Cor

1. 1The arrhythmia on this link is called ____

   

   1. Asinus arrhythmia
   2. Bsinus bradycardia
   3. CA Fib
2. 2The arrhythmia on this link is called ____

   

   1. ASinus Tachycardia
   2. BSVT
   3. CVT
   4. DVF
3. 3The arrhythmia on this link is called ____

   

   1. Asinus rhythm
   2. BFirst degree AV block
   3. CA flutter
   4. DMobitz !!
4. 4The arrhythmia on this link is called ____

   

   1. Asinus bradycardia
   2. Bsinus rhythm
   3. C3rd Degree AV block
   4. DA Fib
5. 5The arrhythmia on this link is called ____

   

   1. AMobitz !I
   2. B3rd degree AV block
   3. CWenckbach
   4. DA Fib
6. 6The arrhythmia on this link is called ____ (include the entire strip, not just the abnormality)

   

   1. AA Fib
   2. BSinus arrhythmia with PJC
   3. Csinus bradycardia with PJC
7. 7The arrhythmia on this link is called ____

   

   1. AVT
   2. BV Fib
   3. CPEA
   4. DConduction problem
8. 8The arrhythmia on this link is called ____

   

   1. AIVR
   2. BSinus bradycardia
   3. CA Fib
   4. D1st degree heart block
9. 9The arrhythmia on this link is called ____

   

   1. AFirst degree AV block
   2. BSinus rhythm
   3. CMobitz !!
   4. DPassive junctional rhythm
10. 10The arrhythmia on this link is called ____

    

    1. AV Fib
    2. BA Fib
    3. CA Flutter
    4. DSinus Tachycardia

11. 11The arrhythmia on this link is called ____ (include the entire strip, not just the abnormality)

    

    1. ANormal sinus rhythm with sinus pause
    2. B1st degree AV block
    3. CMobitz !!
    4. DIVR
12. 12The arrhythmia on this link is called ____

    

    1. AMobitz !!
    2. B1st Degree AV block
    3. C3rd Degree AV block
    4. DWenckebach
13. 13The arrhythmia on this link is called ____

    

    1. AVF
    2. BVT
    3. CIVR
14. 14The arrhythmia on this link is called ____

    

    1. A3rd Degree AV block
    2. BMobitz II
    3. CJunctional
    4. DIVR
15. 15The arrhythmia on this link is called ____

    

    1. ANSR with PVC's
    2. BNSR with PAC's
    3. CVentricular Trigeminy
    4. DMobitz II
16. 16The two branches of the left coronary artery are the

    1. Aleft anterior descending, left posterior descending
    2. Bcircumflex, right coronary artery
    3. Ccircumflex, left anterior descending
    4. Dleft lateral artery, circumflex
17. 17The heart's muscular layer that allows the heart to contract is the

    1. Aendocardium
    2. Bmyocardium
    3. Cepicardium
    4. Dpericardium
18. 18The chamber that receives blood from the vena cavas is the

    1. ALA
    2. BRA
    3. CLV
    4. DRV
19. 19Atrial kick supplies the ventricles with about ________ blood volume

    1. A20%
    2. B50%
    3. C80%
    4. D100%
20. 20During ventricular systole, the

    1. Aaortic and tricuspid valves close
    2. Btricuspid and pulmonic valves close
    3. Cmitral and aortic valves open
    4. Dpulmonic and aortic valves open
21. 21The curcumflex artery mostly supplies the

    1. ARA
    2. Blateral wall of the RV
    3. Cseptal wall of the LV
    4. Dlateral wall of the LV
22. 22Cardiac Output equals

    1. Aheart rate x stroke volume
    2. Bheart rate x venous pressure
    3. Cheart rate x systemic pressure
    4. Dheart rate x atrial kick
23. 23Vessels that supply the heart's structures with oxygenated blood are the

    1. Apulmonary arteries
    2. Bcoronary arteries
    3. Csystemic arteries
    4. Dvena cavas
24. 24Spread of depolarization to the LA travels along

    1. Athe internodal tracts
    2. Bthe bundle of HIS
    3. Cthe L bundle branch
    4. DBachmann's bundle
25. 25The right side of the heart pumps blood into the

    1. Apulmonary circulation
    2. Baorta
    3. Csystemic circulation
    4. Dcoronary arteries
26. 26Preload refers to the ventricular stretch

    1. Aat the start of atrial systole
    2. Bat the end of atrial diastole
    3. Cat the start of ventricular diastole
    4. Dat the end of ventricular diastole
27. 27Intrinsically, the SA node can normally initiate ______ impulses each minute

    1. A29-40
    2. B40-60
    3. C40-80
    4. D60-100
28. 28The PMI (point of maximum impulse) is best heard

    1. Aat the apex of the heart
    2. Bat the base of the heart
    3. Cover the aortic area
    4. Dover the pulmonic area
29. 29Ventricular depolarization/systole

    1. Apropels blood to the atria
    2. Bcoincides with atrial systole
    3. Cresults from electrical stimulation
    4. Dprevents blood flow into the coronary arteries
30. 30Mitral stenosis can

