SPHSPHR BY FUNCTIONAL AREA

SPHSPHR EXAM WEIGHTING BY FUNCTIONAL AREA

• » Business Management and Strategy (30%)
• » Workforce Planning and Employment (17%)
• » Human Resource Development (19%)
• » Compensation and Benefits (13%)
• » Employee and Labor Relations (14%)
• » Risk Management (7%)

Business Management and Strategy (30%)

• 1. The four stages in the life cycles of a business are:
• Recruiting, hiring, promotion, evaluation
• Introduction, growth, maturity, decline
• Job analysis, job design, description, job evaluation
• Planning, implementing, evaluating, revision
• 2. The job characteristics model includes:
• Implementation, attitude surveys, responses, feedback
• Motivation factors and incentives
• Skill variety, task identity, task significance, autonomy, feedback
• Job analysis, task significance, feedback
• 3. The dimensions from Hoffstede’s famous study on IBM employees are:
• Power distance, individualism, masculine/feminine, uncertainty avoidance, long term orientation
• Internal standards, training, quality
• Management commitment, individualism, masculine/feminine, uncertainty avoidance, long term orientation
• Jobs, teams, training, quality, feedback

Questions 3 - 5

• 3. The dimensions from Hoffstede’s famous study on IBM employees are:
• Power distance, individualism, masculine/feminine, uncertainty avoidance, long term orientation
• Internal standards, training, quality
• Management commitment, individualism, masculine/feminine, uncertainty avoidance, long term orientation
• Jobs, teams, training, quality, feedback
• 4. Which is not an example of the life cycle stages of Human Resource development?
• Introduction
• Growth
• Middle Age
• Maturity
• 5. The strategic role of HR Management includes:
• Planning
• Attainment of organizational objectives
• Viewing the strategic role of HR management in the same context as financial, technological, and other resources
• All of the above

Questions 6 - 5

• 6. Employers must consider which one of the following geographic and competitive concerns in making HR plans?
• Employee resistance to geographic relocation
• Organizational restructuring
• Balancing work and family
• Education and employment shifts
• 7. Human resource management is conducted to achieve_______________ goals.
• management
• supervisory
• individual
• organizational
• individual and organizational
• 8. Which is an HR practice typical of an organization that can be defined as “prospector”?
• promote from within
• external staffing
• less training
• extensive training
• b and c

Questions 9 - 11

• 9. Which of the following methods is not a mathematical method for forecasting HR demand?
• simulation models
• productivity ratios
• estimates
• statistical regression analysis
• 10. In the future, HR managers will have to deal with all of the following workforce changes, except.
• a more racially diverse workforce
• a skills shortfall among workers
• an abundance of entry level workers
• an older workforce
• 11. All of the following could be considered steps in forecasting, except:
• Understanding external conditions
• Projecting future staffing requirements
• Projecting the supply of labor
• a job analysis

Questions 12 - 14

• 12. Which one of Hefstede’s cultural dimensions describes how cultures seek to deal with the fact that the future is not perfectly predictable?
• individualism/collectivism
• power distance
• uncertainty avoidance
• masculinity/femininity
• 13. What is a cooperative form of doing business that relies on the talents and capabilities of both labor and management to continually improve quality and productivity?
• scientific management
• total quality management
• continuous learning
• trickle-down management
• 14. What is the planned elimination of large numbers of personnel designed to enhance organizational effectiveness?
• merger
• downsizing
• consolidation
• buy-out

Questions 15 - 17

• 15. The process of analyzing and identifying the need for availability of human resources so that the organization can meet its objectives is known as:
• Strategic Planning
• SWOT Analysis
• Human Resource Planning
• Organization Planning
• 16. A workweek in which a full week’s work is accomplished in fewer than five days is known as:
• Flextime
• Virtual Offices
• Compressed Workweek
• Telecommuting
• 17. A reduction in the size of an organizational workforce is known as:
• Downsizing
• Layoff
• Outplacement
• Termination

Questions 18 - 20

• 18. Development of a business strategy includes:
• External scan
• Internal scan
• Employee dislikes
• A and B
• 19. A unique capability in the organization that creates high value and that differentiates the organization from its competition:
• SWOT
• Organizational culture
• Core competency
• None of the above
• 20. What organization/industry life-cycle is high risk and entrepreneurial spirited:
• Shakeouts
• Embryonic
• Growth
• None of the above

Questions 21 - 23

• 21. What is the primary purpose of an HR audit?
• To measure turnover.
• To evaluate the effectiveness of an organization.
• To compare results to industry standards.
• None of the above.
• 22. In an organizational structure, what is centralization?
• The degree to which decision-making authority is restricted to higher levels of management.
• The degree to which decision-making authority is given to lower levels in an organization’s hierarchy.
• The hierarchical division of labor that distributes formal authority and established how critical
• decisions will be made.
• A combination of A and C.
• 23. What three categories is organization development divided into?
• Interpersonal, personal, executive.
• Interpersonal, technological, structural.
• Technological, specializations, interpersonal
• Processes, structural, groupings.

Questions 24 - 26

• 24. In general, organizational development focuses on change. Which of the following are common characteristics of change?
• Organizational change moves away from the familiar.
• People resist having change imposed on them.
• People see change as a loss of something.
• All of the above.
• 25. What are line units?
• Work groups that perform specialized services for the company (example: accounting).
• Work groups that assist the specialized service departments.
• Work groups that conduct the major business of the organization (example: production workers).
• Work groups that assist the employee’s who perform the major business of the organization.
• 26. What is the goal of diversity training?
• To create sensitivity.
• To help people be aware of cultural differences.
• To teach people to respect the rights and ideas of people who are not like them.
• All of the above

Questions 27 - 29

• 27. According to the DOL (Department of Labor), which of the following is not an important characteristic of a profession?
• Research
• Credentialing
• Opportunity for advancement
• Code of ethics
• 28. In the strategic HR planning process, which of the following should be completed first?
• Define the organizational mission
• Scan the environment
• Forecast internal HR supply and demand
• Complete a human resource inventory
• 29. Succession Plans…
• Examine employee flows in, up, down, across and out of the organization.
• Are a snapshot of key positions and the availability of replacements from current workforce.
• Anticipate managerial staffing requirements and develop high quality employees to satisfy these needs
• Are used to justify the cost of developing and implementing HR programs.

