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Human Disease

Alex Edwards English 91 cards

If the top figure denotes a normal heart rhythm, what kind of arrhythmia is represented by the figure below it? (Lecture…

Cards in this deck (91)

  1. 1A patient presents with a high heart rate and reports of chronic states of anxiety and avoidance behaviors. Lab analysis determines the patient has abnormally elevated concentrations of catecholamines and reduced cortisol levels following a dexamethasone suppression test. What disorder is the patient most likely to have? a) Post-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) b) Obsessive Compulsive Disorder (OCD) c) Generalized Anxiety Disorder d) Panic Disorder e) None of the abovePost-Traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD)
  2. 2If the top figure denotes a normal heart rhythm, what kind of arrhythmia is represented by the figure below it? (Lecture 10/27, Nikki Posnack) a) Tachycardia b) Sinus Arrest c) Atrial flutter d) Bradycardia e) None of the aboveBradycardiaIf the top figure denotes a normal heart rhythm, what kind of arrhythmia is represented by the figure below it? (Lecture 10/27, Nikki Pos...
  3. 3Which of the following reasons can stiff and thick chambers in the heart lead to heart failure? (Lecture 10/27, Nikki Posnack) a) Heart can’t pump b) Heart won’t fill c) Heart rate will be too fast d) Heart rate will be too slow e) None of the aboveHeart won’t fillWhich of the following reasons can stiff and thick chambers in the heart lead to heart failure? (Lecture 10/27, Nikki Posnack) a) Heart c...
  4. 4A patient is recovering from a myocardial infarction. Which finding indicates reperfusion injury? (Lecture 10/25, slide 15; SF) A. Sudden drop in cardiac intracellular pH B. Calcium overload C. Sudden increase in reactive oxygen species D. Rapid increase in anaerobic glycolysis E. Sudden decrease in heart rateSudden increase in reactive oxygen species
  5. 5Marfan syndrome is caused by mutations in the fibrillin-1 gene and often co-occurs with cardiac abnormalities. A recent study (https://doi.org/10.1186/s13023-020-01581-8) found that patients with Marfan syndrome had significantly longer QRS and QT intervals than unaffected controls. This observation is likely due to: (Lecture 10/25, slide 19; SF) A. Abnormally fast depolarization at the sinoatrial node B. Slowed depolarization in the ventricles C. Failed re-polarization at the cardiac apex D. Abnormally slow atrial repolarization E. Accelerated depolarization at the AV nodeSlowed depolarization in the ventricles
  6. 6A drug company is testing a burn dressing with added growth factors to speed wound healing. Which adverse effect is most likely? (Lecture 11/1, slide 29; SF) A. Greater presence of inflammatory macrophages B. Insufficient tissue remodeling C. Impaired release of pro-inflammatory cytokines D. Lower Treg infiltration E. Prolonged neutrophil activityE. Prolonged neutrophil activity
  7. 7You discover a drug that decreases the rate of cancer development in patients with loss-of-function mutations in APC. Which of the following mechanisms is unlikely to explain the drug’s effects? (Lecture 11/8, slide 30; SF) A. LEF-1/TCF preferentially binds the drug instead of beta-catenin B. The drug independently stabilizes the active form of GSK-3-beta C. Cytosolic beta-catenin binds the drug and cannot enter the nucleus D. The drug represses Dishevelled to promote beta-catenin phosphorylation E. GSK-3-beta preferentially binds the drug instead of APCD. The drug represses Dishevelled to promote beta-catenin phosphorylation
  8. 8A researcher is designing a treatment to enhance the activity of tumor-infiltrating lymphocytes. Which strategy is unlikely to work? (Lecture 11/15, slide 29; SF) A. Activating immune checkpoints B. Suppressing the release of interferon gamma C. Antibodies against PD-L1 D. Competitive inhibition of PD-1 E. Breaking down stroma in the tumor bedA. Activating immune checkpoints
  9. 9A patient has a loss-of-function mutation in p53 but does not develop cancer. A possible compensatory mutation could occur in which gene? (Lecture 11/17, slides 29 and 30; SF) A. Phosphofructokinase B. Transaldolase C. Transketolase D. Glucose-3-phosphate dehydrogenase E. All of the aboveE. All of the above
  10. 10If the adipocytes are represented by point X, we would expect: a. There are few, large adipocytes in the adipose tissue b. There are many, small adipocytes in the adipose tissue c. There is improved insulin sensitivity d. There is higher total cholesterol and triacylglycerides e. Both B and Ce. Both B and CIf the adipocytes are represented by point X, we would expect: a. There are few, large adipocytes in the adipose tissue b. There are many...
  11. 11An individual with PTSD is expected to have ___ when compared to an individual without PTSD a. Increased catecholamine concentrations b. Decreased catecholamine concentrations c. Increased heart rate d. A and C e. B and Cd. A and C
  12. 12Which of the above plots are representative of an action potential in the sinoatrial node versus in the ventricular myocyte? a. Plot A represents an AP in the SA node, plot B represents an AP in the ventricular myocyte b. Plot A represents an AP in the ventricular myocyte, plot B represents an AP in the SA node c. Both plots A and B are representative of APs in the SA node d. Both plots A and B are representative of APs in the ventricular myocyte e. Neither plot A nor plot B is representative of APs in either the SA node or the ventricular myocyte.a. Plot A represents an AP in the SA node, plot B represents an AP in the ventricular myocyteWhich of the above plots are representative of an action potential in the sinoatrial node versus in the ventricular myocyte? a. Plot A re...
