was in fact unauthorized, he reported the situation to his supervisor and the security office and stated that he would not access the folder again.
Should Mr. Wilson be granted eligibility?- AYes
- BNo
28________ is the program name for the Intelligence Community Security Clearance Repository.
- ACentral Verification System (CVS)
- BScattered Castles
- CSecurity/Suitability Investigations Index (SII)
- DJoint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS)
29An individual may be disqualified if available information reflects a recent or recurring pattern of questionable judgment, irresponsibility, or emotionally unstable behavior.
- ATrue
- BFalse
30Failure to comply with prescribed treatment is a mitigating condition under the psychological conditions adjudicative guideline.
- ATrue
- BFalse
31Which of the following lays out standards and procedures for SCI access?
- AICD 704
- BE.O. 13567
- CTitle 5, Code of Federal Regulation, Part 732
- DIntelligence Reform and Terrorism Prevention Act
32The deliberate falsification of facts on a personnel security questionnaire is a disqualifying condition under which of these adjudicative guidelines?
- AUse of Information Technology Systems
- BHandling Protected Information
- COutside Activities
- DPersonal Conduct
33The personnel security program is concerned only with the threat posed by foreign intelligence service.
- ATrue
- BFalse
34The federal government is exempt from the Privacy Act of 1974 and as such, can collect personal information without notifying the subject of why said information is being collected.
- ATrue
- BFalse
35An individual seeking secret clearance eligibility failed to report as required the possession of a foreign passport, and has used the foreign passport to enter and exit the United States, the individual may be granted eligibility.
- ATrue
- BFalse
36The highest OPM-defined civilian position sensitivity level is _________.
- ATop Secret
- BCritical-Sensitive
- CSpecial-Sensitive
- DConfidential
37Which of the following was previously a stand-alone investigation but now is a foundational component of other investigations?
- ANACLC
- BANACI
- CSSBI
- DNAC
- ENACI
38When evaluating an individual’s foreign contacts and interests, what should the adjudicator consider about the associated country?
- ADoes the country have a trade agreement with the US?
- BIs the country associated with a risk of terrorism?
- CForeign business or financial interests may not benefit the US
- DIs the country an economic competitor with the US?
- EIs the country a member of NATO?
39Tier 5 is the minimum investigation to support initial assignment to non-critical sensitive.
- ATrue
- BFalse
40The deliberate falsification of fact on a personnel security questionnaire is a disqualifying condition under which of these national security adjudicative guidelines?
- AHandling Protected Information
- BOutside Activities
- CUse of Information Technology
- DPersonal Conduct
41Review the following case details and determine whether a favorable adjudicative termination should be made.
Melissa Stewart listed mental health treatment on her SF-86. A qualified and approved mental health care provider advised that her condition is in remission and has a low probability of recurrence.
Should Ms. Stewart be granted eligibility?- AYes
- BNo
42A mitigating condition does which of the following?
- AOvercomes a disqualifying condition in every case and permits a favorable determination
- BLessens the severity or seriousness of a disqualifying condition
- CThe adjudicator may consider it to decide a ‘borderline’ case
- DHas almost no effect on the final determination
43An individual with a history of excessive alcohol consumption has applied for clearance eligibility. The behavior occurred long ago, and in the years since, the individual has acknowledged and overcome the problem, and successfully completed treatment, Therefore, the individual may be granted eligibility.
- ATrue
- BFalse
44_____________ establishes a uniform Federal PSP for all employees who hold sensitive positions or who must access classified information.
- AWhite House Memorandum of Dec 29, 2005
- BExecutive Order 12968
- CDoDI 5200.02/DoDM 5200.02
45The Tier 3 investigation replaced the ANACI, which was the former investigation used to grant initial secret of confidential eligibility for civilians.
- ATrue
- BFalse
46Which of the following is a function of the DoD CAF?
- AMaking final appointments to civilian sensitive positions after completion of the PSIs.
- BMaking final determinations on appeals of denied or revoked security clearances.