Questions 30 - 31

• 30. What is the most important step of setting up an HRIS (human resource information system)?
• Prepare a request for proposal.
• Analyze needs
• Select a system
• Implement the system
• 31. Which of the following is not a way that a company can set up its departments?
• Structural
• Functional
• Divisional
• Customer

Answeres to Questions 1-

• 1. B
• 2. C
• 3. A
• 4. C
• 5. D
• 6. A
• 7. E
• 8. E
• 9. C
• 10. C

Answeres to Questions 11- 20

• 11. D
• 12. C
• 13. B
• 14. B
• 15. C
• 16. C
• 17. A
• 18. D
• 19. C
• 20. B

Answeres to Questions 21 - 31

• 21. B
• 22. A
• 23. B
• 24. D
• 25. C
• 26. D
• 27. C
• 28. A
• 29. C
• 30. B
• 31. A

Workforce Planning and Employment (17%)

• 1. Affirmative Actions Plans are defined as:
• Part of EEOC requirements
• Written plans for recruiting and hiring minorities and females
• Staffing plans for use with government contracts
• Quota systems
• 2. Employment-at-will involves:
• An agreement by both parties to an employment contract
• Protection by collective bargaining
• Termination provisions for just cause dismissals
• The ability of either party to terminate the employment relationship at any time
• 3. A job analysis is:
• Part of an Affirmative Action Plan
• Produces a job description or a job specification
• Required by the EEOC
• Produced by a job description or a job specification

Questions 4 - 6

• 4. Which of the following describes an example of an alternative work schedule?
• Job sharing
• Self-directed work teams
• Job rotation
• Task forces
• 5. Which of the following is the typical method of measuring employee adherence to performance standards?
• Lack of quality problems
• Goal fulfillment
• Participative management
• Performance appraisal
• 6. A validity study, either predictive or concurrent, in which the predictor data are statistically correlated with the criteria of performance:
• Criterion-related validity
• Content validity
• Concurrent validity
• Construct validity

Questions 7 - 9

• 7. Sex discrimination, sexual harassment, racial/ethic discrimination, and age discrimination are all:
• Offenses for which employers may be sanctioned under the Taft-Hartley Act
• Examples of employment discrimination
• Violations of the Wage and Hour Division of the Department of Labor
• Policies required to be included in an employer personnel policy and procedure manual
• 8. A job analysis includes:
• Obligations to perform certain tasks
• A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions
• A systematic way to gather and analyze information about the content and the human requirements of jobs, and the context in which jobs are performed
• A larger work segment composed of several tasks that are performed by an individual
• 9. Performance appraisal is another name for
• 360 degree feedback
• Employee evaluation
• Human resources management
• Job design

Question 10 - 12

• 10. Which of the following is an issue addressed by the Civil Rights Act of 1991?
• race norming
• international employees
• seniority system
• consent decrees
• all of the above
• 11. The 4/5ths rule states that:
• discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the group’s representation in the relevant labor market.
• discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group.
• discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the group’s representation in the relevant labor market or less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group.
• 12. An index number giving the relationship between a predictor and a criterion variable is:
• correlation coefficient
• concurrent validity
• content validity
• predictive validity

Question 13 - 15

• 13. The Vocational Rehabilitation Act of 1973 prohibits discrimination on the basis of:
• age
• disability
• gender
• national origin
• 14. A manager always hires young, women as receptionists. This is an example of:
• intentional discrimination
• disparate treatment
• disparate impact
• sexual harassment
• 15. FMLA requires employers having ___ employees within a ___ mile radius provide 12 weeks of protection for qualified employees.
• 50, 50
• 50, 75
• 100, 50
• 100, 75

Question 16 - 18

• 16. A job is:
• A group of similar positions having common tasks, duties, and responsibilities.
• A task performed by one person.
• A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions.
• A person’s title at a company
• 17. A situation that exists when protected-class members are treated differently from others is known as:
• Disparate Impact
• BFOQ
• Business Necessity
• Disparate Treatment
• 18. What type of rule states that discrimination generally is considered to occur if the selection rate for a protected group is less than 80% of the groups representation in the relevant labor market or less than 80% of the selection rate for the majority group?
• 3/4ths rule
• 5/6ths rule
• 1/4ths rule
• 4/5ths rule
• 19. A person with in-dep

Questions 19 - 21

• 19. A person with in-depth knowledge and expertise in a limited area of HR:
• HR generalist
• HR manager
• HR specialist
• All of the above
• 20. An employee who is a citizen of one country, working in a second country and employed by an organization headquarted in a third country:
• Third country national
• Host country national
• Expatriate
• None of the above
• 21. Which prohibits discrimination in employment on basis of race, color, religion, sex or national origin:
• Executive Order 11246
• Executive Order 11478
• Civil Right Act of 1991
• Civil Rights Act of 1964

Questions 22 - 24

• 22. Title VII of the Civil Rights Act of 1964 prohibits which of the following in the workplace?
• Discrimination or segregation based on race, color, national origin, religion, or gender.
• Discrimination based on pregnancy, childbirth, or related conditions.
• Sexual harassment.
• All of the above.
• 23. What does the Family and Medical Leave Act allow employees to do?
• To take an extra week of paid vacation.
• To take a two-year leave of absence to care for an ill family member.
• To take up to twelve weeks of unpaid leave during any twelve-month period in order to care for a d. family member, or to care for self due to a serious health condition.
• To buy additional medical benefits.
• 24. Which of the following are exceptions to the definition of discrimination in the workplace?
• Work-related requirements and BFOQ’s.
• Seniority systems.
• Preferential quota systems
• All of the above.

