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Flashcards

CompTIA Network+ - N10-007 practice 3

Amber Saxon CompTIA Network+ English 99 cards

Cards in this deck (99)

  1. 1A network administrator is configuring the 172.16.40.0/22 network for a new building. Which of the following is the number of hosts that will be supported on this network? A. 510 B. 512 C. 1022 D. 1024 E. 2046 F. 2048C. 1022
  2. 2At which of the following layers of the OSI model does compression occur? A. Session B. Transport C. Data link D. PresentationD. Presentation
  3. 3Users report that the network is slow. Upon investigation, the technician notices all users are on one large subnet. Which of the following devices should be used to break up broadcast domains? A. Layer 2 switch B. Layer 3 switch C. Signal repeater D. Bridge E. Domain serverB. Layer 3 switch
  4. 4Ann, a user, reports that her desktop phone is not working on one cable. However, that cable provides connectivity to her laptop. A technician determines PoE is not provided to the end device. Which of the following is MOST likely the cause? A. Transceiver mismatch B. Crosstalk C. Jitter D. Open/short on the cableA. Transceiver mismatch
  5. 5A network technician has been asked to create secure private networks between a company's headquarters and several branch locations. The company has provided the on-premises equipment, but each branch has a different ISP. Which of the following technologies should the technician consider using to accomplish this? A. Site-to-site B. Client-to-site C. Point-to-point D. Point-to-multipointA. Site-to-site
  6. 6A department is reporting network issues. Users can ping each other and the switch, but not the default gateway. When looking at a wiring diagram and a physical blueprint, a technician notices the 1000BaseLX SFP connects to a distribution switch via a cable that runs behind a large industrial refrigerator. The technician also notices both switches have been worked on recently. Which of the following is MOST likely the issue? A. EMI B. TX/RX reverse C. Open/short D. AttenuationA. EMI
  7. 7A shop owner wants to ensure that only a specified group of devices can access the wireless network. Which of the following methodologies will BEST ensure unauthorized devices cannot consume the shop owner's limited Internet bandwidth? A. Disable the SSID broadcast. B. Implement WEP authentication. C. Change the WiFi password. D. Activate MAC address filtering.D. Activate MAC address filtering.
  8. 8A large company uses an AAA server to manage network device access. The engineers can use their domain credentials to access all other servers. Currently, the network engineers cannot access the AAA server using domain credentials, but they can access it using a local account. Which of the following should the engineers update? A. Host-based firewall settings B. TACAS+ server time C. Server IP address D. DNS SRV recordB. TACAS+ server time
  9. 9A network technician has been asked to install an additional switch in an IDF, but all of the single-mode fiber is in use between the IDF and MDF. The technician has deployed new transceivers that allow for the use of a single fiber stand, providing the additional fiber needed for the new switch. Which of the following has the technician deployed? A. 1000BaseLX SFP B. Duplex GBIC C. Duplex SFP+ D. Bidirectional SFPD. Bidirectional SFP
  10. 10A network administrator wants to ensure all traffic is inspected and abides by the AUP, and that malicious traffic is stopped. Which of the following features should be enabled on a firewall to meet this requirement? A. Intrusion detection B. Proxy service C. Dynamic DNS D. Content filteringD. Content filtering
  11. 11A network technician has purchased a 10GBase-T switch and wishes to connect it to 30 computers with 10GB network cards. The computers are 225ft (69m) away, and all need to establish a 10 Gbps connection to meet business requirements. To minimize costs while still meeting these requirements, which of the following cable types should the technician choose? A. Cat 5e B. Cat 6 C. Cat 6a D. Cat 7C. Cat 6a
  12. 12A technician is configuring a new email server and needs to modify DNS records. Which of the following records should the technician update to ensure email functions as expected? A. MX B. CNAME C. AAAA D. SRVA. MX
  13. 13Which of the following BEST describes the functionality of the root guard feature on a switch? A. BPDUs entering the root bridge are ignored. B. The STP root bridge cannot be changed. C. Broadcast storms entering from a root port are blocked. D. Loop protection is enabled on the root port of a switch.B. The STP root bridge cannot be changed.