    1. Aincrease preload
    2. Bdecrease preload
    3. Cincrease afterload
    4. Ddecreases afterload
31. 31Atrial systole can also be called

    1. Aatrial relaxation
    2. Batrial kick
    3. Catrial pressure
    4. Datrial repolarization
32. 32Rupture of a papillary muscle can

    1. Alead to valve regurgitation, thereby affecting SV and CO
    2. Bdecreases electrical stimulation
    3. Cocclude a coronary artery
    4. Densure electrical impulses conduct regularity
33. 33Which coronary artery supplies the AV node in most people

    1. Athe R coronary artery
    2. BThe L coronary artery
    3. Cthe LAD artery
    4. Dthe circumflex artery
34. 34Fast heart rates can decrease CO because of

    1. Aan increase in SV
    2. Bthe increased force of contraction
    3. Cthe shortened ventricular filling time
    4. Dtheir relaxing effect on the heart valves
35. 35The conduction system refers to

    1. Athe heart's mechanical system
    2. Bthe heart's electrical system
    3. Cthe AV node's function
    4. Dventricular contraction
36. 36Oxygenated blood returns to the heart via the

    1. Apulmonary arteries
    2. Bvena cavas
    3. Cpulmonary veins
    4. Daorta
37. 37The tricuspid valve is located between the

    1. ARA and LA
    2. BLA and LV
    3. CRV and LV
    4. DRA and RV
38. 38Prior to the onset of late ventricular diastole (before atrial systole), the ventricles have

    1. Areceived about 20% of their blood volume
    2. Breceived about 80% of their blood volume
    3. Cfilled to full capacity
    4. Dcontracted
39. 39The CO can decrease with slow heart rates because

    1. Athe SV cannot increase any further
    2. Bof rapid AV conduction
    3. Cof poor LV muscle contraction
    4. Dof valvular dysfunction
40. 40The main property of the AV node is to

    1. Aa forward 20% extra blood volume to the ventricles
    2. Bslow impulse conduction velocity/speed
    3. Censure a regular rhythm of impulse transmission
    4. Dpromote atrial systole
41. 41The cells' ability to initiate impulses is called

    1. Aautomaticity
    2. Bexcitability
    3. Cconductivity
    4. Dcontractility
42. 42If the SA node fails, the AV junction can intrinsically generate ____ impulses per minute

    1. A20-40
    2. B40-60
    3. C60-80
    4. D80-100
43. 43The PMI is located at the

    1. A2nd R ICS (intercostal space)
    2. B2nd L ICS
    3. C5th R ICS
    4. D5th L ICS
44. 44An S3 can indicate

    1. Aan atrial gallop
    2. Bthe apical pulse
    3. Cheart failure
    4. Dclosure of the mitral valve
45. 45At the aortic area

    1. AS1 is louder than S2
    2. BS2 is louder than S1
    3. CS2 cannot be heard
    4. DS1 and S2 sound the same
46. 46Palpitations can be

    1. Asustained
    2. Binsignificant
    3. Ccaused by the use of bronchodilators
    4. Dany of the above
47. 47Pulsus alternans is characterized by

    1. Aalternating regular and irregular rhythms
       
    2. Balternating strong and weak pulses
    3. Cincreased rate with expiration
    4. Ddecreased rate with expiration
48. 48Auscultation of the mitral valve is best heard at the

    1. A2nd R ICS, adjacent to the sternum
    2. B2nd L ICS, adjacent to the sternum
    3. C5th L ICS, medial to the mid-clavicle
    4. Dlower L sternal border
49. 49Acute MI pain can radiate to

    1. Athe jaw and neck
    2. Bthe left arm
    3. Cthe back
    4. Dany of the above
50. 50Unilateral leg edema can signify

    1. Aleft sided heart failure
    2. Bsuperior vena cava syndrome
    3. Cvenous insufficiency
    4. Dventricular diastole
51. 51Auscultation of the pulmonic valve is best heard at the

    1. A2nd R ICS
    2. B2nd L ICS
    3. C5th R ICS
    4. D5th L ICS
52. 52During atrial systole, you might auscultate an

    1. AS1
    2. BS2
    3. CS3
    4. DS4
53. 53Elevated JVP might be visualized in the patient with

    1. ARV MI
    2. BRVF
    3. Ccor pulmonale
    4. Dany of the above
54. 54During inspection of the chest , the pulsation of the apical pulse is always visible

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
55. 55Palpation of a normal pulse strength is documented as

    1. A1+
    2. B2+
    3. C3+
    4. D4+
56. 56The ____ valve is heard loudest at the 2nd R ICS, adjacent to the sternum

    1. AAortic
    2. BPulmonic
    3. CTricuspd
    4. DMitral
57. 57Which cardiac condition would most likely cause chest pain that eases by sitting up and leaning forward?