  13. 13The above curves represent the phases of wound healing. During wound healing, when would you expect to see most inflammation? a. Between days 0 and 10 b. Between days 110 and 20 c. Between days 10 and 50 d. After day 50 e. Inflammation is equivalent during all stages of wound healinga. Between days 0 and 10The above curves represent the phases of wound healing. During wound healing, when would you expect to see most inflammation? a. Between ...
  14. 14The Kaplan-Meir curve shows survival over time in breast cancer patients. Patients with ER+ tumors are represented by the solid line and patients with ER- tumors are represented by the dashed line. What can you discern from the plot? a. ER directly inhibits tumor growth, improving survival. b. ER directly promotes tumor growth, worsening survival. c. ER+ tumors may be associated with a better prognosis than ER- tumors. d. The presence or lack of ER has no impact on prognosis. e. None of the above can be discerned from the plot.c. ER+ tumors may be associated with a better prognosis than ER- tumors.The Kaplan-Meir curve shows survival over time in breast cancer patients. Patients with ER+ tumors are represented by the solid line and ...
  15. 15In the plot, the solid line indicates CD4+ T cells in cells/µl and the dashed line indicates HIV RNA in copies/ml plasma. A patient is infected with HIV and has additional comorbidities. How would you expect the course of the HIV infection to change? a. The clinical latency period is shorter and there will likely be an earlier onset of symptoms. b. The clinical latency period is prolonged and there will be a delay in onset of symptoms. c. The acute HIV infection will be prolonged, from weeks to months. d. The acute HIV infection will be shortened, from weeks to days. e. The comorbidities will have no impact on the course of the HIV infectiona. The clinical latency period is shorter and there will likely be an earlier onset of symptoms.In the plot, the solid line indicates CD4+ T cells in cells/µl and the dashed line indicates HIV RNA in copies/ml plasma. A patient is in...
  16. 16Researchers predict the breakdown of the HIV+ population by age over several decades, starting in the 2000s. Which curve represents the expected proportion of the HIV+ population over the age of 70? a. Dashed curve b. X-box curve c. Solid curve d. Dotted curve e. None of the aboved. Dotted curveResearchers predict the breakdown of the HIV+ population by age over several decades, starting in the 2000s. Which curve represents the e...
  17. 17A kindergartener falls on the playground and scrapes her knee. Which of the following is likely to occur first: A. Specialized receptors near the site of injury will recognize damage associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) or pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) and elicit an immune response B. Inflammatory cytokines will be released and will trigger activation of effector cells C. Monocytes differentiate and become inflammatory macrophages D. Cells begin rapidly dividing as part of the proliferative phase to heal the wound E. Neutrophils begin phagocytosing bacteria and damaged cellsA. Specialized receptors near the site of injury will recognize damage associated molecular patterns (DAMPs) or pathogen-associated molecular patterns (PAMPs) and elicit an immune response
  18. 18Which of these breast cancer treatments is incorrectly paired with the mechanism of action? A. Aromatase inhibitors—block estrogen production B. SERMs—block binding of estrogen to ER C. SERDs— inhibit single-strand repair to cause cell death in BRCA1 mutant cells D. Proteolysis targeting chimeras (PROTACs)—bind ER and recruit the E3 ubiquitin ligase complex to ER E. HER2 inhibitors—Block HER2 receptors or prevent HER2 receptor dimerization with other receptorsC. SERDs— inhibit single-strand repair to cause cell death in BRCA1 mutant cells
  19. 19) Mutations in which genes might result in increased resistance to HIV infection? A. CCR5 B. CXCR4 C. Genes coding for G-proteins involved in chemokine receptor signalling D. A and C only E. A, B and CE. A, B and C
  20. 20Which of the following is not a key step in the development of atherosclerosis: A. Endothelium is damaged and becomes more permeable to lipoproteins B. Inflammatory cells invade vascular wall C. Endothelium expresses adhesion molecules such as vascular cell adhesion molecule-1 (VCAM-1) which promotes monocyte adhesion D. Macrophages change to foam cells and secrete pro-inflammatory cytokines E. Endothelial cells are overstimulated and cause excess vasoconstrictionE. Endothelial cells are overstimulated and cause excess vasoconstriction
  21. 21Which of the following cases of data sharing would not be considered legal and ethical in the US? A. Posting genomic data in an online database that has been de-identified using Safe Harbor B. The use of identifiable genetic sequence data from a patient who has provided broad consent for sharing of their data C. Sharing patient samples with another research institution that have been de-identified using expert determination D. Sharing WGS data from patients who have given specific consent for use in one study with another research group within the same institution/field E. Sharing identifiable DNA samples with a colleague within your research groupD. Sharing WGS data from patients who have given specific consent for use in one study with another research group within the same institution/field