  14. 14A network administrator is adding a new WAN circuit from the ISP to a new building. In which of the following locations would the network administrator find the utility entry point? A. DMZ B. Data tier C. IDF D. DemarcD. Demarc
  15. 15The help desk is receiving reports of intermittent connections to a server. A help desk tehnician suspects the server is unable to establish a three-way handshake due to a DoS attack. Which of the following commands should a network administrator use to confirm the help desk technician's claim? A. nmap B. arp C. tcpdump D. digC. tcpdump
  16. 16A technician discovered a company computer had a virus but was unable to remove it. The technician decided to erase the hard drive to eliminate the threat. Which of the following policies did the technician violate? A. Data loss prevention B. Incident response C. Asset disposal D. Acceptable useA. Data loss prevention
  17. 17A company hires another firm to test the integrity of its information security controls. This is an example of: A. role separation B. device hardening C. risk assessment D. penetration testingD. penetration testing
  18. 18A network technician is troubleshooting an issue routing TCP packets to an email server. At which of the following OSI layers is the issue occurring? A. Layer 1 ""Physical B. Layer 3 ""Network C. Layer 4 ""Transport D. Layer 7 ""ApplicationC. Layer 4 ""Transport
  19. 19A vendor is installing an Ethernet network in a new hospital wing. The cabling is primarily run above the celling grid near air conditioning ducts and sprinkler pipes. Which of the following cable types is required for this installation? A. Plenum B. PVC C. Single-mode D. Cat 7A. Plenum
  20. 20A network technician works in a large environment with several thousand users. Due to the needs of the organization, the network manager has asked the technician to design a solution that accommodates the data needs of all the users, while keeping all data on site. Which of the following solutions should the technician implement? A. SaaS B. SAN C. NAS D. IaaSB. SAN
  21. 21Which of the following can be used to prevent unauthorized employees from entering restricted areas? A. Sign-in sheets B. Video cameras C. Motion sensors D. Swipe badgesD. Swipe badges
  22. 22A Chief Information Security Officer (CISO) has decided to implement a secure and user-friendly way to connect to the corporate wireless network. Each workstation will be authenticated individually using a unique certificate that will be deployed to the workstation by the organization's certificate authority. Which of the following authentication methods would meet this requirement? A. PEAP B. WP2-PSK C. Captive portal D. EAP-TLSD. EAP-TLS
  23. 23A bookstore uses a Faraday cage to comply with credit card regulations. Customers report that their cellular phones have no signal when they are in the bookstore. Which of the following is the MOST likely cause? A. The Faraday cage is creating interference within the bookstore. B. The Faraday cage prevents access by redirecting signals. C. The Faraday cage is creating latency on the cellular network. D. The Faraday cage is creating attenuation of the cellular network.B. The Faraday cage prevents access by redirecting signals.
  24. 24Q: Which of the following is a component that provides resources over a network? a. Client b. LAN c. Router d. Serverd. Server
    A server provides or “serves” up resources to a network. Examples of resources are access to email, pages on a web server, or files on a file server.
  25. 25What NAT variation automatically assigns an inside global address to a device on the private network from a pool of available addresses? a. SNAT b. DNAT c. PAT d. GNATb. DNAT
    Dynamic NAT (DNAT) automatically assigns inside global IP addresses from a pool of addresses as opposed to Static NAT (SNAT) where manual (static) assignment is performed.
  26. 26What NAT IP address is a public address that references an inside device? a. Inside local b. Inside global c. Outside local d. Outside globalb. Inside global
    An inside global address is a public IP address that references an inside device such as an email or Web server.
  27. 27Which of the following routing protocols is an EGP? a. BGP b. IS-IS c. RIP d. OSPFa. BGP
    Border Gateway Protocol is used to exchange routing information between the service provider’s autonomous system (AS) and each of the other autonomous systems. BGP is the only EGP in widespread use today and is considered to be the routing protocol that runs the Internet.
  28. 28Which are features of distance-vector routing protocols that are used to prevent routing loops? (Choose 2) a. Reverse path forwarding (RPF) check b. Split horizon c. Poison reverse d. Rendezvous pointb. Split horizon
    c. Poison reverse
    Split horizon: The split horizon feature prevents a route learned on one interface from being advertised back out of that same interface.
    Poison reverse: The poison reverse feature causes a route received on one interface to be advertised back out of that same interface with a metric considered to be infinite.
  29. 29What routing protocol characteristic indicates the believability of the routing protocol? a. Weight b. Metric c. Administrative distance d. SPF algorithmc. Administrative distance
    The index of believability for a routing protocol is called administrative distance (AD). Lower AD values are more believable that higher values.
  30. 30Q: What is the network address and subnet mask of a default route? a. 255.255.255.255/32 b. 0.0.0.0/32 c. 255.255.255.255/0 d. 0.0.0.0/0d. 0.0.0.0/0
    The default fault route is a statically configured route.
