Pharmacology MCQs- 4th Year- PMU

Question

The main routes of enteral administration of drugs are:

Answer 1

by injection

Answer 2

per mucosa

Answer 3

easily self-administered

Answer 4

toxicity and overdose may be overcome with antidotes

Answer 5

drugs avoid first-pass metabolism

Answer 6

drugs go directly into the systemic circulation

Answer 7

suitable for vomiting patients

Answer 8

suitable for children

Answer 9

suitable for unconscious patients

Answer 10

a way to avoid first-pass metabolism

Answer 11

a trained staff is required

Answer 12

risk of bacterial contamination at the site of injection

Answer 13

it is painful and stressful for the patient

Answer 14

drugs undergo first-pass metabolism in the liver

Answer 15

aqueous solutions can be administered i.v.

Answer 16

oil solutions can be administered i.v.

Answer 17

has the highest bioavailability

Answer 18

used for treatment of life-threatening conditions

Answer 19

drug absorption and distribution

Answer 20

drug biotransformation

Answer 21

drug elimination

Answer 22

drug biological activity

Answer 23

does not require energy

Answer 24

requires energy

Answer 25

involves a carrier

Answer 26

drugs move from high to lower concentration

Answer 27

in a medium with low pH

Answer 28

in a medium with high pH

Answer 29

in the stomach

Answer 30

in the intestine

Answer 31

depends on the charge of the drug molecule

Answer 32

does not depend on the charge of the drug molecule

Answer 33

is penetration through aqueous channels or pores

Answer 34

is penetration through the biological membranes

Answer 35

in a medium with low pH

Answer 36

in a medium with high pH

Answer 37

in the stomach

Answer 38

in the intestine

Answer 39

it is energy - dependent

Answer 40

it is not energy - dependent

Answer 41

requires carriers

Answer 42

does not require carriers

Answer 43

bound drugs are pharmacologically active

Answer 44

only the unbound drugs can act on target sites in the tissues

Answer 45

only the bound drugs are available to the process of elimination

Answer 46

drugs may displace each other from the binding proteins

Answer 47

increase a drug’s pharmacological activity

Answer 48

decrease a drug’s pharmacological activity

Answer 49

change the pharmacological effects of a drug

Answer 50

change the toxicity of a drug

Answer 51

acetylation

Answer 52

conjugation

Answer 53

acetylation

Answer 54

conjugation

Answer 55

may or may not involve cytochrome P450 system

Answer 56

phase 1 reactions convert Iipophilic molecules to more polar molecules

Answer 57

includes alcohol dehydrogenation, amine oxidation, hydrolysis

Answer 58

consists of conjugation reactions

Answer 59

the drug is a weak acid and the urine is alkaline

Answer 60

the drug is a weak acid and the urine is acidic

Answer 61

the drug is a weak base and the urine is alkaline

Answer 62

the drug is a barbiturate and the urine is alkaline

Answer 63

drug effects

Answer 64

mechanisms of drug action

Answer 65

drug elimination

Answer 66

how the organism changes drugs

Answer 67

drug effect

Answer 68

drug action

Answer 69

adverse drug reaction

Answer 70

placebo effect

Answer 71

drug action

Answer 72

drug effect

Answer 73

adverse drug reaction

Answer 74

placebo effect

Answer 75

induces (generates) a change in organism functions

Answer 76

has selectivity

Answer 77

has sensitivity

Answer 78

has specificity

Answer 79

have affinity

Answer 80

block receptors

Answer 81

have intrinsic activity

Answer 82

bind to the receptor

Answer 83

have strong affinity

Answer 84

have intrinsic activity

Answer 85

block the receptor

Answer 86

do not have intrinsic activity

Answer 87

difference between minimal toxic and minimal therapeutic doses

Answer 88

ratio between minimal toxic and minimal therapeutic doses

Answer 89

difference between mean lethal and mean effective doses

Answer 90

ratio between lethal and mean effective doses

Answer 91

difference between minimal toxic and minimal therapeutic doses

Answer 92

ratio between minimal toxic and minimal therapeutic doses

Answer 93

difference between mean lethal and mean effective doses

Answer 94

ratio between mean lethal and mean effective doses

Answer 95

antagonism

Answer 96

synergy/antagonism

Answer 97

chemical antagonism (formation of complexes)

Answer 98

Fentanyl and Droperidol

Answer 99

Heparin and Protamine

Answer 100

Amoxicillin and Clavulanic acid

Answer 101

Diazepam and Flumazenil

Answer 102

Allylnormorphine

Answer 103

Flumazenil

Answer 104

Morphine and Naloxone

Answer 105

Diazepam and Flumazenil

Answer 106

Epinephrine and Histamine

Answer 107

Iron preparation and Deferroxamine

Answer 108

Phenobarbital

Answer 109

Metronidazole

Answer 110

drug tolerance

Answer 111

drug dependence

Answer 112

drug accumulation

Answer 113

allergic reactions

Answer 114

drug tolerance

Answer 115

physical dependence

Answer 116

psychological dependence

Answer 117

decontamination of laundry and sanitary facilities

Answer 118

decontamination of skin and mucous membranes

Answer 119

internal administration

Answer 120

treatment of fever

Answer 121

urine, faeces and other

Answer 122

instruments

Answer 123

clothing and underwear

Answer 124

detergents

Answer 125

barbiturates

Answer 126

oxidizing agents and halogen derivatives

Answer 127

they are synthetic analogues of p-aminobenzoic acid (PABA) and complete with it for the enzyme dihydropteroate synthetase

