BIO 150 Test 3

1. 1After DNA replication, each duplicated chromosome consists of two of which of the
   following structures?

   1. Adaughter chromosomes
   2. Bdaughter nucleosomes
   3. Csister chromatids
   4. Dsister chromatins
2. 2What is the name of the region on duplicated chromosomes where the sister chromatids are
   most closely attached to each other?

   1. Athe chromatin
   2. Bthe centromere
   3. Cthe cohesin
   4. Dthe centrosome
3. 3In a diploid cell with four chromosome pairs (2n = 8), how many centromeres will be found in
   a nucleus at G2 of the cell division cycle?

   1. A4
   2. B8
   3. C16
   4. D32
4. 4Students in a biology lab isolated cells in various phases of the cell cycle. A population of
   cells that have 1 1/2 times the DNA of G1 phase cells was most likely isolated from which of the
   following parts of the cell cycle?

   1. Abetween the G1 and S phases
   2. Bin the G2 phase
   3. Cin the M phase
   4. Dn the S phase
5. 5Which of the following cellular events occur in the G1 phase of the cell division cycle?

   1. Anormal growth and cell function
   2. BDNA replication
   3. Cthe beginning of mitosis
   4. Dbreak down of the nuclear membrane
6. 6The mitotic spindle plays a critical role in which of the following processes?

   1. Asplitting of the cell (cytokinesis) following mitosis
   2. Btriggering condensation of chromosomes
   3. Cdissolving the nuclear membrane
   4. Dseparation of sister chromatids
7. 7Which of the following events would be most likely to produce cells with several nuclei?

   1. Arepeated cytokinesis without mitosis
   2. Brepeated mitosis with simultaneous cytokinesis
   3. Crepeated mitosis without cytokinesis
   4. Dmultiple S phases without mitosis
8. 8Which of the following statements best describes how cytokinesis differs between plant and
   animal cells?

   1. AThe contractile filaments found in plant cells are structures composed of carbohydrates; the
      cleavage furrow in animal cells is composed of contractile proteins.
   2. BPlant cells deposit vesicles containing cell wall building blocks on the metaphase plate;
      animal cells form a cleavage furrow.
   3. CThe structural proteins of plant cells separate the two cells; in animal cells, a cell membrane
      separates the two daughter cells.
   4. DCytokinesis occurs between metaphase and anaphase in plant cells; it occurs after anaphase in
      animal cells.
9. 9FtsZ is a bacterial protein that forms a contractile ring involved in binary fission. Its function
   is analogous to which of the following structures in eukaryotic cells?

   1. Athe cleavage furrow of eukaryotic animal cells
   2. Bthe cell plate of eukaryotic plant cells
   3. Cthe mitotic spindle of eukaryotic cells
   4. Dthe microtubule-organizing center of eukaryotic cells
10. 10In a diploid cell with four chromosome pairs (2n = 8), how many sister chromatids will be
    found in a nucleus at prophase of mitosis?

    1. A4
    2. B8
    3. C16
    4. D32

11. 11Movement of the chromosomes during anaphase would be most directly affected by a drug
    that prevents which of the following events?

    1. Anuclear envelope breakdown
    2. Belongation of microtubules
    3. Cshortening of microtubules
    4. Dformation of a cleavage furrow
12. 12Which of the following events characterizes the beginning of anaphase?

    1. Aloss of kinetochores from the chromatids
    2. Battachment of sister chromatids to each other by cohesin
    3. Cenzymatic cleavage of cohesin
    4. Ddisappearance of the nuclear membrane
13. 13In which phase of mitosis do the sister chromatids become daughter chromosomes?

    1. Atelophase
    2. Banaphase
    3. Cprophase
    4. Dmetaphase
14. 14Which chromosomal configuration would be observed at prometaphase of mitosis?

    

    1. AII
    2. BIII
    3. CIV
    4. DV
15. 15Which chromosomal configuration would be observed in one daughter cell after telophase of
    mitosis?

    

    1. AII
    2. BIII
    3. CIV
    4. DV
16. 16G1 is represented by which numbered part(s) of the cell division cycle in the accompanying
    figure?

    

    1. AI and V
    2. BII
    3. CIII
    4. DIV
17. 17Which region of the figure above represents S phase?

    

    1. AI
    2. BII
    3. CIII
    4. DIV
18. 18Which numbered regions of the accompanying figure represent the DNA content associated
    with cells at metaphase?

    1. AII and IV
    2. BII only
    3. CIII only
    4. DIV only
19. 19Certain unicellular eukaryotes, including diatoms and some yeasts, have mechanisms of
    nuclear division that resemble intermediate steps in the evolution of mitosis. Which of the
    following is a characteristic feature of nuclear division in these organisms?

    1. AThey reproduce by binary fission in their early stages of development and by mitosis when they are mature.
    2. BThey have circular chromosomes that are segregated by a mitotic spindle.
    3. CChromosomes are segregated by a mitotic spindle, but the nuclear envelope remains intact during division.
    4. DChromosomes are segregated by attachment to the plasma membrane.
20. 20A research team used a culture of lymphocytes with radioactively labeled T nucleotides to
    study the cell cycle. They found that the lymphocytes incorporated the labeled nucleotide at a
    significantly higher rate after a pathogen was introduced into the culture. Which of the following
    conclusions is most consistent with the results?