- CDetermining a subject’s eligibility for military service.
- DDenying or revoking security clearance eligibility for access to classified information and/or assignment to a sensitive position.
47Which of the following statements is true regarding criminal conduct?
- AOnly felony convictions are disqualifying
- BCriminal conduct may be mitigated if there is evidence of rehabilitation
- CAll criminal convictions are viewed equally during an adjudication
48The DoD DOES NOT need a Personnel Security Program because all people are equally trustworthy.
- ATrue
- BFalse
49The subject of an investigation may request a copy of their PSI from which of the following?
- AThe investigative agency
- BThe activity security office
- CThe DoD CAF
- DThe supervisor
50_________________ is the investigative agency authorized to conduct investigations for the DoD PSP.
- AFederal Bureau of Investigations
- BCentral Intelligence Agency
- CDefense Intelligence Agency
- DNational Background Investigations Bureau
51Which of the following would be required for all levels of DoD Interim clearances?
- AFavorable review of FBI fingerprint records
- BFavorable review of local records
- CFavorable review of a completed form SF-86
- DAll of the above
52All DoD personnel have an obligation to report information that reflects an actual or potential danger to national security.
- ATrue
- BFalse
53Which civilian position sensitivity level has the potential for inestimable damage to the nation security or for inestimable adverse impact to the efficiency of the DoD or the Military Services?
- ANon-Sensitive
- BCritical-Sensitive
- CNoncritical-Sensitive
- DSpecial-Sensitive
54The step in due process for military and civilian personnel are different.
- ATrue
- BFalse
55Review the following case details and determine whteher a favorable adjudicative determination should be made.
Stan Nelson revealed on his SF-86 that he pled guilty to statutory rape when he was 18, for having consensual sexual relations with his 16-year-old girlfriend. Mr. Nelson served a 90-day sentence and successfully completed his probation and required community service; his girlfriend subsequently express remorse that he was charged with a crim. In the 12 years since, Mr. Nelson has not had additional arrests or incidents concerning sexual or criminal behavior.
Should Mr. Nelson be granted eligibility?- AYes
- BNo
56Discovery of adverse information after issuance of security clearance eligibility _________.
- AWill be considered at the next periodic reinvestigation
- BAutomatically triggers a new investigation
- CMay result in access suspension
57What is the purpose of the National Background Investigations Bureau (NBIB) Case Closing Transmittal cover sheer?
- AReport an unfavorable adjudicative determination to the subject
- BRecommend an adjudicative determination to the DoD CAF
- CDocument complete, incomplete, and pending checks from the investigation
58The briefing given to personnel who have recently been approved for access to classified information or assigned to a position of trust is the:
- AInitial Briefing
- BRefresher Briefing
- CTermination Briefing
- DForeign Travel Briefing
59A subject interview is a standard investigative element for Tier 3 and Tier 5 investigations.
- ATrue
- BFalse
60________________ are weaknesses, characteristics or circumstances that can be exploited by an adversary to gain access to or information from an asset.
- AVulnerabilities
- BRisks
- CThreats
61Although the specific content of a Physical Security Plan may vary between components, installations, units, or activities, the format remains the same.
- ATrue
- BFalse
62Rivers, cliffs, and dense growth are examples of which type of barrier?
- AActive barrier
- BNatural barrier
- CPassive barrier
63Physical security planning is deciding which security measures will be used to prevent unauthorized access to DoD assets and to safeguard those assets against threats.
- ATrue
- BFalse
64__________________ are conducted by peers or by senior agency personnel in the chain-of-command.
- ACompliance inspections
- BSelf-inspections
- CSurveys
- DStaff assist visits
65In a tactical environment, Physical Security Plans should be based on METT-TC, which stands for mission, _______________, terrain and weather, troops, time available, and civilian considerations.
- AExercises
- BEquipment
- CEnemy
66Providing information on the capabilities and intentions of our adversaries is the responsibility of the ____________.