  22. 22Which of the following is not always a requirement when obtaining informed consent: A. Ensuring that participants/patients are not being coerced or influenced when being compensated for their participation B. Ensuring that patients understand what they’re consenting to C. Informing participants about the study goals and what their samples will be used for D. Disclosing risks and benefits to the participant E. Disclosing extent of confidentiality and rights of the participantC. Informing participants about the study goals and what their samples will be used for
  23. 23What cellular pathway is commonly associated with the initiation of cancer metastasis? (Dr. Jiyoung Lee, slide 7) a. Cellular terminal differentiation b. Senescence c. Epithelial to mesenchymal transition (EMT) d. Ras pathway signaling e. All of the aboveEpithelial to mesenchymal transition (EMT)
  24. 24Which of the following is NOT true about the epithelial to mesenchymal transition (EMT) in cancer cells? (Dr. Jiyoung Lee lecture) a. Cancer is the only biological scenario where this process occurs b. EMT is reversible c. EMT occurs early in the cancer metastasis process d. Cancer cells fall on a spectrum of epithelial to mesenchymal phenotype. e. EMT is associated with an increase in free energy.Cancer is the only biological scenario where this process occurs
  25. 25PARP inhibitors have emerged as a promising treatment for BRCA-mutant breast cancer; however, tumor cells often develop resistance to this therapy. Which of the following is NOT a potential mechanism of resistance to these drugs? (Dr. Rong Li, slide 25) a. Loss of PARP1 expression b. Reversion mutations in BRCA1 to restore proper function. c. Upregulation of PI3K d. Restoration of homologous repair via loss of 53BP1 e. Upregulation of p-glycoprotein pumps to expel inhibitor drugs from cells.Upregulation of PI3K
  26. 26Which of the following genetic alterations would cause silencing of a tumor suppressor gene (TSG)? (Dr. Chiappinelli) a. Hypermethylation of DNA in the promoter of the TSG. b. Histone acetylation at the TSG locus. c. Nonsense mutation in an intron of the TSG. d. Frameshift mutation in an exon of the TSG. e. A and D.A and D.
  27. 27What is the primary role of DAMPs in the tissue inflammatory response? (Dr. Shook, Inflammation lecture) a. Stimulate sensor receptors on cells responding to tissue damage. b. Perform transcription factor functions to upregulate cytokine genes. c. Perform kinase function to relay signals from cellular damage receptors to the cell nucleus. d. Stimulate migration of adaptive lymphocytes to the site of inflammation. e. Induce proliferation of T lymphocytes.Stimulate sensor receptors on cells responding to tissue damage.
  28. 28A tumor develops resistance to the anti-Her2 therapy trastuzumab over time. Studies revealed that the Her2 expressed in these cells has not been mutated. What is/are possible mechanisms for the acquired resistance? (Dr. Rong Li, slide 23) a. Mutations in downstream components of the signaling pathway b. Activation of alternative signaling pathways to bypass Her2 signaling c. Increased production of ligands which activate other EGFR family receptors d. Alteration in Her2 structure which prevents trastuzumab binding e. A, B, CA, B, C
  29. 29The Warburg effect refers to: (Dr. Jiyoung Lee lecture) a. Cancer cell detachment from the basement membrane b. The phenotypic switch by which cancerous epithelial cells take on more mesenchymal-like properties. c. The propensity of cancer cells to switch their primary mechanism of metabolism from oxidative phosphorylation to glycolysis. d. Cancer cell entry into dormancy in metastatic sites. e. Cancer cell extravasationThe propensity of cancer cells to switch their primary mechanism of metabolism from oxidative phosphorylation to glycolysis.
  30. 30You are researching a mouse model of inflammation and find that T cells are not properly migrating to the site of inflammation. Analysis of peripheral blood reveals that activated T cells are present. What may be the reason for the lack of migration to the inflamed tissue? (Dr. Shook, inflammation lecture) a. Mutation in a chemokine receptor b. Mutation in a cytokine receptor c. Mutation impairing T cell ability to interact with dendritic cells. d. Mutation in a pattern recognition receptor e. All of the aboveMutation in a chemokine receptor
  31. 31Effective immune responses against cancer are in part dependent on the expression of “neoantigens” from cancer cells which are not expressed in normal cells. Based on this, which of the following patients would you expect to respond the best to immunotherapy? (Dr. Chiappinelli, slide 67) a. An individual with breast cancer driven by estrogen. b. An individual with familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP). c. An individual with high microsatellite instability and colon cancer. d. An individual with lung cancer induced by cigarette smoke. e. Both C and DBoth C and D
  32. 32How would you expect hormone levels in the HPA axis to change if there was damage to the pituitary gland (Marvar lecture Slide 7) A. Increased CRH, Decreased ACTH, Decreased CORT B. Increased CRH, Increased ACTH, Increased CORT C. Decreased CRH, Decreased ACTH, Decreased CORT D. No change to CRH and ACTH, decreased CORT E. Decreased CRH, Increased ACTH, decreased CORTIncreased CRH, Decreased ACTH, Decreased CORT