  31. 31Q: When a PC on an Ethernet network attempts to communicate with a host on a different subnet, what destination IP address and destination MAC address are placed in the packet/frame header transmitted by the client PC? a. IP address of the default gateway and MAC address of the default gateway. b. IP address of the remote host and MAC address of the default gateway. c. IP address of the remote host and the MAC address of the remote host. d. IP address of the remote host and the MAC address of the local PC.IP address of the remote host and MAC address of the default gateway.
  32. 32Q: Simplify the following IPv6 address: 0AA0:0123:4040:0000:0000:000:000A:100B a. AA0::123:404:A:100B b. AA::123:404:A:1B c. AA0:123:4040::A:100B d. 0AA0:0123:4040::0:000A:100BSectionc. AA0:123:4040::A:100B
    The repeating zeroes in digits 4-6 can be truncated with “::” and the leading zeroes in the 1st and 7th digits can be dropped to shorten the entire IPv6 address.
  33. 33A client with an IP address of 172.16.18.5/18 belongs to what network? a. 172.16.0.0/18 b. 172.16.4.0/18 c. 172.16.8.0/18 d. 172.16.16.0/18a. 172.16.0.0/18
    The first octet (172) indicates that this is a Class B network with a classful mask of /16. Applying this mask to the original IP address yields the 172.16.0.0./18 network.
  34. 34Your company has been assigned the following network: 192.168.30.0/24. Come up with a subnet mask that will accommodate seven subnets while also accommodating the maximum number of hosts per subnet. a. /24 b. /26 c. /27 d. /28c. /27
    To achieve 7 subnets the number of borrowed bits must be greater than 2 (2^2 = 4), hence 2^3 = 8. The network is a class C making the classful mask: /24. Hence, 24 + 3 gives us a subnet mask of /27. The number of hosts per subnet are: 2^3 – 2 = 6.
  35. 35What is the prefix notation for a subnet mask of 255.255.255.240? a. /20 b. /24 c. /28 d. /29c. /28
    Breakdown: The subnet mask for 255.255.255 has the following prefix notation /24. The remaining contiguous left justified ones is 4. The resulting prefix notation is then /24 + /4 = /28.
  36. 36Which of the following are dynamic methods for assigning IP addresses to networked devices? (choose two) a. BOOTP b. APIPA c. Zeroconf d. DHCPa. BOOTP
    d. DHCP
    Both BOOTP and DHCP involve a broadcast from an attached network device to request an IP address. BOOTP is an obsolete protocol that relied on mapping the MAC address of a device to an IP address. DHCP is a more robust solution that has a wide variety of options beyond basic IP address, subnet mask, and default gateway parameters.
  37. 37What is the class of IP address 10.1.2.3? a. Class A b. Class B c. Class C d. Class Da. Class A
    Class A IP addresses are in the range of 10.0.0.0-10.255.255.255
  38. 38What is the decimal representation for this binary number: 10110100? a. 114 b. 190 c. 172 d. 180d. 180
    2^7 + 2^5 + 2^4 + 2^2 = 128 + 32 + 16 + 4 = 180
  39. 39What is the binary representation of the decimal number 117? a. 10110101 b. 01110101 c. 10110110 d. 01101001b. 01110101
    2^6 + 2^5 + 2^4 + 2^2 + 2^0 = 64 + 32 + 16 + 4 + 1 = 117
  40. 40Which device on a IEEE 802.1X is responsible for checking the credentials of a device seeking to gain access to the network? a. Supplicant b. Authentication server c. Access point d. Authenticatorb. Authentication server
    The authentication server is a network component that runs a particular authentication protocol such as RADIUS and checks the supplicant’s (device wishing network access) against a database of stored credentials. The authentication server also provides the authenticator (switch) with an authenticator key that is used to securely transmit data between the client and the switch using some form of data encryption.
  41. 41You want to monitor traffic between two ports on a switch with a laptop running the Wireshark packet sniffing software connected to a third port. What feature on the switch would you enable to allow you to monitor the traffic between the other two ports? a. Port interception b. Port duplexing c. Port mirroring d. Port redirectc. Port mirroring
    The port mirroring feature on supported switches allows traffic passing between ports to be “mirrored” out another port for diagnostic purposes.
  42. 42What is the maximum amount of power a switch is allowed to provide over any one port as specified by the IEEE 802.3af standard for PoE? a. 7.7 W b. 15.4 W c. 26.4 W d. 32.4 Wb. 15.4 W
    The IEEE 803.af standard can supply a maximum of 15.4 W of power over each switch port in order to power attached devices. The newer IEEE 802.3at standard can supply as much as 32.4 W, thus offering the ability to power a wider range of devices.