- APhysical Security Officer
- BCommander or Director
- CAntiterrorism Officer
- DOperational Security Officer
- ECounterintelligence Support
67Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs) are graduated categories of measures or actions commanders take to protect personnel and assets from attack.
- ATrue
- BFalse
68________________ establish duties, roles and responsibilities at individual assignments, checkpoints, gates and guard posts.
- APhysical Security Plans (PSP)
- BMemorandums of Understanding (MOU)
- CPost Orders
69_________________, the inspector should review any local security directives, the Physical Security Plan, its Standard Operating Procedures, and any previous inspection reports, exceptions, and waivers.
- AWhen preparing the inspection report
- BIn preparation for an inspection
- CDuring the inspection
70____________________ use Defense Terrorism Warning Reports to convey _________________.
- AThe DIA and COCOMs / DoD Terrorist Threat Levels
- BCOCOMs and Installation Commanders / Force Protection Conditions
- CThe DHS and COCOMs / DoD Terrorist Threat Levels
71A ______________ defines emergency delegations of authority and orders of succession to ensure DoD Component Mission Essential Functions (MEFs) continue under all circumstances.
- APhysical Security Plan (PSP)
- BContinuity of Operations Plan (COOP)
- CMemorandum of Agreement (MOA)
72Threat levels assist senior leaders to determine the appropriate ________ level.
- AClassification designation
- BFPCON
- CSOP
- DGSA security specification
73Two antiterrorism tools the DoD uses to safeguard DoD assets are __________________ and _______________.
- AForce Protection Conditions (FPCONs) and Terrorist Threat Levels
- BThreat Working Group and Post Orders
- CCountermeasures and Standard Operating Procedures
74__________________ issue Force Protection Conditions (FPCONs).
- ACOCOMs and Installation Commanders/Facility Directors
- BThe DHS and COCOMs
- CThe DIA and COCOMs
75It’s better for an inspector not to announce the inspection in order to create a surprise effect and see how everything really operates.
- ATrue
- BFalse
76Which system detects a change in the environment and transmits an alarm?
- ACCTV
- BAccess Controls System
- CIDS
77___________________ are often overlooked in physical security planning and implementation.
- ALights
- BBarriers
- CMan-passable openings
78Lighting deters unauthorized entry by providing a psychological deterrence to intruders.
- ATrue
- BFalse
79______________________ are formal agreements that provide security assistance between DoD activities and from local law enforcement agencies as well as mutual aid from local fire and medical services.
- AStandard Operating Procedures (SOP)
- BPhysical Security Plans (PSP)
- CMemorandums of Understanding and Agreement (MOU/MOA)
80When assessing an asset, you must determine the nature and the value of that asset and the degree of impact if the asset is damaged or lost.
- ATrue
- BFalse
81FPCON _________ applies in the immediate area where a terrorist attack has occurred or when intelligence has been received that terrorist action against a specific target is imminent.
- ANormal
- BAlpha
- CBravo
- DCharlie
- EDelta
82There is a one for one correlation between Terrorist Threat Levels and force Protection Conditions.
- ATrue
- BFalse
83The _____________________ develops and refines terrorism threat assessments and coordinates and disseminates threat warnings, reports, and summaries.
- ADefense Critical Infrastructure Protection (DCIP) Working Group
- BAntiterrorism Working Group (ATWG)
- CThreat Working Group (TWG)
84Examples of oversight tools include day-to-day observations, surveys, staff assist visits, ______________, and the operational environment.
- APolicy manuals
- BInspections
- CExecutive Orders
85_____________________ are based on information about terrorist groups such as their operational capability, intentions, activity, and the operational environment.
- AContinuity of Operations Plans (COOPs)
- BCounterterrorism measures
- CDoD Terrorist Threat Levels
- DForce Protection Conditions (FPCONs)
86Although the DoD issues DoD-wide guidance for physical security planning and implementation, you should always consult ______________ for specific guidance.