Questions 25 - 27

• 25. What is disparate treatment?
• When protected groups are intentionally treated differently from other employees.
• Employees who are evaluated by different standards.
• Favoritism based on a person’s hair color.
• A and B
• 26. Individuals can prove a prima facia case of disparate treatment if they can demonstrate that they:
• Belong to a minority group or are in a protected class.
• Applied for a job for which the employer was seeking applicants.
• Were rejected, despite being qualified.
• Were rejected and the employer kept looking for people with their qualifications.
• All of the above
• 27. What does the EEO Program require that employers do?
• Keep employee medical files separate from employee personal files.
• Maintain detailed records on their work force (including applicant flow).
• Adjust staffing policies to fit demographic needs.
• B and C.

Questions 28 - 30

• 28. What is an affirmative action program?
• When an employer provides a mentoring program for minorities.
• A program in which employers identify conspicuous imbalances in their workforce, and take positive steps to correct under representation of protected groups.
• An effort by the employer to donate money to inner-city schools.
• A program in which the employers provides tuition reimbursements for their minority employees.
• 29. According to the ADA, the essential job functions in a job description should be listed
• In order of importance
• In order of time spent on the task.
• In alphabetical order
• In no order at all, the ADA requires no particular order.
• 30. Which of the following is an example of listing all employees from highest to lowest in performance?
• Forced distribution
• Paired Comparison
• Ranking
• Structuring

Questions 31 - 33

• 31. Assuming no willful violation, what is the statute of limitations for recovery of back pay under the Fair Labor Standards Act?
• Two years
• Three years
• Four years
• Five years
• 32. Title 7 of the Civil Rights Act :
• Prohibits discrimination based on race, color, religion, gender and national origin.
• Applies only to government agencies
• Prohibits discrimination based on sexual orientation
• Prohibits employers from giving temporary preference to any underrepresented protective group
• 33. What agency is in charge of enforcing Title 7 of the Civil Rights Act?
• NLRB
• ADA Board
• EEOC
• Department of Justice

Questions 34 - 36

• 34. Which law regulates minimum wages, work hours for children and overtime compensation?
• Norris LaGuardia Act
• Taft Hartley Act
• Fair Labor Standards Act
• Wage Discrimination Act
• 35. Which document Identifies and Gives the right to work to an individual?
• U.S. passport
• Government I.D.
• Social Security Card
• U.S. Birth Certificate
• 36. The FLSA provides for unpaid rest breaks if the break is_____ minutes or over?
• 15
• 20
• 25
• 30

Questions 37 - 39

• 37. If the federal minimum wage is $ 5.15 an hour, but the state you live in pays $5.50 an hour. What is the minimum wage that you follow?
• $ 5.15
• $ 5.25
• $ 5.50
• You are free to decide.
• 38. If an employee terminates their employment, how long is the employer required to make insurance under COBRA available to the employee?
• 18 months
• 24 months
• 12 months
• 16 months
• 39. If a trainer develops a training program for their employer, who owns the copyright to it?
• The person who prints it.
• The trainer who wrote it.
• The trainer and the employer.
• The employer of the trainer who wrote it.

Questions 40 - 42

• 40. Which one is not a characteristic of an independent contractor?
• They have a continuous relationship with the employer
• Working off site
• Flexibility to set their own work schedules
• Furnish their own tools and training.
• 41. The FLSA regulates all of the following except?
• Overtime pay
• Employee status
• Employee Retirements Plan
• Record keeping and other administrative concerns
• 42. The Railway Labor Act covers which of the following employees?
• Railroad employees only
• Railroad employees and trucking employees
• Railroad employees and airline employees
• Railroad employees and maritime employees

Questions 43 - 45

• 43. A closed shop is a shop that
• Employers refuse to hire employees who are members of a union.
• Unions require employees to be union members at the time of hiring
• Employers establish company-sponsored unions
• Is the most frequent type of union environment in the US
• 44. The OSHA “general duty clause” means:
• That the employer must maintain a safe work environment where no standards have been established.
• The employer has the right to choose what OSHA regulations to follow as long as they use good judgment.
• The employer must establish more strict health and safety guidelines than established by OSHA.
• The employer has the option of following state health and safety regulations or OSHA standards.
• 45. What is not required to be listed on the OSHA Form 200?
• Date of the injury
• Employee Name
• Occupation/ Department
• Age of the employee

Questions 46 - 48

• 46. At home many employees, must a company comply with OSHA record keeping?
• 25
• 10
• 11
• 32
• 47. Which situation has the highest priority for an OSHA inspection?
• An employee complaint of extremely long hours at work.
• An employee that is exposed to loud noises.
• A situation that causes 7 or more employees to be hospitalized.
• An employee who complains about not enough lighting at their workstation.
• 48. What is the maximum penalty for a willful or repeat violation?
• Up to $100,000 for each violation.
• Up to $15,000 for each violation.
• Up to $70,000 for each violation.
• Up to $ 60,000 for each violation

Questions 49 - 51

• 49. What is the best way to avoid negligent hiring charges?
• To check all references
• Use psychological testing on applicants
• Require drug testing
• Use disclaimers
• 50. A job description should include all of the following except?
• Essential functions of the job.
• Who the position reports to.
• The person who last held that job.
• Minimum qualifications for that position.
• 51. A good MBO has all of the following except:
• Obtainable goals and objectives
• Goals established by boss or supervisor
• Periodic review of objectives
• Goals are measurable

Questions 52-54

• 52. In the action plan step of the performance management process, all take place except:
• The employee agrees with everything said on the evaluation
• Specific objectives are set for the next evaluation period
• A plan is developed on how the employee will meet new objectives
• A discussion on how follow up will take place
• 53. A progressive discipline is a:
• System that fires employees on the first offense
• System that is based on co-workers deciding an employee’s punishment
• Series of disciplinary actions that results in more severe punishment
• Where alternative dispute resolutions are used
• 54. Quid pro quo means:
• Hostile work environment
• This for that
• Reasonable person
• Whistle blowing