  43. 43On a network running STP, what is the port within each segment that is closest to the root bridge (in terms of cost) called? a. Root b. Designated c. Non-designated d. Non-rootb. Designated
    Every network segment has a single designated port, which is the port on that segment that is closest to the root bridge, in terms of cost. Therefore, all ports on a root bridge are designated ports
  44. 44Which are true about VLANs? (Choose all that apply.) a. A VLAN has a single broadcast domain. b. For traffic to pass between two VLANs, the traffic must be routed. c. Because a switch has a MAC address table, traffic does not need to be routed to pass between two VLANS. d. A VLAN has a single collision domain.a. A VLAN has a single broadcast domain.
    b. For traffic to pass between two VLANs, the traffic must be routed.
    Like a switch, a VLAN has a single broadcast domain, however, a VLAN allows the grouping of ports on the switch into subnets with separate broadcast domains.
    For traffic to travel between two VLANs, that traffic must be routed. A more efficient way of connecting VLANs back to a router is to use a trunking standard such as IEEE 802.1Q.
  45. 45When two devices simultaneously transmit data on an Ethernet network and a collision is detected, what happens? a. Each device compares the other device’s priority value (determined by IP address) with its won and the device with the highest priority attempts to resend its data first. b. Each device waits for a clear to send (CTS) sign from the switch before resending its data. c. Each device randomly picks a priority value and the device choosing the highest value resends its data first. d. Each devices sets a random back off timer and the device will attempt to resend its data after its timer expires.d. Each devices sets a random back off timer and the device will attempt to resend its data after its timer expires.
    Each devices sets a random back off timer and the device will attempt to resend its data after its timer expires.
  46. 46Which Ethernet implementation uses UTP? a. IEEE 802.3 b. 10BASE5 c. 10BASE2 d. 10BASE-Td. 10BASE-T
    10BASE-T is a 10-Mbps implementation of Ethernet that relied on UTP cabling. 10BASE5 and 10BASE2 used different thicknesses of coaxial cable (“thicknet” and “thinnet” or “cheapernet” respectively). IEEE-802.3 is the overall standard for Ethernet that includes all implementations.
  47. 47What are the possible benefits of a proxy server? (Choose all that apply). a. Load balancing b. Content filtering c. Data caching d. Securityb. Content filtering
    c. Data caching
    d. Security
    A proxy server is a specialized network device that sits between clients and the external network (Internet). It can cache frequently requested content to improve performance, security by hiding internal IP addresses from the outside network, and filtering content in order to block access to internal users to unauthorized sites based on corporate policies.
  48. 48Which device allows traffic to enter and exit a private corporate network? a. VPN Concentrator b. DHCP Server c. Firewall d. Proxy Serverc. Firewall
    A firewall allows traffic to enter and exit a private network using various strategies such as packet inspection or security rules.
  49. 49How many broadcast domains does a 12-port switch have? a. None b. One c. Two d. Twelveb. One
    A switch is a layer 2 device with a single broadcast domain.
  50. 50How many broadcast domains does a 12-port router have? a. None b. One c. Two d. Twelved. Twelve
    A router has a separate broadcast and collision domain for each port.
  51. 51Which network infrastructure device primarily makes forwarding decisions based on MAC addresses? a. Router b. Switch c. Hub d. Multilayer switchb. Switch
    A switch is able to dynamically learn the MAC addresses of the devices attached to its ports. It maintains these addresses in a MAC address table. Subsequent segments are then transmitted only to the port associated with the MAC address contained in the segment.
  52. 52Which type of cable would you choose for installation in a drop ceiling that is used as an open air return duct? a. Riser b. Plenum c. Multimode d. Twin-axialb. Plenum
    The location of cable sometimes requires adherence to fire codes, where in the event of fire, toxic fumes could be spread throughout a building. Plenum grade cabling is manufactured to be fire retardant, and in some cases, uses a low-smoke PVC insulation to minimize the emission of dangerous fumes.
  53. 53Which of the following categories of UTP cabling are suitable are 1000BASE-T networks? (Choose all that apply) a. Cat 5 b. Cat 5e c. Cat 6 d. Cat 6eb. Cat 5e
    c. Cat 6
    The reduced crosstalk and higher data capacity of Cat 5e and Cat 6 cabling make them suitable choices for 1000BASE-T networks.
  54. 54In which range is the TCP port number for the HTTP protocol located? a. Below 1024 b. Between 1024 and 16,384 c. Above 16,384a. Below 1024
    The TCP port number for the HTTP protocol is in the range of the well-known TCP ports numbers (below 1024) at port 80.