- AYour component’s policies
- BCongressional legislation
- CExecutive Orders
87As a physical security specialist, you may assume different physical security roles or serve on different working groups, such as the ATWG, TWG, and DCIP.
- ATrue
- BFalse
88_______________ can result from day-to-day observations or more formal oversight.
- AInspection reports
- BIncident reports
- CSurveys
89Antiterrorism physical security measures incorporate detection, deterrence, denial and ____________.
- ADocumentation
- BEvaluation
- CDetermination
- DNotification
90The only factor that should be considered when selecting an Intrusion Detection System is the criticality of the asset.
- ATrue
- BFalse
91What type of access control system uses verification of an acceptable form of identification such as the Common Access Card, or CAC?
- AManual
- BCombination
- CBiometric
- DPhysical
- EMechanical
- FAutomated
92Controlled lighting is used when it is necessary to limit the brightness of the light.
- ATrue
- BFalse
93What kind of light should be selected in order to enable the security guards to observe intruders at a considerable distance beyond the perimeter?
- AGlare projection
- BEmergency projection
- CDownside illumination
- DStandby illumination
94Response forces ___________________________________ .
- Arespond to alarms and incidents
- Bdispatch response forces and mobile patrols
- Cguard a high-priority resource
- Dcan cover large areas in a timely manner
95The purpose of an intrusion detection system is to deter, detect, and _____________ intrusion.
- AForbid
- BPrevent
- CDocument
- DThwart
96A security system with a camera that captures an image, converts it to a video signal, and transmits it to a monitoring station defines _______________________ .
- Ascreening equipment
- Bvisual monitoring and deterrence
- Caccess control systems
- Dclosed circuit television (CCTV)
97The central point for collecting the alarm status from the Premise Control Units (PCU s) handling the alarms under the control of an IDS is the _______________________________ .
- ATransmission line hub
- BSecurity technology and equipment installation
- Cmonitoring station
98Biometric and non-biometric access control systems are examples of the __________________________ type of access control system.
- ACombination
- BAutomated
- CManual
- DMechanical
- EPhysical
99What Security-in-Depth principle is illustrated by a vault with special controls to limit access to only some of the personnel that work within a secure facility?
- Acontrol
- Barea security
- Cenclaving
- Dseparation
100What type of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitoring provides local centralized monitoring?
- AProprietary monitoring
- BCentral station monitoring
- CLocal monitoring
- DNone of the above
101A visitor with a record in the Joint Personnel Adjudication System (JPAS) reflecting the appropriate level of access eligibility but who does not have a verified need-to-know for information protected within the controlled area would require ___________________________.
- Aa visitor badge
- Ban "escort required" visitor badge only
- Can "escort required" visitor badge and escort
- Da CAC and escort
102A closed circuit television (CCTV) is an especially valuable security asset because it can be used effectively without establishing procedures and providing training in its use.
- ATrue
- BFalse
103When is a security force response required?
- AWhen an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) sensor is triggered.
- BWhen an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) is not reporting an alarm.
- CWhen an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) protects a highly critical asset.
- DWhen an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) alarm notification is received.
104Conveyor belt style x-ray machines are classified as what type of screening equipment?
- APedestrian
- BFixed
- CIntrusive
- DPortable
105What are the types of screening equipment most frequently used by the Department of Defense (DoD)?
- AFixed and portable
- BPortable and closed circuit television (CCTV)
- CDetection and reporting
106What Intrusion Detection System (IDS) operational phase is activated when the Premise Control Unit (PCU) receives signals from sensors in a protected area and incorporates these signals into a communications scheme?
- AResponse/Assessment
- BDetection
- CDispatch
- DReporting
107What is the preferred method of Intrusion Detection System (IDS) monitoring?
- ACentral station monitoring
- BProprietary monitoring
- CRemote monitoring
- DLocal monitoring
108What type of access control system is a card swipe, with or without a personal identification number, or PIN?
- ACombination
- BPhysical
- CManual
- DAutomated
- EBiometric
109What type of lighting is used when additional lighting is necessary and may be activated by alarm or motion detector?