Questions 55 - 57

• 55. The Civil Rights Act of 1964, Title VII requires employers with ______ employees to comply with the provisions of the act:
• 100
• 75
• 15
• 50
• 56. Employers should respond to sexual harassment complaints with which of the following:
• Policy, communications and training, plus investigation and action
• Investigation, discipline procedures, and written policies
• Reprimand and dismissal
• Sympathy for the victim
• 57. The ADA states that individuals covered by the act:
• Are responsible to inform the employer of their impairment
• Must pay for their accommodation up to $500.00
• Must be able to perform the duties of the job with accommodation
• Must be able to perform the essential job functions

Questions 58 - 60

• 58. The duties, responsibilities, working conditions, and reporting relationships contained in a job can be found on a:
• Job identification
• Job posting
• Job description
• Job knowledge test
• 59. A type of interview that relies on a careful job analysis to identify the critical job requirements for each position. The interview questions focus on what the person has done in previous situations relative to the job requirements.
• Situational interview
• Targeted-selection interview
• Panel interview
• Nondirective interview
• 60. Which pre-employment measure could a company use to screen candidates for employment who might pose a security risk to the organization?
• Polygraph test
• Drug test using a blood test
• Drug test using a urinalysis test
• Background check with the candidate’s permission

Questions 61 - 63

• 61. The purpose of EEO laws is
• to see what can be done about “glass ceiling” concerns
• to counterbalance what the Congress felt was a too “employer friendly” attitude by the Supreme Court
• to notify age discrimination complainants that the agency is terminating action on their cases and the complainants are then free to file civil suits
• protect individuals who share certain characteristics such as race, age, and gender
• 62. Content validity refers to
• a non-statistical approach using a work sample as a test that identifies the knowledge, skills, and abilities needed for the job being filled by a particular candidate
• validity showing a relationship between an abstract characteristic and job performance
• validity measured when test results of applicants are compared with subsequent performance
• the extension of the validity of tests to different groups, similar jobs, or other organizations
• 63. Appropriate responses by employers to sexual harassment complaints include:
• having a sexual harassment policy
• communications and training
• investigation and action
• all of the above

Questions 64 - 66

• 64. A distinct, identifiable work activity composed of motions is referred to as:
• job
• task
• position
• duty
• 65. Identification of the tasks, duties and responsibilities of a job is defined as:
• job specification
• skill inventory
• job description
• performance standard
• 66. Which of the following is an observation method for conducting job analysis?
• work sampling
• interviewing
• employee diary/log
• a and c

Questions 67 - 69

• 67. Which of the following recruitment methods allows candidates to talk to employers about an opening without making a formal job application?
• executive search firms
• public employment agencies
• employee referrals
• career fairs
• 68. A systematic investigation of the tasks, duties, and responsibilities necessary to do a job is known as:
• Job Analysis
• Job Evaluation
• Job Description
• Job Specification
• 69. Which source of recruiting is not an example of external recruiting?
• School Recruiting
• Media Sources
• Employment Agencies
• Promotion

Questions 70 - 72

• 70. Which of the following is a condition that may exist when a person is denied an opportunity because of preferences given to protected-class individuals who may be less qualified?
• Affirmative Action
• Reverse Discrimination
• Discrimination
• Disparate Treatment
• 71. The best place to start a recruitment program is by conducting a ______ ?
• Strategic analysis.
• Demand Analysis.
• Needs Analysis
• Supply Analysis
• 72. What are the advantages to recruiting employees internally?
• They bring new ideas into the organization.
• It rewards good work of current employees and improves morale.
• It is cost-effective.
• It can result in succession of promotions.
• B, C, and D

Questions 73 - 75

• 73. Which of the following is not an example of Internal recruitment strategy?
• Job rotation
• Job posting
• Skill banks
• Employee referral
• 74. Which of the following is an example of asking each applicant similar questions about their same skills?
• Structured
• Patterned
• Directive
• Behavioral
• 75. Which of the following is an example of asking applicants questions about their past behavior?
• Behavioral interview
• Stress interview
• Non-directive
• Directive

Answers to Questions 1 - 38

• 1. B
• 2. D
• 3. B
• 4. A
• 5. D
• 6. A
• 7. B
• 8. C
• 9. B
• 10. E
• 11. C
• 12. A
• 13. B
• 14. B
• 15. B
• 16. A
• 17. D
• 18. D
• 19. C
• 20. A
• 21. D
• 22. D
• 23. C
• 24. D
• 25. D
• 26. E
• 27. D
• 28. B
• 29. A
• 30. C
• 31. A
• 32. A
• 33. C
• 34. C
• 35. A
• 36. D
• 37. C
• 38. A

Answers to Questions 39 - 75

• 39. D
• 40. A
• 41. C
• 42. C
• 43. B
• 44. A
• 45. D
• 46. C
• 47. C
• 48. C
• 49. A
• 50. C
• 51. B
• 52. A
• 53. C
• 54. B
• 55. C
• 56. A
• 57. D
• 58. C
• 59. B
• 60. D
• 61. D
• 62. A
• 63. D
• 64. B
• 65. C
• 66. D
• 67. D
• 68. A
• 69. D
• 70. B
• 71. C
• 72. E
• 73. A
• 74. B
• 75. A

Human Resource Development (19%) 1-6

• 1. The three phases of training are:
• Needs assessment, implementation, evaluation
• Job analysis, surveying trainees, evaluation
• Commitment from upper management, needs assessment, evaluation
• Approach, emphasis, presentation
• 2. The three learning domains that influence or change behavior are:
• Identification, development, education
• Cooperation, sharing, evaluating
• Preparing, implementing, evaluating
• Skills, knowledge, attitude
• 3. The Hawthorne Studies focused on which of the following:
• Assessing the impact of physical and environment on performance
• Factors of employee’s social groups and interpersonal relationships created at the work place
• Examining interpersonal behavior and credibility
• Examining the factors that determine the need for achievement
• 4. A training technique that involves transferring trainees to different jobs to broaden their focus and to increase their knowledge is:
• Job rotation
• Job-instruction training
• Imitative learning
• Computer-assisted instruction
• 5. Which is not one of the six levels of learning?
• Knowledge
• Application
• Analysis
• Apprenticeship
• 6. Which is not one of the four criteria for evaluating training programs?
• Behavior
• Synthesis
• Reactions
• Learning