    1. AAcute Paricarditis
    2. BCHF
58. 58A pneumothorax can potentially to displace the PMI

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
59. 59The S1 heart sound

    1. Arepresents closure of the mitral and tricuspid valves
    2. Bsignifies the end of ventricular diastole
    3. Cis heard loudest at the apex
    4. Dall of the above
60. 60The S3 and S4 adventitious heart sounds

    1. Aare best heard with the stethoscope's diaphragm
    2. Bcan indicate heart failure
    3. Ccorrespond with ventricular systole
    4. Dall of the above
61. 61To observe the JVP

    1. Aturn the patient's head away from the side being examined
    2. Belevate the head of the bed to 90 degrees
    3. Causcultate the 2nd L ICS
    4. Densure dim lighting to distinguish the JVP shadows
62. 62An adventitious heart sound heard during atrial diastole would be

    1. AS1
    2. BS2
    3. CS3
    4. DS4
63. 63When discussing the dorsalis pedis pulse

    1. Apalpating the R and L simultaneously is safe
    2. Bit should always be easily palpable in normal adults
    3. Cit is located just below the malleolus
    4. Dits detection requires very deep palpation
64. 64An S4 heart sound

    1. Ais called a ventricular gallop
    2. Bis heard during ventricular diastole
    3. Cis heard during atrial diastole
    4. Doccurs before S2
65. 65Pulsus paradoxus is characterized by

    1. Aalternating regular and irregular rhythms
    2. Balternating strong and weak pulses
    3. Cdecreased amplitude with expiration
    4. Ddecreased amplitude with inspiration
66. 66When listening over the mitral area, S1 is louder than S2

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
67. 67Normally, pulsations of the internal jugular veins

    1. Achange in response to positioning
    2. Bare visualized at 10cm above the suprasternal notch
    3. Care noticeable when the patient stands
    4. Dall of the above
68. 68Syncope can be a symptom of

    1. Avasodilatation
    2. Ba slow heart rate
    3. Cexcessive vagal activity
    4. Dany of the above
69. 69When documenting a pulse's strength, a weak pulse is

    1. A0
    2. B1+
    3. C2+
    4. D3+
70. 70In which of the following conditions might the patient's chest heaviness ease if s/he rests?

    1. Aacute pericarditis
    2. Bdissecting aneurysm
    3. Cstable angina
    4. Dpulmonary embolism
71. 71Palpating both carotid arteries simultaneously can decrease the HR and produce syncope

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
72. 72An irregular pulse is always detected in patients with

    1. Acardiac tamponade
    2. BMI
    3. Caortic dissection
    4. Datrial fibrillation
73. 73In Lead I

    1. ARA is negative, LL is positive
    2. BLA is negative, LL is positive
    3. CRA is negative, LA is positive
    4. DRA is negative, RL is positive
74. 74CK elevation will be detected with

    1. Aelevated HDLs
    2. BCVA
    3. Cdepolarization
    4. Ddecreased CO
75. 75After MI, the following LDH isoenzymes can be expected

    1. ALD1 and LD2 are absent
    2. BLD1 = LD2
    3. CLD1 < LD2
    4. DLD1 > LD2
76. 76Depolarization

    1. Ais a state of excitability
    2. Bcoincides with discharge of electricity
    3. Cresults from ionic activity
    4. Dall of the above
77. 77Oral anticoagulation dosing is determined by assessing the

    1. ACK
    2. BAST
    3. CPTT
    4. DPT or INR
78. 78The normal PR interval measures

    1. Aless than 0.12 seconds
    2. B0.12 to 0.20 seconds
    3. C0.20 to 0.40 seconds
    4. Dmore than 0.40 seconds
79. 79The Q wave is the first ____ of a ventricular complex

    1. Afirst negative deflection
    2. Bfirst positive deflection
    3. Csecond negative deflection
    4. Dsecond positive deflection
80. 80To calculate an irregular ventricular rate

    1. Adivide the # of small boxes between 2 QRSs into 1500
    2. Bdivide the # of large boxes between 2 QRSs into 300
    3. Ccount the # of QRSs in a 6 second strip, and x 10
    4. Dall of the above
81. 81The QT interval represents the time frame for

    1. Aventricular depolarization to occur
    2. Bventricular repolarization to occur
    3. Cventricular depolarization and repolarization to occur
82. 82In lead III

    1. ARA is negative, LL is positive
    2. BLA is negative, LL is positive
    3. CRA is negative, LA is positive
    4. DRA is negative, RL is positive
83. 83The cardiac cycle includes

    1. AThe P wave
    2. Bthe QRS complex
    3. Cthe T wave
    4. Dthe PQRST
84. 84An MI can be safely diagnosed with the CK-MB result because this isoenzyme

    1. Arepresents atrial depolarization
    2. Bis specific to cardiac tissue
    3. Creflects the CO
    4. Dcauses the ventricles to contract
85. 85Cholesterol is carried on

    1. ALDL
    2. BAST
    3. CPTT
    4. Dmyoglobin
86. 86An impulse travelling toward the area where a positive electrode is placed is recorded as

    1. Aa positive deflection
    2. Bnegative deflection
    3. Cflat line
    4. Dany of the above
87. 87Torsades de Pointes can result from

    1. Ashort PR intervals
    2. Blong PR intervals
    3. Cshort QT intervals
    4. Dlong QT intervals
88. 88Normally, the majority of cardiac electrical activity travels to the electrode placed on the

    1. ARA
    2. BLA
    3. CRl
    4. DLL
89. 89The P wave represents

    1. Aatrial depolarization
    2. Bventricular depolarization
    3. Cventricular repolarization
    4. Dconduction through the AV node
90. 90The QT interval