  33. 33Other than those involved in the HPA axis which brain region is the most involved in the body’s response to stress? (Marvar Slide 21) a. Hippocampus b. Amygdala c. Frontal Cortex d. Thalamus e. CerebellumAmygdala
  34. 34An obese male will have an apple shape body shape due to _____ being stored _____ muscles which most often feels hard, compared to women. Dr. Shook 10/18/21 – Obesity – slide 21 a. Subcutaneous white adipose tissue (SAT), underneath b. Visceral white adipose tissue (VAT), underneath c. Subcutaneous white adipose tissue (SAT), above d. Women are the ones with hard adipose tissue while men have a softer feel. e. Visceral white adipose tissue (VAT), aboveVisceral white adipose tissue (VAT), underneath
  35. 35What is true regarding the effects of high blood sugar? Dr. Shook 10/18/21 – Obesity – slide 25 a. High blood sugar over time can cause damage to tissues and can lead to apoptosis and changes in gene expression b. Pancreas producing more insulin will eventually cause cells to stop responding to insulin c. Pancreas producing more insulin will eventually cause exhaustion of pancreatic beta cells d. Cells that do not normally store fat, such as muscle and liver cells, will start storing it e. All of the aboveAll of the above
  36. 36The sympathetic nervous system release catecholamines into the blood which causes which of the following? Dr. Manvar 10/24/21 – Slide 8 a. Decreased heart rate b. Liver converting glycogen to glucose c. Increased digestive system activity d. Low blood pressure e. All of the aboveLiver converting glycogen to glucose
  37. 37What is true regarding coronary flow during diastole? 10/25 – Dr. Slide 13 – Dr. Nikki Gillum Posnack a. Fibers are contracting which will collapse the supply vessels and flow falls to zero b. Fibers are relaxed which will collapse the supply vessels and flow falls to zero c. Muscle fibers are relaxed and myocardial blood flow is maximal d. Muscle fibers are compressed and blood flow is maximal e. None of the aboveMuscle fibers are relaxed and myocardial blood flow is maximal
  38. 38Inflammatory tissue damage or autoimmune disease could be a pathological outcome from which of the following causes of inflammation? Dr. Shook - 11/1/21 – Inflammation lecture , slide 7 a. Pathogen infection b. Noxious substance / foreign bodies c. Tissue injury d. Tissue stressPathogen infection
  39. 39What is true regarding redundancy and amplification when it comes to immune response? Dr. Shook - 11/1/21 – Inflammation lecture , slide 9 a. Redundancy makes sure the signal is loud b. Amplification makes sure the signal is loud and happening quickly c. Redundancy makes sure there are multiple chances of carrying out the same response d. Both B and C e. All of the aboveBoth B and C
  40. 40____________ can change their gene expression profiles depending on the tissue’s perceived goal. Dr. Shook - 11/1/21 – Inflammation lecture , slide 30 a. Neutrophiles b. Macrophages c. Specialized pro-resolving mediators d. Both A and B e. All of the aboveMacrophages
  41. 41KDMA6 is a part of the COMPASS-like complex and plays an important role in pancreatic cancer. Which of the following is FALSE? 11/3/21 - pancreatic cancer by Dr. Alex Tzatsos, slide 17-22 a. Loss of KDM6 confers poor prognosis in pancreatic cancer b. Mutations of the COMPASS-like complex are enriched in squamous like subtypes of pancreatic cancer c. Loss of UTY in KDM6A null male mice triggers squamous like differentiation d. Loss of KDMA6 suppresses super-enhancers to stop squamous like identity.Loss of KDMA6 suppresses super-enhancers to stop squamous like identity.
  42. 42A person who has one copy of a germline mutation in a tumor suppressor gene ____ 11/8/21 Dr. Chiappinelli Cancer genetics, slide 22 a. Has a 80% chance of tumor progression b. Need a second deletion of the same gene to progress to tumor formation c. Is an example of a mutation on the KRAS gene on chromosome 12 d. Both A and C e. Will no longer be able to regulate cell growth and proliferationNeed a second deletion of the same gene to progress to tumor formation
  43. 43How is HNPCC inherited based on this pedigree? 11/8/21 Dr. Chiappinelli Cancer genetics, slide 58 a. Autosomal dominant b. Autosomal recessive c. X linked dominant d. X linked recessive e. None of the aboveAutosomal dominant
  44. 44Which of the following is NOT an endochrine therapy mechanism of action? Dr. Li – breast cancer – 11/15/21, slide 19 a. Aromatase inhibitor which blocks estrogen production by inhibiting the aromatization of androgens to estrogens b. Selective estrogen receptor modulators (SERMs) competitively inhibit the binding of estrogen to ER c. Selective estrogen receptor downregulators (SERDs), an ER antagonist, causing impaired mobility and degradation of the ER. d. Proteolysis targeting chimeras (PROTACs), a ligand binding to ER and recruits the E3 ubiquitin ligase complex, which polyubiquitilate ER and mark it for proteasomal degradation. e. Aromatase inhibitors which reduce the ability of ER to translocate to the nucleus.Aromatase inhibitors which reduce the ability of ER to translocate to the nucleus.