  55. 55Which of the following are the four layers of the TCP/IP stack? a. Network Interface, Internet, Session, Application b. Physical, Internet, Transport, Application c. Network Interface, Datalink, Presentation, Application d. Network Interface, Internet, Transport, Applicationd. Network Interface, Internet, Transport, Application
  56. 56Which best describes the windowing flow control service? a. A buffering technique where a chunk of memory is allocated to store segments when bandwidth is not sufficient to transmit all of the segments. b. An application layer service that allows connected clients to remotely run Microsoft Windows. c. A network layer protocol that restricts data delivery based on IP address. d. A transport layer flow control service that exponentially increases the number of segments transmitted for each successfully acknowledged transmission reception.d. A transport layer flow control service that exponentially increases the number of segments transmitted for each successfully acknowledged transmission reception.
    Windowing is a dynamic form of flow control implemented at the transport layer. The window is reset if an acknowledgement is not received with the specified timeout period (RTT).
  57. 57Which of the following protocols is a connectionless transport layer protocol? a. IP b. UDP c. TCP d. 802.11gUser Datagram Protocol (UDP) is a connectionless transport protocol. It is an unreliable transport protocol meaning that if a segment is dropped, the sender is unaware and no retransmission occurs.
  58. 58Which approach to bandwidth usage on a network utilizes all available frequencies on a medium for data transmission? a. Broadband b. Time-division multiplexing c. Baseband d. SimplexBaseband bandwidth usage utilizes all available frequencies on the wire. Ethernet is an example of a baseband technology. Broadband, on the other hand, divides up the medium into separate channels of different frequencies for the transmission of various kinds of information such as voice and data.
  59. 59a. Physical layer b. Transport layer c. Application layer d. Network layerThe application layer of the OSI reference model for providing application services such as email and file sharing.
    Note: do not confuse software applications such as Microsoft Outlook with application services.
  60. 60What are some of the advantages of a peer-to-peer network when compared with a client-server network? a. Less Expensive b. Simplified administration c. More scalable d. Better performancea. Less Expensive
    A peer-to-peer network is less expensive to setup than a client-server network since it relies on lower cost computers and doesn’t require special server or network operating system software. The lower cost is traded off for more complex administration, decreased performance, and lower scalability when compared to a client-server network.
  61. 61A peer-to-peer network requires that all connected computers be running the same OS in order to share resources? a. True b. Falseb. False
    Though it’s much easier to setup and configure peer-to-peer resource sharing between computers running the same OS, it is possible to install software to enable sharing between computers running different types of operating systems such as Windows and Mac.
  62. 62Which two statements are true with regards to a Hub-and-Spoke topology? a. Lower cost and high redundancy b. Lower cost and easy to add remote sites c. Higher cost and lower redundancy d. Lower cost and remote sites directly connectedb. Lower cost and easy to add remote sites
    Since remote sites are not directly connected to one another, lower cost is achieved using fewer WAN links. Adding a remote site is as simple as establishing a new WAN link between the remote site and the hub. This reduced cost and simplicity comes at the cost of suboptimal routes and a single point of failure situated at the hub.
  63. 63Which network topology offers both an optimal route between selected sites as well as avoiding the expense of interconnecting every site to every other site? a. Full mesh b. Hub and spoke c. Bus d. Partial meshd. Partial mesh
    A partial mesh topology combines the advantages of redundancy and lower cost by optimizing routes between sites with higher intersite traffic. While not as fault-tolerant as a full mesh topology or as inexpensive as a hub-and-spoke topology, it’s a reasonable compromise to consider under appropriate circumstances and requirements.
  64. 64A network that connects a wireless headset to a PC using Bluetooth is considered what type of network? a. WAN b. CAN c. MAN d. PANA Personal Area Network (PAN) is a network with a very small scale (smaller than a LAN). It’s range is typically limited to just a few meters. In the case above, a Bluetooth connection (wireless) is more specifically referred to as a WPAN.
  65. 65Which of the following network geographies would you expect to see deployed to connect the LANs of multiple office buildings within an industrial park? a. MAN b. PAN c. CAN d. WANc. CAN
    A Campus Area Network (CAN) is the most appropriate network category to implement when connecting together geographically close LANs.
  66. 66Which of the network components below is purely physical (has no intelligence in the form of an embedded processing)? a. Hub b. Router c. Switch d. Servera. Hub
    A hub is an older technology that interconnects network components such as clients, servers, and printers. It operates purely at the physical level using electricity and is “dumb” in that it doesn’t run software instructions.