- AStandby lighting
- BSurface lighting
- CEmergency lighting
- DContinuous lighting
110What are signs, barriers, and fences used for in perimeter protection systems?
- ADeterring unlawful or unauthorized entry
- BEstablishing legal boundaries
- CPreventing all types of penetration
- DIntegrating protection assets
- EPreventing observation from outside
111Active barrier systems define perimeters and ensure only authorized personnel are permitted access.
- ATrue
- BFalse
112When are static observation posts used?
- AWhen continuous surveillance is required.
- BTo cover large areas in a timely manner.
- CTo monitor alarms and respond to emergencies.
- DTo monitor entry to a facility or secure area.
113The use of _____________________ provides security personnel the ability to visually monitor multiple areas simultaneously.
- Aaccess control
- Bclosed circuit television (CCTV)
- Ca visual deterrent system
- Dscreening equipment
114What does an Intrusion Detection System (IDS) detect?
- AOnly unauthorized intrusions
- BA change in the state of an indoor detection device by a change in outdoor environmental devices
- CA change in state of detection devices that may require further investigation
- DPrevention of an unauthorized intrusion
115While both Class V and Class VI GSA-approved containers offer protection against covert and surreptitious entry, only Class V containers offer protection against forced entry.
- ATrue
- BFalse
116What is the purpose of the warning label on GSA-approved containers manufactured beginning April 2007?
- AWarns against storing classified information with sensitive materials such as money and weapons
- BWarns against storing unclassified information in the container
- CWarns against unapproved modification of the container
117In AA&E storage facilities, why must drainage structures be secured if they cross the fence line and meet certain size requirements?
- ATo prevent rats from infesting the facility
- BTo prevent anyone from crawling into the area
- CTo prevent water from backing up into the facility
118Unauthorized entrance into restricted areas is subject to prosecution.
- ATrue
- BFalse
119Which is NOT approved for the open storage of classified information?
- AStorage closet
- BSecure room
- CVault
120Which DoD-mandated practice reduces protection, storage, and inventory costs?
- AConsolidate AA&E storage facilities
- BCategorize and store AA&E by security risk categories
- CDemilitarize/dispose of obsolete and unserviceable AA&E
121You can find construction standards for vaults and secure rooms in DoD facilities by reviewing _________________.
- Athe NISPOM
- BICS 705
- CDoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4, Information Security Program
122DoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4, Information Security Program
Which of the following statements is true about locks and keys for security containers?- AKeys may be stored in your desk drawer as long as it locks.
- BKey-operated locks may not be used on storage containers securing classified material.
- CLocks and keys should be afforded the same level of protection as the material or information being secured.
123Certain non-GSA-approved security containers are approved for storage of classified information in the DoD.
- ATrue
- BFalse
124The design goal for an AA&E storage facility is that is must meet or exceed 10 minutes of resistance to _________________ entry.
- Acovert
- Bsurreptitious
- Cforced
125Why should you categorize, store, and protect AA&E by security risk categories?
- ATo reduce overall protection costs
- BTo save space
- CTo identify obsolete AA&E
126Storage containers and facilities protect valuable, sensitive, and classified information by ________________.
- Aconsolidating no longer needed classified information
- Bdelaying unauthorized entry
- Cpreventing all unauthorized entry
127If you need to know the manufacture date of a GSA-approved container, on which label would you find that information?
- ANumber label
- BGSA-approved label
- CWarning label
- DTest certification label
- EContainer identification label
128Which of these statements is true about storage of Confidential information?
- ASupplemental protection is not normally required when storing Confidential information in an approved storage container.
- BSupplemental protection is always required when storing Confidential information regardless of which storage container is used.
- CSupplemental protection is usually required when storing Confidential information in a secure room.
129Storage containers and facilities are not only important to our national security, but also to the safety of the general public.
- ATrue
- BFalse
130For AA&E SRC III & IV, if no IDS is present Security Force checks during non-duty hours is required.