  45. 45What is the correct order for a metastasis cascade Dr. Lee - Breast cancer 11/17/21 , slide 4-9 a. EMT –> migration -> intravasation -> extravasation -> colonization b. Migration -> EMT –> extravasation -> intravasation -> colonization c. intravasation -> extravasation -> migration -> colonization d. intravasation -> extravasation -> colonization -> migration e. EMT –> migration -> extravasation -> intravasation -> colonizationEMT –> migration -> intravasation -> extravasation -> colonization
  46. 46Which of the following is NOT a method for generating a live-attenuated vaccine? a. Introducing a single unit of mRNA encapsulated in a lipid layer b. Using gene reassortment to insert human rotavirus into a bovine strain c. Isolating the virus of interest from an infected human, growing it in human cells, passaging it to non-human cells over and over until it no longer grows well in humans d. Taking an unrelated viral vector such as adenovirus carrying your gene of interest e. All of the above describe a live-attenuated vaccine.a. Introducing a single unit of mRNA encapsulated in a lipid layer
  47. 47In March of 2021, you received the SARS-CoV-2 vaccine (Moderna, Pfizer, J&J, whichever you prefer). You felt fine initially, but later that night you begin to feel feverish, tired, and develop a terrible headache. However, your arm you received the vaccine in feels normal and doesn’t appear swollen or red. Which of the following reactions are you having to the COVID vaccine? a. Allergic reaction b. Local reaction c. Systemic reaction d. B and C e. None of the abovec. Systemic reaction
  48. 48You’ve created a new vaccine that you believe will completely eradicate a rare disease called YFD (Your Favorite Disease). However, as time passes you see that your YFD vaccine coverage begins to plateau, and a large subset of people are still getting YFD infections. Which of the following may explain why this vaccine-preventable disease hasn’t fully been eradicated? a. The subset of affected people may not have access to a vaccination site, and there are limited staff available to administer the YFD vaccine. b. Evil big pharma is no longer pursuing development of the YFD vaccine because it only affects a small number of people. c. The YFD vaccine requires significant cold-chain procedures that do not allow for easy transport of materials to inaccessible areas. d. The public may be misinformed on the efficacy and/or safety of the vaccine, or they simply just don’t want to get it. e. All of the above.e. All of the above.
  49. 491. Breast cancer risk is associated with increased stiffening of breast tissue. Which of the following is likely to occur to increase tissue stiffness? (Dr. Rong Li; slide 9) a. Decreased collagen deposition. b. Degradation of the extracellular matrix (ECM). c. Increased presence of collagen-binding proteoglycans. d. All of the above e. A and B onlyc. Increased presence of collagen-binding proteoglycans.
  50. 502. BAP1 is a DNA damage response gene that has a frequent loss of heterozygosity in PDAC. Which of these are true about cancers with a loss of BAP1? (Tzatsos, slides 35-38) a. They are less sensitive to DNA damaging agents. b. They are more sensitive to DNA damaging agents. c. They have greater genomic stability d. A and C e. B and Cb. They are more sensitive to DNA damaging agents.
  51. 513. Mutations in Ras family genes are common in cancers - >30% of cancers carry a Ras mutation. In which of these cancer types do the highest percentage of tumors carry a Ras mutation? (Tzatsos, slide 7) a. Breast b. Prostate c. Leukemia d. Pancreatic e. Neuroblastomad. Pancreatic
  52. 524. Which of these is NOT a hallmark of cancer? (Chiappinelli, slide 13) a. Maintenance of cellular identity b. Sustaining proliferative signaling c. Resisting cell death d. Deregulating cellular energetics e. Avoiding immune detectiona. Maintenance of cellular identity
  53. 53A prolonged QT interval on an ECG that is a sign that the heart is spending too long contracting. What may be causing this? (Posnack slide 31) A. Too little calcium being released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum B. The action potential not being properly propogated along the T tubule C. Sodium not entering the cell properly preventing the action potential D. Too much calcium being released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum E. Lack of synchronicity between myocardial cellsToo much calcium being released from the sarcoplasmic reticulum
  54. 541. Which of the following cellular/molecular changes in obese white adipose tissue contribute to Type 2 Diabetes: (Dr. Shook – lecture 10/18; slide 33) A. Increased low-grade inflammation B. Increased macrophage infiltration C. Increased insulin sensitivity D. Increased adipogenesis E. A&B onlyE. A&B only
  55. 552. Which of the following is the CORRECT series of events associated with obesity-related macrophage recruitment and inflammation? (Dr. Shook – lecture 10/18; slide 45) I. Adipose hypertrophy and hyperplasia II. Increased FFA release by adipocytes activates infiltrated macrophages III. Secretion of macrophage-attracting chemokines IV. Increased nutrient influx V. Activated macrophages increase FFA release, macrophage activation, and insulin resistance A. IV, I, III, II, V B. III, II, V, I, IV C. I, III, II, V D. II, V, III, I, IV E. IV, I, II, III, VIV, I, III, II, V
  56. 56A newborn is delivered exhibiting blue colored lips, fingers, and toes. This baby likely requires operation due to which of the following conditions? (Dr. Posnack – Lecture 10/27 slides 7-8) A. Ventricular septal defect - shunting of oxygenated blood from left to right B. Coarctation of aorta - obstruction of blood flow from ventricles C. Tetralogy of Fallot - reduced pulmonary blood flow and deoxygenated blood delivery from right to left D. Patent ductus arteriosus - increased pulmonary blood flow E. None of the aboveTetralogy of Fallot - reduced pulmonary blood flow and deoxygenated blood delivery from right to left