    1. Astarts at the onset of the QRS complex
    2. Bends after the T wave
    3. Cshould be less than half the R-R interval
    4. Dall of the above
91. 91Prior to obtaining lipid studies

    1. Athe CK-MB must be elevated
    2. Bpatients must be fasting
    3. Cthe INR must be within normal range
    4. DCO must be satisfactory
92. 92The QRS complex

    1. Ashould measure more than 0.10 seconds
    2. Breflects ventricular depolarization
    3. Calways has a Q, an R, and an S wave
    4. Dall of the above
93. 93Heparin dosing is determined by assessing the

    1. APTT
    2. BPT
    3. CINR
94. 94The PR interval is measured from the

    1. Astart of the P wave to the start of the QRS
    2. Bstart of the P wave to the end of the QRS
    3. Cend of the P wave to the start of the QRS
    4. Dend of the P wave to the end of the QRS
95. 95Which troponins can be evaluated to detect myocardial damage?

    1. Atroponins I and C
    2. Btroponins I and T
    3. Ctroponins T and C
    4. Dtroponins I, T, and C
96. 96Ventricular repolarization is reflected by the

    1. AP wave
    2. BQRS complex
    3. CT wave
    4. DPR interval
97. 97In lead II

    1. ARA is negative, LL is positive
    2. BLA is negative, LL is positive
    3. CRA is negative, LA is positive
    4. DRA is negative, RL is positive
98. 98Six seconds on ECG paper includes

    1. A15 small boxes
    2. B15 large boxes
    3. C30 small boxes
    4. D30 large boxes
99. 99Which of the following ST segments is abnormal?

    1. A0.5mm below the baseline
    2. B0.5mm above the baseline
    3. Cthe iso-electric ST segment
    4. D2mm above the baseline
100. 100The normal ventricle requires ____ to contract

     1. A< 0.02 seconds
     2. B< 0.10 seconds
     3. C> 0.12 seconds
     4. D> 0.20 seconds
101. 101The CK begins to elevate ____ after muscle damage

     1. A4-6 hours
     2. B10-15 hours
     3. C12-24 hours
     4. D24-36 hours
102. 102The patient with a prosthetic mechanical valve, whose INR is 1.2 needs

     1. Ato increase his warfarin dosage
     2. Bto decrease his warfarin dosage
     3. Cto maintain his same/usual warfarin dose
     4. Dto withold the next warfarin dose
103. 103In lead II, normal ventricular depolarization produces a

     1. AP wave with a positive deflection
     2. BP wave with a negative deflection
     3. CQRS with a positive deflection
     4. DQRS with a negative deflection
104. 104The normal CK-MB

     1. Avaries according to the HDL
     2. Bis less than 5% of the total CK
     3. Cwill elevate with cerebral injury
105. 105Spinach and other foods rich in Vitamin K can

     1. Aincrease the CK and AST
     2. Bdecrease the CK and AST
     3. Cincrease clotting times
     4. Ddecrease clotting times
106. 106Repolarization

     1. Arepresents a state of excitability
     2. Bis a state of relaxation
     3. Cindicates that the ventricles are contracting
     4. Dis reflective of myocardial damage
107. 107The time reflected between each darkened 'bold' line on ECG paper is
     

     1. A0.02 seconds
     2. B0.04 seconds
     3. C0.12 seconds
     4. D0.20 seconds
108. 108The R wave

     1. Ais positively deflected
     2. Bindicates that the atria are contracting
     3. Cmeasures > 0.20 seconds
     4. Dreflects conduction through the AV node
109. 109When QRS complexes occur at intervals with slight variances of < 0.12 seconds

     1. Aextra P waves are always seen
     2. Bthe ventricles are not depolarizing
     3. Cthe rate is always rapid
     4. Dthe rhythm is considered regular
110. 110In the heart with a normal conduction system

     1. Aextra P waves are seen
     2. Beach P wave is followed by a QRS
     3. CP waves differ in morphology (appearance)
     4. Dthe absence of P waves is expected
111. 111The negatively deflected wave indicates that the impulse

     1. Ahas not been generated
     2. Bis travelling toward a positive electrode
     3. Cis travelling away from a positive electrode
     4. Drequires stronger electrical current
112. 112U waves

     1. Ashould deflect in the same direction as the T wave
     2. Bare only 1/4 the height of the T wave
     3. Cmay be absent on the normal rhythm strip
     4. Dall of the above
113. 113Colour of RA

     1. ABlack
     2. BGreen
     3. CBrown
     4. DWhite
     5. ERed
114. 114Colour of LA

     1. Ablack
     2. Bgreen
     3. Cbrown
     4. Dred
115. 115Colour of RL

     1. Ared
     2. Bgreen
     3. Cblack
     4. Dwhite
116. 116Colour of LL

     1. Abrown
     2. Bgreen
     3. Cred
     4. Dblack
117. 117Colour of Precordium (V lead)

     1. Ared
     2. Bblack
     3. Cgreen
     4. Dbrown
118. 118Sinus tachycardia can be caused by

     1. Aexcessive vagal stimulation
     2. Bbeta-blockers, digoxin
     3. Cverapamil, adenosine
     4. Dfever, anxiety, atropine
119. 119Syncope can be a manifestation of any tachycardia because