- ATrue
- BFalse
131Storage containers or facilities will always provide enough protection for certain types of information or material on their own.
- ATrue
- BFalse
132To store classified information, you may only use Class V or Class VI GSA-approved containers as the other classes of containers may no longer be used.
- ATrue
- BFalse
133What is considered an additional measure for AA&E storage?
- AIDS
- BCommunications
- CCCTV
- DSecurity Forces
134There are certain times when you must change the combination on locks securing classified information. Which of the following is not a time when you must change the combination?
- AWhen the container is taken out of service
- BWhen the container or lock has been subject to possible compromise
- CWhen anyone with knowledge of the combination no longer requires access
- DPrior to going on extended leave
135Which group uses the same set of storage requirements based on security risk categories?
- AArms and ammunition
- BArms and explosives
- CAmmunition and explosives
136What items can a Nuclear Storage Facility store?
- ANothing
- BWeapons
- CPrecious metals
- DMoney
137Perimeter lighting in AA&E storage facilities is _________________________.
- ADetermined by DoD Components
- BA good best practice
- CRequired
138Which of these statements is true about storage of Secret information?
- ASupplemental protection is not required when storing Secret information in a vault.
- BSupplemental protection is always required when storing Secret information.
- CSupplemental protection is never required when storing Secret information in a secure room.
139What do the classes of GSA-approved containers represent?
- AWhich ones are approved for the storage of classified information
- BThe types of sensitive material for which each container is approved
- CVarying degrees of protection against different types of unauthorized entry
140Who uses SCIFs?
- AThe intelligence community
- BOnly those who have a Top Secret clearance
- CAnyone who stores classified information
141If you needed to find information on physical security standards for SCIFs, which reference would you consult?
- AICD 705
- BThe NISPOM
- CDoDM 5200.01, Volumes 1-4
142For storage of classified you may use which GSA-approved containers?
- AOnly containers with black labels
- BContainers with any GSA-approved label
- COnly containers with red labels
143Which of the following is an example of a locking device?
- ABolt
- BCylinder
- CKey
144You are considering locking solutions for your facility. When assessing the life safety aspect of the solution, which of the following must be considered?
- Afire alarms on doors
- Bkeeping intruders out
- Cemergency exit from a locked door
145The use of a master key system is not acceptable in ____________.
- Abarracks
- Bgeneral office areas
- Csecure areas
146Which of the following must you do when opening an electromechanical lock such as the X-07, X-08, X-09, and X-10?
- ACount the number of dial rotations in between each number in the combination.
- BTurn the dial and stop it when you see the correct number displayed on the LCD.
147All locks consist of three components, one of which is an operating mechanism. Which of the following is NOT one of the other two components?
- ALocking device
- BSwitching device
- CSecuring device
148Which of the following should you do before changing a combination?
- ATry the combination three times
- BCall your FSO
- CLock drawer in open position
149The lock you are using has an LCD rather than a dial with imprinted numbers. You are using _______________________.
- Aan electromechanical combination lock
- Ba combination padlock
- Ca mechanical combination lock
150Under Federal Specification FFL-2937, only the S&G 2740 is approved for use as a mechanical combination lock.
- ATrue
- BFalse
151Which of the following is not a locking device for a key-operated lock?
- ABolt
- BPin
- CLatch
152Which type of cylinder provides a locking solution that minimizes the rekeying burden?
- ARim cylinder
- BInterchangeable core cylinder
- CMortise cylinder
153When assessing the life safety aspect of a locking solution for a facility door, which of the following must be considered?
- AThe door must be locked to prevent unauthorized entry, but allow those inside to exit through the door without unlocking it.
- BThe door must be locked to prevent unauthorized entry and exit.
- CThe door must be unlocked so that those inside can exit without having to unlock the door.
154RIsk Management is defined as the process of selecting and implemeting ________________________ to achieve an acceptable level of risk at an acceptable cost.