  67. 67What multicast protocol is used between clients and routers to let routers know which of their interfaces are connected to a multicast receiver? a. IGMP b. PIM-DM c. PIM-SM d. SPT switchoverInternet Group Management Procol (IGMP) is the protocol used between clients and routers to let routers know which of their interfaces have multicast receivers attached. Protocols such as PIM, PIM-DM, and PIM-SM are multicast routing protocols that route multicast traffic between multicast-enabled routers.
  68. 68ISDN is considered to be what type of WAN connection? a. Dedicated leased line b. Circuit-switched connection c. Packet-switched connection d. Cell-switched connectionb. Circuit-switched connection
    ISDN provides periodic connectivity to customers using a circuit-switched connection very much like placing a phone call.
  69. 69Which of the following WAN technologies commonly use UTP cabling? (Choose all that apply) a. Cable modem b. ISDN c. DSL modem d. POTS dial-up modemb. ISDN
    c. DSL modem
    d. POTS dial-up modem
    ISDN, DSL, and POTS cabling all use UTP. Coaxial cable is used to connect a cable modem to the WAN interface.
  70. 70How many channels on an E1 circuit are available for voice, video, or data? a. 23 b. 24 c. 30 d. 32An E1 circuit contains 32 channels, but only 30 can transmit data (or voice or video). Channel 1 is reserved for framing and synchronization and channel 17 is reserved for signaling (call setup, maintenance, and tear down). E1 circuits are popular outside of North America and Japan.
  71. 71Which PPP authentication method provides one-way authentication and sends credentials in clear text? a. WEP b. MS-CHAP c. PAP d. CHAPPassword Authentication Protocol (PAP) performs one-way authentication between a client and server. Since the client’s credentials are sent in clear text, it presents a security vulnerability in the event of eavesdroppers listening in.
  72. 72What kind of network is used by many cable companies to service their cable modems and contains both fiber-optic and coaxial cabling? a. Head-end b. DOCSIS c. Composite d. HFCd. HFC
    Hybrid Fiber-Coax (HFC) is a distribution network used by cable companies to distribute television and data to subscribers. Upstream and downstream traffic is assigned to specific frequency ranges and a cable modem is located on the subscriber’s premises to send and receive data from the WAN.
  73. 73How big is the payload portion of an ATM cell? a. 5 bytes b. 48 bytes c. 53 bytes d. 64 bytesb. 48 bytes
    An ATM cell contains a 48-byte payload and a 5-byte header. This payload size is the result of a compromise between the countries that participated in developing the international standard for ATM.
  74. 74What is the size of an MPLS header? a. 4 bits b. 8 bits c. 16 bits d. 32 bitsMultiprotocol Label Switching (MPLS) inserts a 32-bit header between Layer 2 and Layer 3 headers. This is known as a shim header. Because this header resides between Layers 2 and 3, MPLS is considered to be a Layer 2 1/2 technology.
  75. 75In a basic WLAN topology, how do connected clients on the network obtain IP addresses? a. DHCP b. BOOTP c. PAT d. Statically configured on clientc. PAT
    On a WLAN, the router obtains an IP address via DHCP from the ISP. The router then uses Port Address Translation (PAT) to provide IP addresses to devices attaching to it either wirelessly or through a wired connection.
  76. 76What type of WLAN antenna radiates relatively equal power in all directions? a. Unidirectional b. Yagi c. Parabolic d. OmnidirectionalAn omnidirectional antenna radiates power at relatively equal power levels in all directions, which is somewhat similar to the theoretical isotropic antenna. It is typically deployed in small office/home office (SOHO) locations. Conversely, an unidirectional antenna focuses power in a specific direction in order to avoid potential interference and is often used to connect WLANs between two nearby buildings.
  77. 77When using the 2.4-GHz band for multiple access points in a WLAN located in the United States, which nonoverlapping channels should you select? (Choose all available channels) a. 0 b. 1 c. 5 d. 6 e. 10 f. 11 g. 14b. 1
    d. 6
    f. 11
    For the 2.4-GHz band, channel frequencies are separated by 5 MHz, but a single channel’s transmission can spread over a frequency range of 22 MHz. As a result, channels must have five channels of separation (5 * 5 MHz = 25 MHz, which is great than 22 MHz). In the US, you could select nonoverlapping channels of 1, 6, and 11. Channel 14 is a nonoverlapping channel, but is not supported in the US.