     1. Athe HR is too slow
     2. Bventricular depolarization does not occur
     3. Cventricular filling times are shortened
     4. Dvagal activity is excessive
120. 120Carotid sinus massage can lead to

     1. Asinus bradycardia
     2. Bsinus block
     3. Csinus arrest
     4. Dany of the above
121. 121In atrial flutter

     1. Aall atrial impulses always reach the ventricles
     2. Bthe AR is always slow
     3. Cthe PR interval is not measurable
     4. Dthe QRS complexes are always wide
122. 122The initial energy level required to convert PAT is

     1. A50 joules
     2. B100 joules
     3. C200 joules
     4. D300 joules
123. 123Junctional escape rhythm can deteriorate to

     1. AIVR
     2. BVT
     3. Cjunctional tachycardia
     4. Dany of the above
124. 124The distinguishable features of Wenckebach are

     1. Aconstant PR interval, AR = VR
     2. Bconstant PR interval, AR > VR
     3. Cvariable PR interval, AR = VR
     4. Dvariable PR interval, AR > VR
125. 125Multifocal PVCs are reflected as

     1. Afrequent beats
     2. Bdifferent looking beats
     3. Cbeats occurring regularly
     4. Dmissing beats
126. 126A regular rhythm with an AR of 110, VR of 110, constant PR interval of 0.12 seconds, QRS complexes of 0.08 seconds is

     1. Asinus tachycardia
     2. BPAT
     3. Catrial fibrillation
     4. DVT
127. 127The most distinguishable feature of atrial fibrillation is

     1. Aa rapid ventricular rate
     2. Ban irregular rhythm
     3. Cvariable PR intervals
     4. Dwide QRS complexes
128. 128Lidocaine is often effective in treating ventricular rhythms because it

     1. Aenhances ventricular depolarization
     2. Bimproves atrial automaticity
     3. Csuppresses ventricular irritability
     4. Dblocks PSNS activity
129. 129A defibrillator should be quickly accessible for the patient in third degree AV block because this block can deteriorate to

     1. AVT
     2. BWenckebach
     3. CIVR
     4. Dsinus bradycardia
130. 130Sinus arrest can be caused by

     1. Aatropine
     2. Bexcessive SNS stimulation
     3. Ccaffeine, nicotine
     4. Ddigoxin toxicity
131. 131PAT with an AR of 240 beats/minute would always have

     1. Aa slower VR
     2. Bregular rhythm
     3. Cnormal PR intervals
     4. Dvisible P waves
132. 132In atrial fibrillation, reduced CO can result from

     1. Athe rapid SA node rate of impulse formation
     2. Bthe irregular ventricular rhythm
     3. Cdisorganized, chaotic atrial quivering
     4. Dshortened PR intervals
133. 133Initial shock treatment of pulseless VT is

     1. Acardioversion, starting with 200 joules
     2. Bcardioversion, starting with 300 joules
     3. Cdefibrillation, starting with 200 joules
     4. Ddefibrillation, starting with 300 joules
134. 134The ____ generates impulses in all heart blocks

     1. ASA node
     2. Batria
     3. CAV junction
     4. Dventricles
135. 135Treatment is rarely needed for first degree AV block because

     1. Athe CO is usually satisfactory
     2. Bthe PR intervals are normal
     3. Cthe AV junction is initiating all impulses
     4. Dthe ventricles are using their property of automaticity
136. 136The P wave may be difficult to distinguish with a PAC, but the P wave occurs because the ____ depolarize

     1. AVentricles
     2. BSA Node
     3. CAtria
     4. DAV Node
137. 137Symptoms associated with junctional escape rhythm result from

     1. Ashortened ventricular filling time
     2. Bshortened atrial filling time
     3. Cslower heart rate
     4. Drapid heart rate
138. 138A regular rhythm with an atrial rate of 68, VR of 68, constant PR intervals of 0.28 seconds, QRS complexes of 0.08 seconds is

     1. Afirst degree AV block
     2. Bsecond degree, Wenckebach
     3. Csecond degree, Mobitz II
     4. Dthird degree AV block
139. 139A ventricular rate of less than 100 beats/minute can be seen in

     1. Asinus bradycardia
     2. Batrial fibrillation
     3. CWenckebach
     4. Dall of the above
140. 140The initial energy level required to cardiovert atrial flutter is

     1. A50 joules
     2. B100 joules
     3. C200 joules
     4. D300 joules
141. 141The P waves in junctional beats and rhythms can

     1. Abe inverted
     2. Bbe buried/lost in the QRS complexes
     3. Cfollow the QRS complexes
     4. Dany of the above
142. 142Decreased CO in AIVR is due to

     1. Aloss of atrial kick
     2. Bslow AV conduction
     3. Cthe excessively rapid HR
     4. Drapid AV conduction
143. 143The patient in VF has

     1. Ainverted P waves
     2. Bshortened PR intervals
     3. Cnormal QRS complexes
     4. Dnone of the above
144. 144The PR interval in Mobitz II can be normal or prolonged