Questions 7 - 11

• 7. Which of the following job design practices broadens the scope of a job by expanding the number of different tasks to be performed?
• Job enrichment
• Division of labor
• Job rotation
• Job enlargement
• 8. An employer’s mission statement includes:
• short-term needs to meet the strategic plan
• a statement of purpose for what the organization values
• long-term objectives
• a statement of employment practices
• 9. Direct costs to an employer include:
• costs of operating a program
• costs for operating the entire department
• costs for operating a unit
• costs for operating a division
• 10. The Hawthorne Studies:
• examined the personal and interpersonal behaviors in a group setting, which means that trainers should have credibility in their instruction
• looked at formal and informal work groups and at factors influencing their cohesiveness and effectiveness, which means social group and interpersonal factors are of key importance to designing a training environment
• assessed the impact of physical and environmental influence on employee performance, which means special notice from management may work to increase motivation
• examined the factors that determine the need for achievement and explored their relationship to occupational choice which means employees view training better when they see how it helps their career development
• 11. Which of the following is not a type of training needs analyses?
• task analyses
• organizational analyses
• operations analyses
• individual analyses

Question 12 - 14

• 12. Common forms of behaviorally experienced training include all of the following except:
• diversity training
• in-basket training
• apprenticeship
• case studies/incidents
• business games
• 13. Which of the following is not one of the four strategies used in behavior modification approach?
• behavior modeling
• positive reinforcement
• negative reinforcement
• punishment
• extinction
• 13. Which of the following is not one of the four strategies used in behavior modification approach?
• behavior modeling
• positive reinforcement
• negative reinforcement
• punishment
• extinction
• 14. The preparation of the employee for future responsibility, often at a different level in the organization is?
• development
• training
• education
• needs assessment

Questions 15 - 20

• 15. What assesses the impact of physical and environmental influence on employee performance, which means special notice from management may work to increase motivation?
• group dynamics
• laboratory training
• Hawthorne studies
• need for achievement
• 16. All of the following are types of a training needs analysis, except:
• organizational analysis
• financial analysis
• task analysis
• individual analysis
• 17. The performance of job-related tasks and duties by trainees during training is known as:
• Spaced Practice
• Active Practice
• Massed Practice
• Training Practice
• 18. Which is not a benefit of training?
• To increase company expenses
• Reduction in errors
• Reduction in turnover
• Attitude Changes
• 19. What does the acronym KSA represent:
• Knowledge, skill, ability
• Knowledge, social, ability
• Knowledge, skills, accountability
• None of the above
• 20. Rating all employees in a narrow band in the middle of the rating scale refers to what error:
• Rater bias
• Recently effect
• Strictness
• Central tendency

Questions 21 - 25

• 21. An error that occurs when a raters values or prejudices distort the rating:
• Central tendency
• Leniency
• Raters bias
• None of above
• 22. Mentoring is:
• Ongoing and spontaneous meetings between supervisors and their employees to discuss the employee’s career goals, and to give advice.
• Assigning employees to various jobs.
• A developmentally oriented relationship between two individuals that involves advising, networking, and supporting.
• Demonstrating new skills to the mentored individual
• 23. What do all four phases of the learning process have in common?
• Reaction
• Questioning
• Results
• Behavior
• 24. Which of the following is not an example of a type of organization according to Miles and Snow Strategy typology
• Reactor
• Defender
• Prospector
• Collaborator
• 25. Which of the following correctly defines training?
• Skills that apply to an employees current job
• Preparation of the employee for future responsibility
• A generalized, individual learning experience
• An attempt to modify behavior

Answers to Questions 1-25

• 1. A
• 2. D
• 3. A
• 4. A
• 5. D
• 6. B
• 7. D
• 8. B
• 9. A
• 10. C
• 11. C
• 12. C
• 13. A
• 14. A
• 15. C
• 16. B
• 17. B
• 18. A
• 19. A
• 20. D
• 21. C
• 22. C
• 23. B
• 24. D
• 25. A

Employee and Labor Relations 1- 6

• 1. In a union setting the grievance procedure is a function of:
• Harassing the supervisor
• Pattern bargaining
• Airing gripes
• Conflict resolution
• 2. The phases in the labor relations process are:
• Recognition, negotiation, and administration
• Determining the bargaining unit, collective bargaining, grievance procedures
• Collection of authorization cards, elections, recognition
• Collective bargaining, grievances, economic pressures
• 3. A union shop is one where:
• Membership is required before one can be hired
• Membership is optional, but dues are required
• Membership is required within a specified time period after being hired
• Membership is required before the next contract negotiations
• 4. An informal process of agreement used by the EEOC for resolving charges of discrimination
• Constructive discharge
• Executive orders
• Conciliation
• Employment-at-will doctrine
• 5. Legal theory that makes employers liable for the abusive acts of employees if the employer knew or should have known about the employees’ propensity for such conduct.
• Age Discrimination Act
• Four-fifths rule
• Affirmative Action plans
• Negligent hiring
• 6. Money provided to temporarily assist employees who are laid off through no fault of their own:
• Worker’s compensation
• Medicare
• Perquisites
• Unemployment compensation

Questions 7 -1

• 7. A union shop clause states that:
• Workers who take a job in a bargaining unit do not need to join the union
• Workers who take a job in a bargaining unit must pay dues to the union but do not need to join
• Workers must join the union before they will be considered for a job in a bargaining unit
• Workers who take a job in a bargaining unit must join the union within a certain period of time
• 8. What is the first step that these employees must take if they no longer wish to be represented by their union?
• The employees must request temporary leave from the union
• The employees must request an investigation by the NLRB
• The employees must inform union leaders of their dissatisfaction
• The employees must request a decertification election
• 9. Which of the following legislation prohibits mandatory retirement based on age?
• Older Worker’s Benefit Protection Act (1990)
• Age Discrimination in Employment Act (1967)
• Vocational Rehabilitation Act (1973)
• Title I of the Americans with Disabilities Act (1990)
• 10. The Wagner Act (National Labor Relations Act) was enacted by Congress in:
• 1935
• 1936
• 1947
• 1959