    1. AThe pathogen consumed radiolabeled nucleotides.
    2. BInfection causes lymphocytes to divide more rapidly.
    3. CInfection causes lymphocytes to increase in size.
    4. DInfection causes lymphocyte cultures to skip some parts of the cell cycle.
21. 21Which of the following structures or molecules is required in order for motor proteins to
    facilitate movement of chromosomes toward the poles in mitosis?

    1. Aintact centromeres
    2. Bactin microfilaments
    3. CATP as an energy source
    4. Dintact cohesin
22. 22Taxol is an anticancer drug extracted from the Pacific yew tree. In animal cells, Taxol
    prevents microtubule depolymerization, which interferes with which of the following processes?

    1. Achromosome separation
    2. Bcytokinesis
    3. Ccentriole duplication
    4. Dchromosome condensation
23. 23Which of the following statements best explains how neurons and some other specialized
    cells divide infrequently?

    1. AThey no longer have active nuclei.
    2. BThey have entered into G0
    3. CThey can no longer degrade cyclins.
    4. DThey no longer produce MPF.
24. 24Which of the following pairs of molecules make up an active MPF (maturation-promoting
    factor)?

    1. Aa growth factor and mitotic factor
    2. BATP synthetase and a protease
    3. Ccyclin and tubulin
    4. Dcyclin and a cyclin-dependent kinase
25. 25Which of the following properties is associated with a cyclin-dependent kinase (Cdk)?

    1. AA Cdk is inactive, or "turned off," in the presence of a cyclin.
    2. BThe number of Cdk molecules increases during the S and G2 phases and decrease during M
    3. CA Cdk is an enzyme that catalyzes the attachment of kinetochores to microtubules.
    4. DA Cdk is an enzyme that attaches phosphate groups to other proteins.
26. 26Which of the following statements best describes what happens to MPF during mitosis?

    1. AIt is completely degraded.
    2. BIt is phosphorylated by a Cdk, which inactivates it.
    3. CThe cyclin component of MPF is degraded.
    4. DThe Cdk component of MPF is degraded.
27. 27If all chromosomes are not attached to the mitotic spindle at the M phase checkpoint, the
    cells would most likely be arrested at which of the following points in the cell division cycle or
    mitosis?

    1. Atelophase
    2. Bprophase
    3. CG2
    4. Dmetaphase
28. 28Progression beyond the G2 checkpoint into mitosis is triggered by which of the following
    molecules?

    1. APDGF
    2. BMPF
    3. Ccyclin
    4. DCdk
29. 29At what stage of the cell cycle is the cyclin component of MPF destroyed?

    1. Ain late G1
    2. Bat mid-S phase
    3. Cin early G2
    4. Din late M
30. 30Which of the following statements best describes density-dependent inhibition?

    1. AAs cells become more numerous, they begin to squeeze against each other, restricting their size.
    2. BAs cells become more numerous, the cell surface proteins of one cell contact the adjoining cells, and they signal each other to stop dividing.
    3. CAs cells become more numerous, the protein kinases they produce begin to compete with each
       other, such that the proteins produced by one cell essentially cancel those produced by its neighbor.
    4. DAs cells become more numerous, the level of waste products increases, which slows metabolism and inhibits growth.
31. 31Which of the following statements best describes cells in culture that do not exhibit either
    density-dependent inhibition or anchorage dependence?

    1. AThe cells are unable to form spindle microtubules
    2. BThe cells follow an altered series of cell cycle phases.
    3. CThe cells show characteristics of tumors.
    4. DThe cells have nonfunctional MPF.
32. 32Cells from advanced malignant tumors often have very abnormal chromosomes and an
    abnormal number of chromosomes. Which of the following best explains the association
    between malignant tumors and chromosomal abnormalities?

    1. ACancer cells are no longer density-dependent.
    2. BCancer cells are no longer anchorage-dependent.
    3. CCell cycle checkpoints are not in place to stop cells with chromosome abnormalities.
    4. DTransformation introduces new chromosomes into cells.
33. 33If a plant biologist succeeds in generating a single plant with a particularly desirable flower,
    which of the following approaches would be the most efficient way to generate more plants with
    this trait?

    1. Abacktrack through her previous experiments to obtain another plant with the same traits and cross the two
    2. Bbreed this plant with a plant that does not flower
    3. Cclone the plant
    4. Dforce the plant to self-pollinate
34. 34Which of the following phrases defines the term genome?

    1. Athe complete set of an organism's polypeptides
    2. Bthe complete set of a species' polypeptides
    3. CThe complete set of a species expressed traits
    4. Dthe complete set of an organism's genes and other DNA sequences
35. 35Asexual reproduction occurs during which of the following processes?