  57. 57Cyanotic cardiac defects are more severe than acyanotic defects because… (Dr. Posnack – Lecture 10/27 slides 7-8) A. Blood going to the body is still properly oxygenated in acyanotic defects B. Pulmonary blood flow is unaffected in acyanotic defects C. Acyanotic defects do not involve septal anatomical defects D. Cyanotic defects are associated with atrial fibrillation E. None of the above, acyanotic defects are more severes than cyanoticBlood going to the body is still properly oxygenated in acyanotic defects
  58. 58Which of the following is CORRECT? (Dr. Shook – Lecture 11/1, slide 16) A. Cytokines are immune-modulating agents which are made up from proteins B. Cytokines are involved in directing the cells in the immune system to the site of infection C. Chemokines are involved in both cellular- and antibody-mediated immunity in the body D. Cytokines are a superfamily which mediate chemotaxis E. None of the aboveCytokines are immune-modulating agents which are made up from proteins
  59. 59Which of the following regarding inflammation is paired correctly? (Dr. Shook – Lecture 11/1, slide 41) A. Acute inflammation – progressive tissue injury B. Chronic inflammation – self-limited tissue injury C. Acute inflammation – non-prominent vascular changes; angiogenesis D. Chronic inflammation – macrophage, plasma cell and lymphocyte infiltrates E. Chronic inflammation – prominent vascular changes (vasodilation, increased permeability)Chronic inflammation – macrophage, plasma cell and lymphocyte infiltrates
  60. 60What physiological mechanisms link Post-traumatic Stress Disorder (PTSD) to Cardiovascular disease? (Dr. Marvar – Lecture 10/25, slide 17- 20) A. Sympathetic nervous system activation increases release of catecholamines, increasing heart rate B. Low heart rate variability suggesting parasympathetic nervous system withdrawal C. Baroreflex dysfunction D. HPA dysregulation resulting in reduced basal cortisol concentration and negative feedback sensitivity of glucocorticoid receptors E. All of the aboveAll of the above
  61. 61In Pavlovian fear conditioning the ______ stimulus is paired with the ________ stimulus. After a number of pairings, the subject forms an association between the stimuli. This elicits a fear response when subject is presented with the ______ stimulus even in the absence of the _______ stimulus. (Dr. Marvar – Lecture 10/25, slide 28) A. Aversive conditioned, neutral unconditioned; conditioned, unconditioned B. Neutral conditioned, aversive unconditioned; conditioned, unconditioned C. Neutral conditioned, aversive unconditioned; unconditioned, conditioned D. Neutral conditioned, Neutral unconditioned; conditioned, unconditioned E. Conditioned, Unconditioned; unconditioned, conditionedNeutral conditioned, aversive unconditioned; conditioned, unconditioned
  62. 62Germline mutations of BAP1 (BRCA1-associated protein) increases the risk of developing certain types of cancerous tumors because… (Dr. Tzatsos – Lecture 11/3, slide 31-38) A. Loss of Bap1 triggers DNA damage and confers sensitivity to DNA damage inducing agents B. Bap1 regulates cell identity and the DNA damage response C. Bap1 binds active chromatin and regulates genomic stability D. Bap1 is required for DNA repair by homologous recombination E. All of the aboveAll of the above
  63. 63A patient is diagnosed with pancreatic ductal adenocarcinoma. Which of the following would be true? (Dr. Tzatsos – Lecture 11/3, Slide 27) A. The patient’s pancreatic tumors cannot contain both glandular and squamous differentiation B. If the patient has squamous-like differentiation, they are a good candidate for BET inhibitor therapy C. Squamous-like gene expression is unrelated to chromatin modifier genes D. A & C E. All of the aboveIf the patient has squamous-like differentiation, they are a good candidate for BET inhibitor therapy
  64. 64A 34-year-old patient presents to the clinic with a family history of familial adenomatous polyposis (FAP), an autosomal dominant disorder. A colonoscopy exam identifies several small adenomatous polyps throughout the patient’s colon. Which events most likely lead to the development of tumors in this patient? (Dr. Chiappinelli, Lecture 11/8, slides 18 – 26) A. Sporadic somatic mutation and deletion of the APC gene B. Germline mutation because patients with FAP are born AP -/- C. Inheritance of germline mutation APC+/- followed by a somatic mutation of the remaining allele leading to APC -/- D. Activating mutation enables APC oncogene to stimulate tumor proliferation E. DNA hypomethylation of the APC geneInheritance of germline mutation APC+/- followed by a somatic mutation of the remaining allele leading to APC -/-
  65. 65Why are PARP inhibitors effective in killing BRCA mutant tumor cells? (Dr. Chiappinelli, Lecture 11/8, slides 75) A. Allow repair of double stranded breaks by homologous recombination B. Prevent PARP from interacting with BRCA 1/2 C. Prevent PARP from repairing single stranded breaks D. PARP inhibition leads to formation of a double stranded break E. Both C &DBoth C &D
  66. 66Which of the following tumors are considered to have better clinical prognosis? (Dr. Li, Lecture, 11/15, slide 30) A. Immune-inflamed tumors due to their high degree of cytotoxic T-cell infiltration B. Immune-excluded tumors because they contain T-cells only at the invasive margin C. Immune-desert tumors because they lack T cells within tumor bed and margin D. Both B & C E. Spatial phenotype of immune infiltration does not affect clinical prognosisImmune-inflamed tumors due to their high degree of cytotoxic T-cell infiltration
  67. 67What is the clinical value of breast cancer molecular subtyping? (Dr. Li, Lecture, 11/15, slide 13) A. Predicts patient relapse B. Predicts overall survival C. Predicts response to endocrine regimens D. Predicts response to chemotherapy regimens E. All of the aboveAll of the above