- AAssets
- BCountermeasures
- CProcedures
- DThreats
155Select the correct order of steps in the Risk Management Process.
- AIdentify Assets, Identify Threats, Assess Vulnerabilities, Assess Risks, Determine Countermeasures
- BIdentify Threats, Assess Vulnerabilities, Identify Assets, Determine Countermeasures, Assess Risks
- CAssess Vulnerabilities, Identify Assets, Determine Countermeasures, Identify Threats, Assess RIsks
- DDetermine Countermeasures, Assess RIsks, Assess Vulnerabilities, Identify Assets, Identify Threats
156A key and lock custodian should change or rotate locks at least _____________.
- Amonthly
- Bannually
- Cquarterly
157Which of the following statements is true?
- AYou may not change a combination without a commercial locksmith.
- BYou may never allow a commercial locksmith to change your combination.
- CYou may allow a commercial locksmith to change your combination under certain circumstances.
158Susan Johnson knows the combination to a security container and Susan lost her clearance today, but she was not terminated from her job. What must happen?
- AThe combination on that security container must be changed.
- BNothing must happen. Susan knows she’s no longer authorized and will not access the storage container.
- CThe security container must be replaced.
159Which electromechanical lock uses battery power?
- AS&G 2740B
- BX-10
- CX-08
160Which of the following is the purpose of a lock’s switching device?
- ATo allow or deny entry into a container or area
- BTo authorize the locking device to open
- CTo keep the area or container secured
161You need to decide what type of locking system to use for a storage closet. The closet does not hold classified or sensitive information, but you want to deter entry. Which type of key-operated lock should you use?
- AA padlock
- BA built-in lock
162The two primary types of locks used within DoD are ___________ and key locks.
- ABiometric
- BEncoded
- CVoice activated
- DCombination
163Which statement best describes the relationship between a locking solution’s level of protection and its cost and labor effort?
- ALocking solutions do not have a correlation between level of protection and cost and labor effort; it simply depends on the specific solution.
- BLocking solutions that provide a higher level of protection are more costly, but less labor-intensive.
- CLocking solutions that provide a higher level of protection are more costly and labor-intensive.
164Using birth dates when changing combination numbers is acceptable as long as you don’t use your own.
- ATrue
- BFalse
165Pin tumblers are most commonly employed on _______ locks?
- Acombination
- Btubular
- Ccylinder
166What is not a responsibility of the Key Custodian?
- AAudit Keys monthly
- BChange or rotate locks quarterly
- CAudit Locks monthly
- DKeep key control register
167Which of the following is the switching device for a key-operated lock?
- Abolt
- Bcylinder
- Ckey
168Which of the following is a disadvantage to using a master key system?
- AThe cost to re-key all of the locks in the system.
- BIt is harder to pick the locks.
- CIt is harder to copy the locks.
169The S&G 2937 lock is an example of which type of combination lock?
- Amechanical
- Bpadlock
- Celectromechanical built-in
170Many building codes require a facility’s exit doors to contain which of the following devices?
- AAn access card
- BEmergency egress hardware
- CA padlock
171You are making a decision about the locking system to be used in a bulk storage area that contains classified information. Which type of key-operated lock should you use?
- AA built-in lock
- BAn approved padlock
172You need to review the requirements that electromechanical locks meet. Which of the following specifications should you reference?
- AFederal Specification FF-L-2740B
- BFederal Specification FF-P-110
- CFederal Specification FF-L-2937
173Which of the following is authorized by the DoD for securing conventional arms, ammunition, and explosives (AA&E)?
- AX-10 lock
- BCombination padlock
- CS&G 833C
174You need to secure classified information. Which of these locks could you use?
- AX-10 electromechanical lock
- BS&G 2740B
- CS&G 8077 padlock
- DAll of these locks
175In the Risk Management Process, Assets can be assigned to each of the following categories:
- AInformation
- BActivities and Operations
- CSecurity
- DPeople
176Which of the following are undesirable events that can adversely affect an asset?