     1. ATrue
     2. BFalse
145. 145Treatment for frequent PVCs might include

     1. Averapamil, adenosine, pacemaker
     2. Bcarotid sinus massage
     3. Catropine, epinephrine
     4. Dlidocaine, pronestyl, potassium
146. 146Potential for clot formation in atrial fibrillation is due to

     1. Aatrial quivering
     2. Bexcessive stimulants
     3. Cincreased CO
     4. Dventricular automaticity
147. 147Atrial and ventricular contractions are not synchronized at all in

     1. Afirst degree AV block
     2. Bsecond degree, Wenckebach
     3. Csecond degree, Mobitz II
     4. Dthird degree AV block
148. 148Symptoms of decreased CO can potentially be experienced with

     1. AJT
     2. BPAT
     3. CIVR
     4. Dany arrhythmia
149. 149Cells in the AV junction have the property of ____ which allows cells in the AV junction to initiate/generate junctional beats/rhythms

     1. Aconduction
     2. Bautomaticity
     3. Cregularity
     4. Delectricity
150. 150Repolarization in ventricular beats/rhythms is reflected as T waves that

     1. Aare absent
     2. Bdeflect in the same direction as the QRS
     3. Cdeflect opposite to the QRS deflection
     4. Dare peaked
151. 151VT with a pulse is treated with

     1. Acardioversion, starting with 100 joules
     2. Bcardioversion, starting with 300 joules
     3. Cdefibrillation, starting with 100 joules
     4. Ddefibrillation, starting with 300 joules
152. 152The term SVT can be used to describe

     1. Ajunctional tachycardia
     2. Buncontrolled atrial fibrillation
     3. CPAT
     4. Dany rapid rhythm that originates above the ventricles
153. 153A rhythm with an AR of 86, a VR of 30, variable, erratic PR intervals with no pattern, and QRS complexes measuring 0.14 seconds is

     1. Asinus arrhythmia
     2. Batrial fibrillation
     3. Csecond degree, Wenckebach
     4. Dthird degree AV block
154. 154The PR intervals cannot be measured in ventricular rhythms because of

     1. Aabsent atrial depolarization
     2. Bshortened conduction through the AV node
     3. Cdecreased CO
     4. Dall of the above
155. 155If a PR interval can be measured in junctional beats/rhythms, it characteristicly measures ____ seconds

     1. A<0.12
     2. B>0.12
     3. C<0.08
     4. D>0.08
156. 156Which patient has the more serious block?
     

     1. AAR 96, VR 48, constant PR 0.24 seconds, QRS 0.20 seconds
     2. BAR 80, VR 40, constant PR 0.22 seconds, QRS 0.10 seconds
     3. CAR 90, VR 45, constant PR 0.26 seconds, QRS 0.08 seconds
157. 157Initial treatment of pulseless VT is

     1. Alidocaine
     2. Bprocainamide
     3. Ccardioversion
     4. Ddefibrillation
158. 158When each and every impulse from the SA node is blocked at the AV node, the rhythm is

     1. Athird degree block
     2. Bjunctional escape rhythm
     3. Catrial fibrillation
     4. DMobitz II
159. 159The drug treatment of choice for symptomatic IVR is

     1. AAtropine
     2. BLidocaine
     3. CEpinepherine
     4. DAdenosine
160. 160Absent P waves in junctional beats/rhythms result from

     1. Arapid atrial depolarization
     2. Bthe excessively slow ventricular rate
     3. Csimultaneous atrial and ventricular depolarization
     4. Datrial contraction that occurs after ventricular contraction
161. 161Decreased CO in VT is due to

     1. Aprolonged PR intervals
     2. Bthe rapid ventricular rate
     3. Cthe AV node's slow rate of impulse conduction
     4. Drapid atrial depolarization
162. 162In Wenckebach

     1. AP waves occur at regular intervals
     2. Bthere are more P waves than QRS complexes
     3. CP waves are normal and all look the same
     4. Dall of the above
163. 163CAD modifiable risk factors include

     1. Asmoking, diet
     2. Bgender, age
     3. Cexercise, genetics
     4. Ddiet, race
164. 164Occlusion of the LAD artery would result in

     1. Alateral wall MI
     2. Banterior wall MI
     3. Cright atrial MI
     4. Dposterior wall MI
165. 165Which one of the heart's layers is damaged with a non-Q wave MI?