  68. 68Cancer cells reprogram pathways of nutrient acquisition and metabolism to meet their bioenergetic, biosynthetic and redox demands. What factors contribute to this cancer metabolism? (Dr. Lee, Lecture, 11/17, slide 47) A. Intrinsic effects of oncogenotype B. Epigenetic patterns and transcriptional networks C. Perturbed tissue microenvironment and architecture D. Metabolic disorders and diet E. All of the aboveAll of the above
  69. 69At which step of the HIV life cycle are the therapeutic target drugs most unique? (Dr. Soriano-Sarabia, Lecture, 11/22, slide 15) A. Attachment B. Fusion C. Reverse Transcription D. Integration E. Budding and maturationAttachment
  70. 70Which of the following statements is INCORRECT regarding HIV tropisms and chemokine co-receptors? (Dr. Soriano-Sarabia, slide 16 & Dr. Maggirwar, slide 5) A. HIV co-receptor usage determines viral entry into different cell types B. CCR5 is used as the main coreceptor during initial transmission C. CXCR4 is more prevalent during late stages D. CCR5 and CXCR4 are expressed in macrophages, primary T lymphocytes and T cell lines E. None of the aboveCCR5 and CXCR4 are expressed in macrophages, primary T lymphocytes and T cell lines
  71. 71How do the genetic variants of the CCR5 gene impact HIV infection? (Dr. Soriano-Sarabia, Lecture, 11/22, slides 20 – 26) A. Certain variants make it easier for virus to enter the cell B. Variability in CCR5 expression influences clinical outcome and survival C. Certain variations (CCR5Δ32) impose partial or total protection of HIV acquisition D. Variations offer the potential to manipulate a phenotype for a cure E. All of the aboveAll of the above
  72. 72What are the ethical requirements for conducting clinical trials? (Dr. Callier, Lecture, 12/6, slide 18) A. Participants must give their informed voluntary consent to participate B. The study must be designed to minimize risks to subjects and offer an acceptable balance of risks and benefits C. Participants must be selected fairly to avoid exploiting or unjustly excluding them D. Participants’ privacy should be protected, and the confidentiality of the research data must be preserved. E. All of the aboveAll of the above
  73. 73Which of the following regarding types of consent and its challenges are paired INCORRECTLY? (Dr. Callier, Lecture, 12/6, slide 23) A. Broad consent – participants permit all future uses that the ethical review board determines to be scientifically meritorious and ethically defensible B. Tiered consent – consent provided based on subject eligibility C. Specific consent – consent for new research outside the scope of original consent D. Tiered consent – poses several administrative challenges and possible reduction in participant size E. Specific consent – participants may be difficult to reach or may not want to be re-contactedTiered consent – consent provided based on subject eligibility
  74. 74Which of the following is NOT a feature of an ideal vaccine? (Dr. Diemert, Lecture, 12/8, slide 9) A. long-term protection B. few side-effects C. Induce any type of immune response D. Stability E. Low costInduce any type of immune response
  75. 75Which of the following regarding vaccines is paired incorrectly? (Dr. Diemert, Lecture, 12/8, slide 10 - 17) A. Smallpox vaccine – only unattenuated live organism vaccine known B. Inactivated organism vaccine – considered safer than live but immunity is less potent C. Live-Attenuated vaccine – pathogens are passaged in non-human cells resulting in gene mutations and loss of virulence to humans D. Subunit vaccines – allow large scale production but provide poor immunogenicity without adjuvants E. None of the aboveNone of the above
  76. 76What is the main risk behind live attenuated vaccine? (Dr. Diemert, Lecture, 12/8, slide 12) A. Potential risk of reversions to their pathogenic form through back-mutation B. There is only a risk in those who are immunocompromised C. There is no major evidence of risk with live attenuated vaccines D. Interference from circulating antibodies E. None of the abovePotential risk of reversions to their pathogenic form through back-mutation
  77. 77What advantages allow the accelerated paradigm shift of vaccine clinical development for SARS-CoV2? (Dr. Diemert, Lecture, 12/8, slide 83) A. Public health emergency and high demand warranted the risk B. Government funding allowed progression to Phase 3 without risk of investment C. High participant enrollment D. Resources available for many enrollment and administration sites E. All of the aboveAll of the above
  78. 78Which of the following is a possible negative health implication of having a BMI of 30 kg/m2or higher? A- Mitochondrial and ER stress can lead to the formation of reactive oxygen species which can contribute to insulin resistance B- Chronic over-nutrition can cause ectopic lipid accumulation in the liver and muscle C- The degree of inflammatory response becomes much higher during feeding D- Once type 2 diabetes occurs, the cellular and tissue complications can persist even after weight loss E- All of the above are negative consequences of obesityAll of the above are negative consequences of obesity
  79. 79Which of the following is not an effect ofPTSD on cardiovascular disease risk? A- Higher catecholamine concentrations and heart rate B- Increased pro-inflammatory state C- Symptoms that can be alleviated by angiotensin II receptor blocker D- Autonomic balance of the sympathetic and parasympathetic system E- Exaggerated sympathetic nervous system activityAutonomic balance of the sympathetic and parasympathetic system
  80. 80Which type of congenital heart disease is the least severe? A-Cyanotic CHD B- Acyanotic CHD C-Tetralogy of Fallot D-A and C E-All of the aboveAcyanotic CHD
  81. 81Which of the following modalities of inflammation is paired correctly? A. acute- autoimmune disease B. chronic- rheumatoid arthritis C. chronic-laceration D. chronic- burns E. acute- cardiovascular diseasechronic- rheumatoid arthritis