Questions 11 - 15

• 11. The Labor Management Relations Act:
• protects individuals from their unions with a guaranteed “bill of rights”
• mandates employers maintain records on employees, pay at minimum wage, and pay one and one-half for hours worked over 40
• provided workers right to organize
• provides that employers may not terminate/discriminate against an employee for union involvement
• 12. The act which prohibits employers with 15 or more workers from discriminating in employment, public services & transportation, public accommodations, and telecom is:
• Executive Order 11246
• Equal Employment Opportunity Act
• Age Discrimination in Employment Act
• None of the above
• 13. A firm that requires employees who refuse to join the union to pay equivalent amounts equal to union dues and fees for the union representative services is defined as:
• union shop
• agency shop
• closed shop
• none of the above
• 14. The “National Labor Code” includes which of the following?
• the Wagner Act
• the Taft-Hartley Act
• the Landrum-Griffin Act
• all of the above
• none of the above
• 15. Contract provisions to aid the union in obtaining and retaining members are referred to as:
• dues checkoff
• mandatory issues
• permissive issues
• union security provisions
• none of the above

Questions 16 - 20

• 16. All of the following are mandatory bargaining items, except.
• Holidays
• Pensions
• Hot cargo clauses
• Employee security
• 17. What is the largest labor union?
• National Education Assoc. (NEA)
• Electrical (IBEW)
• Teamsters (IBT)
• Auto Workers (UAW)
• 18. What labor law amended the NLRA and added unfair union labor practices?
• Landrum-Griffin Act
• Taft-Hartley Act
• Fair Labor Standards Act
• Wagner Act
• 19. A firm that requires employees who refuse to join the union to pay amounts equal to union dues and fees for the union’s representative service is known as:
• Closed Shop
• Union Shop
• Open Shop
• Agency Shop
• 20. The process by which a third party assists negotiators in their discussions and also suggests settlement proposals is known as:
• Arbitration
• Conciliation
• Mediation
• Ratification

Questions 21 - 25

• 21. Which of the following is not a type of strike?
• Sympathy Strike
• Empathy Strike
• Economic Strike
• Unfair Labor Practice Strike
• 22. Details of an employment agreement are often spelled out in a formal:
• non-piracy agreement
• non-compete covenant
• implied agreement
• employment contract
• 23. A firm that requires individuals to join a union before they can be hired:
• Agency shop
• Closed shop
• Union shop
• All of the above
• 24. The LRMA was enacted by which of the following acts:
• Landrum-Griffin Act
• Taft-Hartley Act
• Wagner Act
• Norris-LaGuardia Act
• 25. A means by which disputes arising from different interpretations of a labor contract are settled by a third party:
• Mediation
• Grievance procedure
• Grievance arbitration
• A and B

Questions 26 - 29

• 26. Research has identified three psychological determinants that influence a person’s decision to join or avoid a union. What are the three determinants?
• The health of the economy, desire to feel accepted, and strong beliefs about the union.
• Perception of the work environment, desire to participate, and strong beliefs about the union.
• The health of the economy, the perceptions of family members, and the desire to impact society.
• Perception of the work environment, the perception of family members, and the feeling that its “the right thing to do.”
• 27. When is the NLRB authorized to conduct an election?
• When a petition has been filed by an employee, an individual, a labor organization, or an employer.
• When 30% or more eligible employees have sign authorization cards.
• A and B.
• When an employer signs a contract agreeing to a union election
• 28. What is a consent election?
• When the regional director schedules a hearing to resolve election disputes.
• An order by the NLRB to cancel the election.
• An agreement between an employer and the union to waive the pre-election hearing.
• None of the above
• 29. What is the very first step in the union decertification process?
• When an employee or group of employees request a decertification.
• When union members stop paying dues and attending meetings.
• When the employer, the union, and the community come together to request a decertification
• election.
• When the NLRB sends a notice requiring a decertification election.

Questions 30 - 35

• 30. Which of the following is an example of an employee who must join the union as a condition of employment?
• Union shop
• Agency shop
• Closed shop
• Industrial shop
• 31. Which of the following is considered illegal?
• Agency shop
• Union shop
• Closed shop
• Hiring halls
• 32. Which of the following is an example of a union organizer working within the company that the union wants to unionize?
• Scab
• Indirect Pressure
• Hand billing
• Salting
• 33. What percent of employees must sign union representation cards to hold an election?
• 50%
• 30%
• 75%
• 25%
• 34. The NLRB can waive an election based on all except:
• The authorization cards are clear and unambiguous
• Employees’ signatures were obtained through threatening and coercing
• A fair and impartial election is impossible based on the employers conduct.
• The majority of the employees have signed union authorization cards.
• 35. In an unionized organization which group of employees are more likely to have their own bargaining unit :
• Security Guards
• Janitors
• Electricians and other skilled employees
• Unskilled laborers

Questions 36 - 40

• 36. Organizational picketing is done to:
• Obtain employer recognition of the unit as a bargaining representative
• Gain public support for the union and its goals
• Promote employees acceptance of the union as their representative
• Inform employees about what the key issues are
• 37. The collective bargaining agreement should guarantee specific rights to the employer except:
• Rights to determine what product or services they will produce
• Restrict the unions use of the company’s property for union meetings
• The employer can not file charges against the union
• The employer can discipline employees for “just cause”
• 38. Which of the following activities is a protected activity?
• Picketing
• Wildcat Strike
• Secondary boycotts
• Shutdowns
• 39. In the face of a strike threat, management is most interested in:
• How to continue production or providing a service
• Providing security for the strikers
• Maintaining benefits for striking employees
• Notifying the local press
• 40. What type of strike is unapproved by the union?
• Secondary strike
• Economic Strike
• Lockout
• Wildcat Strike