     1. AMesoderm
     2. BEndocardium
     3. CEpicardium
     4. DMyocardium
166. 166With angina and following MI, semi-fowler's position is preferred, to

     1. Areverse the necrotic destruction
     2. Bincrease autonomic nervous system activity
     3. Cincrease systemic oxygenation through lung expansion
     4. Dreduce the Cardiac Output
167. 167Hepatomegaly occurs in RVF because

     1. Athe spleen enlarges
     2. Bthe liver is necrotic
     3. Cof increased pressure in the hepatic veins
     4. Dof the development of arrhythmias
168. 168Following MI, the zone of injury

     1. Ahas irreversibly damaged cells
     2. Bis necrotic
     3. Ccauses atrial depolarization
     4. Dhas jeopardized cell
169. 169The risk of CAD decreases with menopause

     1. ATrue
     2. BFalse
170. 170CAD indicates

     1. Aheart failure
     2. Bdecreased coronary artery blood flow
     3. Cthe presence of arrhythmias
     4. DMI
171. 171Stable angina pain usually subsides with

     1. Arest, nitroglycerine
     2. Bmorphine, oxygen
     3. Cnitroglycerine, morphine
     4. Dmorphine, ASA
172. 172Pathological Q waves are

     1. Areflective of tissue ischemia
     2. Breflective of tissue injury
     3. C25% the height of the R waves
     4. Dall of the above
173. 173Decreasing preload in LVF can be accomplished with the use of

     1. Adiuretics
     2. Bmorphine
     3. Cvasodilators
     4. Dall of the above
174. 174Obese people and patients who rarely exercise are more prone to

     1. Aelevated HDL's
     2. Bdecreased HDL's
175. 175Cessation of pain following an 'anginal attack' indicates that

     1. Aplatelets are no longer adhering to the arteries
     2. Barrhythmias have developed
     3. Cmyocardial oxygen needs are met
     4. Dmyocardial tissues are fully necrotic
176. 176The LV lateral wall MI is secondary to occlusion of the

     1. Apositive artery
     2. Blateral vein
     3. CRCA
     4. Dcircumflex artery
177. 177The ECG sign of tissue necrosis is

     1. Athe development of ventricular rhythms
     2. Bbradycardia
     3. Cpathological Q waves
     4. DST segment changes
178. 178Not monitoring the control and balance of systemic fluid can result in

     1. Ahyponatremia
     2. Bhypokalemia
     3. Cdehydration
     4. Dany of the above
179. 179HDLs are

     1. Aelevated in consumers of moderate amounts of wine
     2. Bmetabolized by the liver
     3. Csometimes called the 'good' lipoprotein
     4. Dall of the above
180. 180Following plaque rupture, the following components begin to adhere to the plaque

     1. Afibrin, thrombin
     2. Bplatelets, fibrin
     3. Cthrombin, platelets
     4. Dplatelets, thrombin, fibrin
181. 181Chest pain experienced with unstable angina

     1. Ais predictable and reproducible
     2. Bis always relieved with nitroglycerine
     3. Coccurs more frequently and with less effort
     4. Dalways lasts less than five minutes
182. 182Tachycardia in LVF develops

     1. Adue to enhanced vagal activity
     2. Bto improve the CO
     3. Cto limit the SV
     4. Dall of the above
183. 183Isolated RVF is more common following

     1. Ainferior wall MI
     2. Blateral wall MI
     3. Canterior wall MI
     4. Dright ventricular MI
184. 184CAD symptoms generally begin to occur when the coronary arteries are about ____ % occluded

     1. A25
     2. B50
     3. C75
     4. D85
185. 185Nitroglycerine reduces afterload by

     1. Aincreasing venous capacitance
     2. Bdecreasing venous capacitance
     3. Cincreasing systemic vascular resistance
     4. Ddecreasing systeming vascular resistance
186. 186In left sided heart failure

     1. Ablood flow from the RA to the LA is impeded
     2. BLA pressure decreases
     3. Cthe RV has injured cells
     4. Dpulmonary venous pressure increases
187. 187Elevated HDL levels would most likely be found in

     1. Adiabetics
     2. Bpre-menopausal women
     3. Ccigarette smokers
     4. Doverweight patients
188. 188During the initial acute phase of an MI, oxygen is administered

     1. Awhen ventricular arrhythmias are imminent
     2. Bwhen AV blocks develop
     3. Cwhen the patient complains of chest pain
     4. DAlways
189. 189Elevated JVP is seen in RVF because of

     1. Aincreased LV pressure
     2. Bincreased superior vena cava pressure
     3. Cincreased thrombi formation
     4. Dincreased pulmonary venous pressure
190. 190The personality type that is most prone to CAD is known as a type ____ personality

     1. AA
     2. BB
     3. CC
     4. DD
191. 191Provoking factors for MI can be

     1. Athe same as those for stable angina
     2. Bthe same as those for unstable angina
     3. Cabsent (no obvious provoking factors)
     4. Dall of the above
192. 192Decreased CO in LVF results from

     1. Aright ventricular failure
     2. Bdecreased vagal activity and hyponatremia
     3. CST segment and T wave changes
     4. Ddecreased LV compliance and SV
193. 193The first intervention in pulmonary edema should always be

     1. Adiuretic therapy
     2. Boxygen therapy
     3. Cvasodilatation
     4. Dcontrolling arrhythmias
194. 194The patient in PEA

     1. Arequires CPR
     2. Bdisplays electrical activity on the cardiac monitor
     3. Chas no palpable pulse
     4. Dall of the above
195. 195The main goal in cardiac tamponade is to

     1. Aenhance SNS dominance
     2. Bdecrease AV conduction
     3. Cenhance AV node automaticity
     4. Ddecrease pressure within the pericardial sac
196. 196The compensatory SNS effect in cardiogenic shock is temporary because