  78. 78What technology do WLANs use to determine when they can gain access to the wireless media? a. SPF b. CSMA/CA c. RSTP d. DUALb. CSMA/CA
    WLANs use a similar technology to CSMA/CD used for Ehternet called Carrier Sense Multiple Access Collision Avoidance (CSMA/CA). Due to the half-duplex nature of WLANs like with Ethernet, devices only transmit in one direction at a time and must wait until the media is clear. A WLAN listens for a transmission to determine if it is safe to transmit. A collision avoidance algorithm causes wireless devices to wait for a random backoff time before transmitting.
  79. 79Which WLAN transmission method achieves enhanced security where participants hop over a range of predetermined frequencies? a. DSSS b. FHSS c. OFDM d. MIMOb. FHSS
    Frequency-hopping spread spectrum (FHSS) allows participants on a wireless network to “hop” between predetermined frequencies for their communications. This enhances security since participants can predict the next frequency to be used while this is very difficult for a third party to predict. FHSS can also provision extra bandwidth by simultaneously using more than one frequency. FHSS is not in common use today and DSSS and OFDM are now the prominent technologies.
  80. 80What percentage of overlap is recommended for adjacent to cells in order to prevent connection dropping as a user roams when extending the range of a 2.4-GHz WLAN? a. 5-10 percent b. 10-15 percent c. 15-20 percent d. 2-25 percentb. 10-15 percent
    Nonoverlapping channels in a 2.4-GHz WLAN can overlap their coverage area in order to provide seamless roaming between AP coverage areas. It is commonly recommended to have a 10-15 percent overlap of coverage between adjoining cells.
  81. 81What type of authentication is said to be in use if users are not required to provide any credentials to associate with a wireless AP in order to access the WLAN? a. WEP b. SSID c. Open d. IVc. Open
    A WLAN that does not require any authentication or provide any encryption for wireless devices is said to be using open authentication. Publicly available WLANs such as those found in airports and coffee shops often use open authentication. This type of authentication is often exploited by hackers who set up open access points to trick users into connecting to them. From there, they employ packet sniffing software to steal credentials and other personal information from unsuspecting victims.
  82. 82What standard developed by the Wi-Fi Alliance implements the requirements of IEEE 802.11i? a. TKIP b. MIC c. WEP d. WPA2d. WPA2
    In 2004, the IEEE 802.11i standard was approved requiring stronger algorithms for encryption and integrity checking than those previously used in the WEP and WPA security protocols. These enhanced requirements are implemented in the Wi-Fi Alliance’s WPA version 2 (WPA2) security standard.
  83. 83What mode of NIC redundancy has only one NIC active at a time? a. Publisher-subscriber b. Client-server c. Active-standby d. Active-subscriberc. Active-standby
    Active-standby is the method where only one NIC is active at a time. This approach allows the client to appear to have a single MAC address and IP address even in the event of a NIC failure. Because of added expense, NIC redundancy is most often utilized in strategic network hosts rather than in end-user client computers.
  84. 84What performance optimization technology uses a network appliance, which stores a copy of content sourced remotely such as from a Web server and serves up that content to local clients, thus reducing the bandwidth burden on an IP WAN? a. Content engine b. Load balancer c. LACP d. CARPA content engine is a network appliance that stores (caches) content from a remote source and serves the locally stored content to local clients. It reduces traffic on the WAN connection and also improves response time for content requests.
  85. 85A lack of bandwidth can lead to which QoS issues? (Choose all that apply) a. Delay b. Jitter c. Prioritization d. Packet dropsa. Delay
    b. Jitter
    d. Packet drops
    A lack of bandwidth is the primary issue for most network quality problems. These issue may take the form of one or more of the following symptoms:
    Delay – longer time of arrival for packets sent from a source to a destination.
    Jitter – uneven arrival of packets.
    Drops – packets can get dropped if link congestion causes a router’s interface queue to overflow. Subsequent retransmissions can greatly slow down data throughput.
  86. 86What is the maximum recommended one-way delay for voice traffic? a. 25 ms b. 75 ms c. 125 ms d. 150 msd. 150 m
    When implementing a QoS policy it’s important to determine the network performance requirements for various traffic types. For voice traffic the following requirements are recommended: no more than 150 ms of one-way delay; no more than 30 ms of jitter; and no more than 1 percent packet loss. These minimums are required in order to ensure that voice communications always remain intelligible.
  87. 87Which of these QoS mechanisms are considered to be an IntServ mechanism. (Choose all that apply) a. LLQ b. RSVP c. RED d. cRTPb. RSVP
    IntServ is often referred to as a hard QoS since its bandwidth reservations are strict and must be configured on every router. Resource Reservation Protocol (RSVP) is an example of an IntServ approach to QoS.