Questions 41 - 45

• 41. Mandatory topics of negotiation is established by:
• Unions and employers
• Unions
• Employers
• NLRB
• 42. Illegal subjects of negotiations include all the following except for:
• Wildcat Strikes
• Hot Cargo Clauses
• Discipline Procedures
• Closed Shop Agreements
• 43. Parallel or pattering bargaining is most common in what industry?
• Airline Industry
• Professional Sports
• Heavy Manufacturing
• Automotive Industry
• 44. Principled negotiations is not based on:
• Separate the people from the problem
• Focus on positions
• Invent options for mutual gains
• Insist on objective criteria
• 45. What reasons does an employer have to not give the union requested information?
• The union requests information for non bargaining related purposes
• If the cost of providing the information is prohibitive to the employer
• It would violate trade secrets of the employer
• The employer must provide all information requested by the union

Question 46 - 49

• 46. A company that wants to change an existing collective bargaining agreement must notify the other party how many days in advance prior to the expiration of the contract?
• 30 days
• 60 days
• 90 days
• 120 days
• 47. What is the final step in the grievance procedure?
• The Shake-Out Step between top management and top union officials
• The NLRB makes a ruling
• Third party determination
• The local labor relations representative and the union chairperson
• 48. Which of the following is least likely to be used in a nonunion environment?
• Open door policy
• Alternative dispute resolution
• Arbitration
• Peer reviews
• 49. The governmental agency that watches over public sector labor management relations is:
• NLRB
• Department of Labor
• Justice Department
• Federal Labor Relations Council

Questions 50 - 51 & Answers 1- 20

• 50. What law governs collective bargaining among federal employees?
• Civil Service Reform Act
• National Labor Relations Act
• Federal Labor Relations Act
• Labor-Management Relations Act
• 51. If an employee files a grievance who is the person that has first opportunity to solve the grievance?
• Union Representative
• First Line Supervisor
• Labor Relations Representative
• Union Shop Chairperson
• 1. D
• 2. A
• 3. C
• 4. C
• 5. D
• 6. D
• 7. D
• 8. D
• 9. B
• 10. A
• 11. D
• 12. D
• 13. B
• 14. D
• 15. D
• 16. C
• 17. A
• 18. B
• 19. D
• 20. C

Answers 21- 51

• 21. B
• 22. D
• 23. B
• 24. B
• 25. C
• 26. B
• 27. C
• 28. C
• 29. A
• 30. A
• 31. C
• 32. D
• 33. B
• 34. B
• 35. A
• 36. C
• 21. B
• 22. D
• 23. B
• 24. B
• 25. C
• 26. B
• 27. C
• 28. C
• 29. A
• 30. A
• 31. C
• 32. D
• 33. B
• 34. B
• 35. A
• 36. C
• 37. C
• 38. A
• 39. A
• 40. D
• 41. D
• 42. C
• 43. D
• 44. B
• 45. C
• 46. B
• 47. C
• 48. C
• 49. D
• 50. A
• 51. B
• 37. C
• 38. A
• 39. A
• 40. D
• 41. D
• 42. C
• 43. D
• 44. B
• 45. C
• 46. B
• 47. C
• 48. C
• 49. D
• 50. A
• 51. B

Compensation and Benefits (13%) 1- 5

• 1. Direct compensation includes which of the following:
• Flexible benefits
• Long-term incentive pay
• Workers’ Compensation
• Unpaid leave
• 2. Indirect compensation is represented by which of the following:
• Social Security benefits
• Short-term incentive pay
• Differential pay
• Merit pay
• 3. An audit and review of the services and costs billed by health-care providers is known as:
• Procedural review
• Practice analysis
• Utilization review
• Operational control
• 4. Person-based pay systems:
• Pay higher performers more aggressively
• Pay employees with long service more
• Will not work when large numbers of professionals are employed
• Pay employees for what they are capable of doing rather than the tasks they currently perform
• 5. Executives typically receive:
• All of their direct compensation in incentives
• Fewer perquisites than other employees
• A higher percentage of their direct compensation in base salary than do other employees
• A wider variety of compensation programs than do other employees

Questions 6 - 9

• 6. Which of the following employees must be paid overtime?
• A janitor who worked 30 hours during the workweek and was also paid for 12 hours of vacation time
• A vice president in charge of operations who worked 50 hours last week
• A nonexempt employee who put in 45 hours last week
• A dock worker who worked 40 hours, including 10 hours on Christmas
• 7. Which is an example of a health-related service that would be under the area of employee assistance programs?
• Smoking cessation
• On-the-job accident protection
• Family and marital counseling
• High blood pressure control
• 8. A compensation program should address which of the following objectives?
• legal compliance with all appropriate laws and regulations
• cost effectiveness for the organization
• internal, external, and individual equity for employees
• all of the above
• 9. An employee who holds a non-exempt position under the Fair Labor Standards Act:
• exercises discretionary authority for independent action
• uses the percentage of his or her time performing routine, manual, or clerical work
• earns an annual income in excess of $100,000
• none of the above

Questions 10 - 14

• 10. One strategic business reason for offering a comprehensive benefits package to employees is:
• to help attract and retain employees
• to beat out the competition
• to decrease employer operating costs
• to offer cafeteria-style health care plans to employees
• 11. The Davis-Bacon Act of 1931:
• requires company with federal supply or service contracts exceeding $10,000 to pay a prevailing wage
• deals only with firms engaged in federal construction projects valued in excess of $2,000 and requires that the “prevailing wage” rate be paid
• addresses wage discrimination on the bases of sex
• establishes overtime pay requirements
• 12. Which of the following is not one of the three main factors of the Hay system?
• experience
• know-how
• problem solving
• accountability
• 13. Which of the following is a legally mandated benefit?
• social security
• unemployment compensation
• workers’ compensation
• all of the above
• 14. What provides counseling and other help to employees having emotional, physical and other personal problems?
• employee assistance programs
• Drug Free Workplace Act
• OSHA
• wellness programs