- AAccess controls
- BLoss of classified documents
- CTerrorist bombing
- DUnauthorized access to sensitive computer files
177In the Risk Management Process, a _____________ rating indicates that a compromise to assets would have serious consequences resulting in loss of classified or highly sensitive data that could impair operations affecting nation interest for a limited period of time
- AMedium
- BLow
- CHigh
- DCritical
178Which of the following are examples of threats?
- ATerrorists
- BInsiders
- CNatural Disasters
- DAll of the above
179A threat may include which of the following?
- AThe intention and capability of an adversary to undertake detrimental action against an asset owners interest.
- BPotential vulnerabilities related to specific assets and their undesirable actions.
- CAny indication, or event with the potential to cause loss or damage to an asset.
180Which of the following are general areas of potential vulnerabilities?
- AOperational
- BFacility
- CSecurity
- DHuman
- EInformation
181Compute this Risk Assessment formula: Risk = Impact x (Threat x Vulnerability)
Impact = 75
Threat = 0.6
Vulnerability = 0.5- A225
- B75.1
- C22.5
- D738
182Which of the following are categories of countermeasures in the Risk Management Process?
- ASecurity
- BManpower
- CProcedures
- DEquipment
183Risk Management is the process of selecting and implementing security countermeasures to achieve an acceptable level of risk at any cost.
- ATrue
- BFalse
184Capability refers to an adversary's ability to act as a potential threat.
- ATrue
- BFalse
185What common vulnerability areas might an adversary exploit?
- AAssets at risk of visual observation
- BInformation leaks
- CPhysically stored equipment
- DAll of the above
186Wireless computer networks are an example of a vulnerability in which category?
- AHuman
- BOperational
- CInformational
- DFacility
- EEquipment
187Which property control systems are an example of a vulnerability in which category?
- AHuman
- BOperational
- CInformational
- DFacility
- EEquipment
188Which of the following are important roles of the NISP in Continuous Monitoring?
- Ato establish organizational business practices
- Bto ensure that cleared industry safeguards classified information and information systems
- Cto protect critical assets
- Dto thwart foreign adversaries and insider threats to information systems
189This guidance requires that individuals' actions on a classified contractor information system be auditable.
- ANational Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
- BNational Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication (NIST SP)
- CDoD Policy and Guidance
190These policies and guidance establishes the requirement for a continuous and integrated capability to monitor and audit for threats and vulnerabilities from internal and external sources.
- ANational Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
- BNational Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication (NIST SP)
- CDoD Policy and Guidance
191This publication provides detailed guidance on the development and implementation of an Information Security Continuous Monitoring (ISCM) program and security-focused configuration management.
- ANational Industrial Security Program Operating Manual (NISPOM)
- BNational Institute of Standards and Technology Special Publication (NIST SP)
- CDoD Policy and Guidance
192Which of the following identify how the RMF supports risk management?
- AThe RMF process ensures that business process decisions can override user information system concerns.
- BThe RMF process provides a flexible approach with decision-making at tier 3.
- CThe RMF process ensures traceability and transparency across all levels of the organization,
- DThe RMF process emphasizes continuous monitoring and timely correction of deficiencies,
193An Information Systems Owner (ISO) categorizes systems at this RMF level:
- ATier 1
- BTier 2
- CTier 3
194The Program Manager/System Manager (PM/SM) enforces RMF authorizations decisions at this level:
- ATier 1
- BTier 2
- CTier 3
195ISCM strategy at this level is focused on the controls that address the establishment and management of the organization's information security program, including establishing the minimum frequency with which each security control or metric is to be assessed or monitored.
- ATier 1
- BTier 2
- CTier 3
196ISCM strategy at this level is focused on high-level information security governance policy as it relates to risk to the organization as a whole, to its core missions, and to its business functions.
- ATier 1
- BTier 2
- CTier 3
Information
- Description
- Security
- Author
- Arthur Casto
- Language
- English
- Views
- 984
- Tags
- Rating
- No ratings yet Rate this quiz