    1. Ameiosis
    2. Bmitosis
    3. Cfertilization
    4. Dthe exchange of chromosomes between organisms of different species
36. 36Quaking aspen trees usually reproduce by extending underground stems that then push
    aboveground and grow into trees. Sexual reproduction is not as common, but when it does
    happen, the haploid gametes have 19 chromosomes. How many chromosomes are in the cells of
    the underground stems?

    1. A9
    2. B19
    3. C38
    4. D76
37. 37Which of the following statements is true of a species that has a chromosome number of 2n =
    16?

    1. AThe species is diploid and has 32 chromosomes per cell.
    2. BThe species has 16 sets of chromosomes per cell.
    3. CEach diploid cell has eight homologous pairs of chromosomes.
    4. DA gamete from this species has four chromosomes.
38. 38Which of the following characteristics are part of the sexual life cycle of most fungi but are
    not part of the sexual life cycles of plants or animals?

    1. Aa unicellular haploid stage
    2. Bfertilization
    3. Cgametes
    4. Da zygote stage
39. 39Which of the following processes best describes the mechanism of gamete production in
    plants?

    1. Asporophytes produce gametes by meiosis
    2. Bgametophytes produce gametes by mitosis
    3. Cgametophytes produce gametes by meiosis
    4. Dsporophytes produce gametes by mitosis
40. 40In a human karyotype, chromosomes are arranged in 23 pairs. If one of the autosomal pairs is
    examined, which of the following characteristics will the two chromosomes of the pair have in
    common?

    1. Alength and DNA sequence
    2. Balleles and centromere position
    3. Cloci and staining pattern
    4. DX-like shape and alignment on the metaphase plate
41. 41Which of the following statements best describes homologous chromosomes?

    1. AThey were inherited from the same parent.
    2. BThey carry information for the same traits.
    3. CThey carry the same alleles.
    4. DThey align on the metaphase plate in meiosis II.
42. 42Many diploid organisms produce haploid gametes for reproduction. Which of the following
    best describes how the diploid number of chromosomes is restored in the offspring of these
    organisms?

    1. ADNA replication creates homologous chromosomes
    2. Bindependent assortment in meiosis allows random combinations of chromosomes
    3. Csynapsis during prophase of meiosis I creates random combinations of alleles
    4. Dfertilization combines chromosomes from each parent into resulting zygote
43. 43Which of the following statements correctly describes a karyotype?

    1. AIt is a display of all of the cell types in an organism.
    2. BIt is an organized image of a cell's chromosomes.
    3. CIt reveals the appearance of an organism.
    4. DIt is a display of a cell's mitotic stages.
44. 44Which of the following processes will most likely produce a human zygote with 45
    chromosomes?

    1. Aan error during anaphase II while the sperm was produced
    2. Bfailure of the egg nucleus to fuse with the sperm nucleus
    3. Cfailure of an egg to complete meiosis II
    4. Dincomplete cytokinesis after meiosis I in sperm production
45. 45A cell has completed meiosis I and the first cytokinesis, and is just beginning meiosis II.
    Which of the following statements describes its genetic contents?

    1. AIt has half the amount of DNA as the cell that began meiosis.
    2. BIt has twice the DNA of the cell that began meiosis.
    3. CIt has one-fourth the DNA and one-half the chromosomes as the cell that began meiosis.
    4. DIt is genetically identical to the other cells produced by this cytokinesis.
46. 46Which of the following statements describes the chromosomal makeup of each daughter cell
    after telophase of meiosis I?

    1. AThe cells are diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
    2. BThe cells are diploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
    3. CThe cells are haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of a single chromatid.
    4. DThe cells are haploid, and the chromosomes are each composed of two chromatids.
47. 47Which of the following events happens at the conclusion of meiosis I?

    1. AHomologous chromosomes of a pair are separated from each other.
    2. BThe chromosome number per cell remains the same.
    3. CSister chromatids are separated
    4. DFour daughter cells are formed.
48. 48During which of the following processes do sister chromatids separate from each other?

    1. Aduring meiosis I only
    2. Bduring meiosis II only
    3. Cduring both mitosis and meiosis I
    4. Dduring both mitosis and meiosis II
49. 49Which of the following processes occurs in meiosis but not in mitosis?

    1. Achromosome replication
    2. Bsynapsis of chromosomes
    3. Calignment of chromosomes at the metaphase plate
    4. Dcondensation of chromosomes
50. 50Which of the following processes has just occurred when chiasmata can first be viewed
    under a microscope?

    1. Ameiosis II
    2. Banaphase II
    3. Cprophase I
    4. Dthe separation of homologs
51. 51For the following question, match the key event of meiosis with the stages listed below.
    I. Prophase I V. Prophase II
    II. Metaphase I VI. Metaphase II
    III. Anaphase I VII. Anaphase II
    IV. Telophase I VIII. Telophase II
    Cohesins at centromeres of sister chromatids breakdown.

    1. AIII
    2. BIV
    3. CV
    4. DVII

Descripción

Chapters 12-15

Autor

Zach Hank

Idioma

English

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8

Historial

Creado el 16 nov 2022 · actualizado el 21 nov 2022

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