  82. 82What is not true regarding pancreatic cancer? A-Loss of KDM6A/UTY confers poor prognosis in pancreatic cancer B- 95% of patients have a Kras mutation C- Patients with germline mutations have a higher risk of developing pancreatic cancer than patients with somatic mutations D- KDM6A (X-linked) protects against pancreatic cancer better than UTY (Y-linked) so women are more protected than men E-All of the above are trueAll of the above are true
  83. 83During your third rotation in a lab focused on cancer research you find a new gene mutation. The mutation is located on one copy and causes gain of function. What is a likely characteristic of this gene? A- Tumor suppressor gene B- Oncogene C-A p53-like gene D- Promotes proliferation E- B&DB&D
  84. 84You are given the genetic profile of a patient who recently developed breast cancer. What could you assume about the patient? A- The patient has a BRCA1 mutation B- The patient may be on post- menopausal hormone therapy C- The patient has dense breast tissue D- The patient may have a TP53 mutation E- All of the above are risk factors for developing breast cancerAll of the above are risk factors for developing breast cancer
  85. 85What is the possible next step for this patient? A- Administer tamoxifen if it is ER-positive breast cancer B- Stimulate the HER2 receptor C- Assume the cancer is localized only in the patient’s breast tissue D- Recommend genetic counseling and testing for the patient’s daughter E- A & DA & D
  86. 86The first case of HIV in the US was identified in 1981. From 1981-1987, people who contracted HIV had a 90% mortality. However it took six years for the first antiretroviral drug (ART) to be introduced in 1987. What is the main reason for such a long wait for HIV therapy? A. HIV is a retrovirus that mutates frequently, so scientists could not effectively identify a compound that could inhibit viral attachment or replication. B. The technology in the 1980s was not as advanced as today, so scientists were not able to understand the mode of viral entry and replication of the virus. C. HIV was known as a disease that affected homosexuals, so this stigma influenced governments and researchers against investing money for an HIV cure. D. There were different strains of HIV and each strain had a different type of gp120 and gp41 glycoproteins so scientists could not identify a compound that could inhibit replication E. A, B, and DC. HIV was known as a disease that affected homosexuals, so this stigma influenced governments and researchers against investing money for an HIV cure.
  87. 87In 2015 a couple that was HIV positive but under HIV treatment to prevent passing HIV to their offspring wanted to have children . However, their doctor, He Jiankui, informed them that there was a 50% chance of passing HIV to the embryos. He presented them with the option of using CRISPR to knock down the CCR5 gene and re-introduce the embryo to the mother's womb. The parents agreed to go through this process. After birth, both children had irreversible damage and Dr. He Jiankui was imprisoned for 3 years. Why did the parents agree to this procedure ? A. Language in the Consent form was not at an 8th grade reading level B. The risks were not clearly stated C. There was an unethical consent process D. Parents were desperate and feared their daughters contracting HIV E. All of the aboveE. All of the above
  88. 88Myc is defined as a (J. Lee slide 31) a. Tumor suppressor uses lactate dehydrogenase to induce glycolysis b. Oncogene that promotes glucose catabolism c. Tumor suppressor that induces glycolysis d. Oncogene that inhibits glycolysis e. b and db. Oncogene that promotes glucose catabolism
  89. 89What is the difference between cytokines and chemokines? Slide 16 Brett Shook a. Cytokines direct cells in the immune system to the site of infection while chemokines are involved in cellular and antibody mediated immunity in the body b. Cytokines mediate chemotaxis while chemokines release chemical signals c. Cytokines activate effectors while chemokines recruit effectors d. Cytokines are a superfamily of chemokines while chemokines are immune modulating agents e. c and dCytokines activate effectors while chemokines recruit effectors
  90. 90. A scientist proposes to use CRISPR to make a CCR5-D32 in human embryos to prevent HIV infection. Is this an effective strategy to prevent infection? A. No, the cells would still express CXCR4 allowing for HIV infection. B. Yes, HIV can only infect cells through CCR5 co-receptor. C. Yes, HIV requires both CXCR4 and CCR5 present to infect cells D. No, the cells would not express CXCR4 or CCR5 allowing for HIV infection E. Yes, HIV only requires CXCR4 to infect cellsNo, the cells would still express CXCR4 allowing for HIV infection.
  91. 91BACH1 is a metastasis promoter and is highly enriched in triple negative breast cancer (TNBC). One method being studied to target heterogeneous TNBC is through rewiring of signaling using metformin and hemin. The following method provides the most effective way to use these two drugs : a. Use metformin first to target cells expressing high levels of Bach1 and then treat with hemin to target cells by oxidative phosphorylation b. Use hemin first to target cells expressing high levels of Bach1 and then treat with metformin to target cells by oxidative phosphorylation c. Use metformin first to target cells by oxidative phosphorylation and then use hemin to target cells expressing high levels of Bach1 d. Use hemin first to target cells by oxidative phosphorylation and then use metformin to target cells expressing high levels of Bach1 e. None of the aboveUse hemin first to target cells expressing high levels of Bach1 and then treat with metformin to target cells by oxidative phosphorylation

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Flashcards on Human Disease, created by Alex Edwards on 12/12/2021.
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