Questions 15 - 20

• 15. Which of the following acts deals directly with discrimination in compensation?
• Comparable worth
• Equal Pay Act
• Davis-Bacon Act
• Fair Labor Standards Act
• 16. Which of the following is a funding feature of a health plan?
• HMO coverage
• PPO coverage
• self-insurance
• office visits
• 17. Total benefits cost (TBC):
• is a ratio of benefit cost per employee to average number of employees
• is exclusive of miscellaneous items such as education
• includes staff time, overhead, processing costs
• is not usually calculated because it varies so much
• 18. Similarity in pay for jobs requiring comparable level of knowledge, skill, and ability, even where actual job duties differ significantly is the:
• Equal Pay
• Pay Equity
• Paycheck Fairness Act
• None of the above
• 19. An incumbent who is paid below the range set for the job:
• red-circled employee
• green-circled employee
• blue-circled employee
• None of the above
• 20. Variable pay is also know as:
• incentives
• group pay
• performance pay
• B and C

Questions 21 - 24

• 21. A security benefit voluntarily offered by employers to employees who lose their job:
• COBRA
• Severance pay
• Unemployment compensation
• Supplemental Pay
• 22. Which of the following categories is not an example of an exempt classification?
• Executive
• Sales
• Professional
• Technical
• 23. The Equal Pay Act for equal work of same skills, effort, and responsibilities. Which of the following is not an exemption of this act?
• Seniority
• Performance
• Geographic location
• Overtime
• 24. Which of the following is an example of payment that is consistent from period to period despite the number of hours worked
• Wage
• Salary
• Reward
• Incentive

Answer Key 1- 24

• 1. B
• 2. A
• 3. C
• 4. D
• 5. D
• 6. C
• 7. C
• 8. D
• 9. B
• 10. A
• 11. B
• 12. A
• 13. D
• 14. A
• 15. B
• 16. C
• 17. C
• 18. B
• 19. B
• 20. A
• 21. B
• 22. D
• 23. D
• 24. B

Risk Management (7%) 1 - 24

• 1. According to OSHA, a recordable case is one in which:
• Any type of medical treatment is administered
• Includes injuries where first-aid is administered
• There is an occupational injury or death
• Includes minor scratches, cuts, burns, or splinters
• 2. A MSDS is required:
• When the employment facility is located in the path of hazardous material transportation
• For each hazardous chemical that is used, processed, or stored
• Any employee handles hazardous materials
• An employee is hired into a position that is exposed to hazardous materials
• 3. Polygraph tests can be administered
• To all employees who handle money
• To guards hired for certain security firms and workers who manufacture, distribute, or have access to controlled substances
• When an employee is suspected of theft or miss-conduct
• To any job applicant who has signed a release
• 4. These standards include general requirements for all machinery to protect the operator and other employees in the machine area from hazards.
• Occupational Noise Exposure
• Machine Guarding
• Mine Safety and Health Act
• Hazard Communication
• 5. A leading cause of stress in the workplace is:
• enhanced employee benefits
• a lack of personal control in job
• a reason for increased motivation in employees
• one which the employee alone creates
• 6. Examples of wellness programs include:
• smoking cessation programs
• retirement planning
• educational type programs (i.e. child care, aging, cancer prevention, etc.)
• all of the above
• 7. When conducting accident investigations and completing reports, employers should:
• disregard the employee’s concerns
• not maintain the written report
• talk to the injured person and witnesses
• not complete accident investigations

Questions 7 -11

• 7. When conducting accident investigations and completing reports, employers should:
• disregard the employee’s concerns
• not maintain the written report
• talk to the injured person and witnesses
• not complete accident investigations
• 8. Condition in which the physical well-being of people is protected is defined as:
• security
• health
• safety
• none of the above
• 9. Which of the following is a type of injury or illness defined by the Occupational Safety and Health Act?
• lost-time or disability injuries
• injury-or-illness related deaths
• minor injuries
• all of the above
• only a and b
• 10. The Occupational Safety and Health Act (OSHA) was passed in:
• 1912
• 1960
• 1970
• 1986
• 11. What is the order in which actions should be taken to eliminate work safety problems?
• time and motion studies
• safety hierarchy
• safety progression
• safety time line

Questions 12 - 17

• 12. What type of injury or illness is defined by OSHA?
• injury or illness related death
• lost-time or disability injuries
• medical care injuries
• all of the above
• 13. What type of form does OSHA use to record accidents, illness, and injures?
• Form 2000
• Form 200
• The company is responsible for creating the form
• OSHA Notification Report
• 14. What is the number one cause of death on the job?
• Heart Attack
• Stroke
• Vehicle Accident
• Suicide
• 15. Which of the following is not one of the three different approaches to effective safety management?
• Organizational Approach
• Engineering Approach
• Human Resources Approach
• Individual Approach
• 16. A report that list employee injuries:
• OSHA Injury log
• OSHA Medical log
• OSHA 200 log
• OSHA Safety Log
• 17. The proper design of the work environment to address the physical demands experienced by people:
• Physical settings
• Comfort zoning
• Ergonomics
• All of the above

Questions 18 - 20

• 18. Employees with AIDS who can perform essential functions and are not a threat to the safety of other employees are protected by which of the following acts
• Fair Labor Standards Act
• Equal Pay Act
• Americans With Disabilities Act
• Health Insurance Portability and Accountability Act
• 19. Which of the following does not apply to the Drug Free Workplace Act?
• Applies to employers who have contracts/grants with the government
• Tobacco and alcohol are not considered controlled substances under the act
• Informs employees of requirements, what actions for violations, awareness, and supervisory training
• Is a recognized element under the ADA
• 20. Which of the following is not covered by the Employee Right to Know Act?
• Employers must provide written hazard communication programs to train employees about the hazards that they may be exposed to in the workplace
• Train the employees about the hazards, how exposure occurs, symptoms, treatment, what to do if exposed, and how to avoid exposure
• Form a safety committee and implement safety incentive programs
• Chemical manufacturers must provide a material safety data sheet to employer for every hazardous substance

Answers to Questions 1- 20

• 1. C
• 2. B
• 3. B
• 4. B
• 5. B
• 6. D
• 7. C
• 8. C
• 9. D
• 10. C
• 11. B
• 12. D
• 13. B
• 14. C
• 15. C
• 16. C
• 17. C
• 18. C
• 19. D
• 20. C