  88. 88RTP header compression can compress the combined Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers from 40 bytes down to how many bytes? a. 1-3 bytes b. 2-4 bytes c. 3-5 bytes d. 4-6 bytesb. 2-4 bytes
    RTP header compression (cRTP) can take Layer 3 and Layer 4 headers and compress them down to only 2 or 4 bytes in order to make better use of bandwidth on slower-speed links. This is part of the link fragmentation and interleaving (LFI) process.
  89. 89What type of delay is the amount of time required for a packet to exit a router’s serial interface? a. Serialization delay b. Packetization delay c. Propagation delay d. Queuing delaya. Serialization delay
    LFI addresses the issue of serialization delay, which is the amount of time required for a packet to exit an interface. A technique for reducing the delay of voice data on a slower-speed link is to interleave voice packets with fragments of larger data packets in order to improve the effective throughput of voice data over the link.
  90. 90Which command line switch for the arp command displays whether the arp table entry was dynamically learned or statically configured? a. -v b. -a c. -d d. -sb. -a
    The -a switch for the Windows arp command shows what MAC addresses have been learned for the listed IP addresses. The dynamically learned addresses display dynamic under the Type column, while statically configured addresses are listed as static under the Type column.
  91. 91Which Windows command is used to display NetBIOS over TCP/IP information? a. route b. nbtstat c. dig d. netstatThe nbtstat command displays NetBIOS information for IP-based networks. The nbt prefix of the command refers to NetBIOS over TCP/IP, which is called NBT or NetBT. This command can display a listing of NetBIOS device names learned by a Windows PC.
  92. 92What option would you specify after the ipconfig command to display a Windows PC’s DNS server’s IP address? a. No option is needed because the ipconfig command displays DNS server information by default. b. /full c. /fqdn d. /alld. /all
    The ipconfig command entered by itself displays a summary of a PC’s IP address configuration. The /all option gives more verbose information including the DNS and WINS server IP addresses among other additional information beyond the default command.
  93. 93What Layer 4 protocol is used by the ping command? a. IGMP b. PIM c. ICMP d. RTPc. ICMP
    The ping command uses Internet Control Message Protocol (ICMP), which is a Layer 4 protocol. The ping command directs the PC to send an ICMP echo message to the specified destination host. If the destination host is reachable, then it responds with an ICMP echo reply message. Other ICMP messages can also be returned.
  94. 94Which command is used on a UNIX host to display information about each router hop along the path from a source to a destination? a. ping -t b. tracert c. ping -r d. tracerouted. traceroute
    On UNIX systems the traceroute command is the equivalent of the tracert Windows command. It can help isolate which router hop along the path from a source to a destination is having issues. In addition, based on the round-trip response time reported for each hop, it can help isolate which network segment might be causing excessive delay due to congestion.
  95. 95What would you type at a UNIX command prompt to display detailed help for the UNIX host command? a. host help b. host /? c. manual host d. man hostd. man host
    One of the benefits of UNIX is its extensive syntax reference in the form of manual pages (man pages). Detailed help for any command can be invoked with the following syntax:
    HOST# man [command]
  96. 96Which of the following commands would you issue on a UNIX host to send five ICMP echo messages to a device with an IP address of 10.1.1.1? a. ping 10.1.1.1 b. ping -c 5 10.1.1.1. c. ping -t 5 10.1.1.1 d. ping 10.1.1.1 -t 5b. ping -c 5 10.1.1.1.
    The UNIX ping command performs the same basic function as its counterpart under Windows, however, the UNIX ping command sends continuous pings as opposed to the Windows default of four. You can use the -c command switch followed by a count follow to limit the number of pings issued to the destination target.
  97. 97One error occurred during the transmission of 8 bits. What is the BER? a. .0125 b. .025 c. .125 d. .25c. .125
    BER = 1 / 8 = .125
  98. 98What piece of test equipment can be used to test the throughput of a Cat 5 cable? a. OTDR b. Multimeter c. BERT d. Cable certifierd. Cable certifier
    If you are working with existing cable and wish to determine it category (e.g. Cat 3, Cat 5, etc.) or if you would like to test the supported frequency range of a cable, then you can use a cable certifier.
  99. 99https://www.cybrary.it/study-guides/comptia-network-study-guide/cable-testing/ cable testing

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CompTIA Network+ Flashcards on CompTIA Network+ - N10-007 practice 3, created by Amber Saxon on 24/03/2020.
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