     1. Aall the heart's valves are necrotic
     2. Bthe SV cannot increase further to help improve the CO
     3. Cpulses are not palpable
     4. Dfluid interferes with oxygenation
197. 197Dopamine can be part of the treatment plan in cardiogenic shock to

     1. Aimprove systolic BP
     2. Bcause vasoconstriction
     3. Cimprove myocardial contractility
     4. Dall of the above
198. 198Serious and sinister arrhythmias can occur in pulmonary edema because

     1. Aelectrical conduction structures are poorly oxygenated
     2. Bof increased pressure in the pericardial sac
     3. Cthere is no electrical activity
     4. Dof increased myocardial contractility
199. 199In cardiac tamponade, blood ejected during ventricular systole is decreased

     1. ATrue
     2. BFalse
200. 200Ventricular rupture can occur following

     1. Atransmural inferior wall MI
     2. Btransmural anterior wall MI
     3. Ctransmural lateral wall MI
     4. Dany transmural MI
201. 201Heparin induced cardiac tamponade is treated with

     1. Acardioversion
     2. Bdefibrillation
     3. Cheparin
     4. Dprotamine sulfate
202. 202In cardiogenic shock, urine volume

     1. Adecreases
     2. Bincreases
     3. Cremains unchanged
203. 203Blood tinged sputum in pulmonary edema results from

     1. Achanges in clotting factors
     2. Bhemorrhages in the pulmonary system
     3. Cairway narrowing
     4. Dincreased pressure in the RA
204. 204The signs or features known as Beck's triad are

     1. Aelevated JVP, muffled heart sounds, pulsus paradoxus
     2. Belevated JVP, hypotension, pulsus paradoxus
     3. Cnarrowed pulse pressure, hypotension, muffled heart sounds
     4. Dmuffled heart sounds, tachycardia, hypotension
205. 205Cardiogenic shock

     1. Aresults in extensive organ underperfusion
     2. Bonly develops secondary to MI
     3. Ccauses venous oxygenation to increase
     4. Dall of the above
206. 206Morphine is effective in pulmonary edema because it

     1. Aalleviates arrhythmias
     2. Bincreases the HR
     3. Creduces preload
     4. Dimproves myocardial contractility
207. 207In cardiac tamponade

     1. Adiastolic ejection is impaired
     2. Bdiastolic filling is impaired
     3. Csystolic ejection is normal
     4. Dsystolic filling is normal
208. 208The patient in pulmonary edema will most likely develop

     1. Abradycardia
     2. Btachycardia
     3. Ca slow ventricular rhythm
     4. Dthird degree block
209. 209In cardiogenic shock, fluids are

     1. Alimited to prevent marked hypotension
     2. Binfused to maintain intravascular volume
     3. Climited to prevent overloading the kidneys
     4. Dinfused to counteract hypertension
210. 210Sodium bicarbonate might be administered in cardiogenic shock to

     1. Acontrol the HR
     2. Breverse acidosis
     3. Creverse alkalosis
     4. Dcontrol ventricular ectopic activity
211. 211To improve CO in pulmonary edema

     1. Athe SV increases
     2. Bthe HR increases
     3. Cpreload increases
     4. Dafterload increases
212. 212Fluid accumulation within the pericardial sac leading to cardiac tamponade, can develop

     1. Avery slowly
     2. Bvery rapidly
     3. Cslowly or rapidly
213. 213In cardiogenic shock, the

     1. Asystolic and diastolic BP increase concurrently
     2. Bsystolic and diastolic BP fall concurrently
     3. Csystolic BP falls before the diastolic BP
     4. Ddiastolic BP falls before the systolic BP
214. 214Patients in cardiogenic shock develop anginal chest pain because of

     1. Athe development of sinister arrhythmias
     2. Bcoronary artery underperfusion
     3. Chypertension
     4. Dtachycardia secondary to SNS stimulation
215. 215Decreasing the respiratory rate in pulmonary edema will help to

     1. Adecrease preload
     2. Bdecrease afterload
     3. Cimprove cardiac contractility
     4. Dincrease the HR
216. 216Myocardial injury associated with cardiac tamponade is reflected by

     1. Aabsent P waves
     2. BQ waves
     3. CST segment changes
     4. Dprolonged PR intervals
217. 217Tachycardia occurs in cardiac tamponade to

     1. Aencourage narrowing of pulse pressure
     2. Bincrease venous return
     3. Ccompensate for the decreased SV
     4. Dpromote ventricular ectopic activity
218. 218To promote healthy elimination following MI, the following is administered

     1. Astool softeners
     2. Benemas
     3. Csuppositories
     4. Dall of the above
219. 219It is common to hear an ____ when auscultating the patient in pulmonary edema

     1. AS4
     2. BS3
220. 220Pulse pressure refers to the difference between the

     1. Astanding and sitting blood pressures
     2. Barterial and venous blood pressures
     3. Csystolic and diastolic blood pressures
221. 221Diuretics administered to the cardiac patient can

     1. Adecrease preload
     2. Bimprove urinary output
     3. Ccause hypotension
     4. Dall of the above
222. 222In pulmonary edema, airflow ____ the alveoli is diminished

     1. Ato
     2. Bfrom
     3. Cto and from

Description

Practice for durham coronary 1 course

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