Answer 128

they increase the permeability of the bacterial cell membrane

Answer 129

they inhibit bacterial wall synthesis

Answer 130

they inhibit the synthesis of bacterial dihydrofolic acid

Answer 131

have broad antibacteriai spectrum

Answer 132

have narrow antibacterial spectrum

Answer 133

they are bactericidal

Answer 134

they are bacteriostatic

Answer 135

bacteriostatic drugs

Answer 136

bactericidal drugs

Answer 137

antiviral drugs

Answer 138

narrow spectrum antimicrobial drugs

Answer 139

Gentamycin

Answer 140

Moxifloxacin

Answer 141

Ciprofloxacin

Answer 142

Levofloxacin

Answer 143

inhibition of protein synthesis

Answer 144

inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Answer 145

inhibition of topoisomerase II and IV

Answer 146

inhibition of DNA transcription and replication

Answer 147

broad antibacterial spectrum

Answer 148

narrow antibacterial spectrum

Answer 149

bacteriostatic effect

Answer 150

bactericidal effect

Answer 151

articular cartilage erosion (arthropathy)

Answer 152

hypertension

Answer 153

seizures in patients with epilepsy

Answer 154

prolongation of QT interval

Answer 155

penicillins

Answer 156

cephalosporins

Answer 157

monobactams

Answer 158

tetracyclines

Answer 159

are bactericidal

Answer 160

are bacterostatic

Answer 161

accumulate in tissues- in bones and teeth

Answer 162

are effective against rickettsiae, mycoplasma, chlamydia

Answer 163

Azithromycin (Azatril)

Answer 164

Roxithromycin (Rulid)

Answer 165

Clarithroomycin (Klacid)

Answer 166

Gentamycin

Answer 167

bactericidal

Answer 168

bacteriostatic

Answer 169

inhibitors of methylxanthines’ metabolism

Answer 170

effective against mycoplasmas, Legionella, Chlamydia

Answer 171

gastrointestinal disturbances

Answer 172

hepatotoxicity

Answer 173

nephrotoxicity

Answer 174

penicillins

Answer 175

cephalosporins

Answer 176

monobactams

Answer 177

carbapenems

Answer 178

allergic reactions

Answer 179

hepatotoxicity

Answer 180

anaphylactic shock

Answer 181

disbactenosrs (for orally administered broad-spectrum penicillins)

Answer 182

More effective against Gram (+) microorganisms

Answer 183

Cefalexin and Cefazolin

Answer 184

Bacteriostatic

Answer 185

Some agents are nephrotoxic

Answer 186

Cefetamet and Ceftriaxon

Answer 187

Cefaclor and Cefamandol

Answer 188

More effective against Gram (-) microorganisms

Answer 189

Used for treatment of life-threatening infections

Answer 190

Gentamycin

Answer 191

Tobramycin

Answer 192

they block protein synthesis and are bactericidal

Answer 193

they accumulate in soft tissues and bones

Answer 194

they are administrated orally for treatment of urinary infections

Answer 195

they are effective against Gram (-) microorganisms

Answer 196

nephrotoxicity

Answer 197

ototoxicity

Answer 198

myelotoxlcity

Answer 199

hepatotoxiclty

Answer 200

are fungistatic

Answer 201

inhibit cell wall synthesis

Answer 202

inhibit ergosterol synthesis

Answer 203

inhibit hepatic CYP450 enzymes

Answer 204

hepatotoxicity

Answer 205

endocrine disorders

Answer 206

nephrotoxicity

Answer 207

nausea, vomiting

Answer 208

has fungistatic activity

Answer 209

causes gastrointestinal disturbances

Answer 210

is effective against Trichomonas vaginalis

Answer 211

is effective against Candida species

Answer 212

it inhibits viral DNA polymerase

Answer 213

it is used for treatment of herpes virus infections

Answer 214

it inhibits neuraminidase enzyme

Answer 215

can be applied topically, orally or intravenously

Answer 216

interference with the function of the viral M2 protein

Answer 217

inhibition of specific neuraminidase enzyme

Answer 218

inhibition of reverse transcriptases

Answer 219

inhibition of proteases

Answer 220

inhibition of cell wall synthesis

Answer 221

inhibition of 50 S ribosomal subunit

Answer 222

inhibition of DNA-dependent RNA polymerase

Answer 223

increased cell membrane permeability

Answer 224

heart failure

Answer 225

orange-red color of urine and other secretions

Answer 226

hepatotoxicity

Answer 227

hypoglycaemia

Answer 228

hypnotic effect

Answer 229

anxiolytic effect

Answer 230

muscle-relaxing effect

Answer 231

anticonvulsant effect

Answer 232

they enhance the effectiveness of GABA

Answer 233

they inhibit the phosphodiesterase

Answer 234

they are positive allosteric modulators of the GABA-mediation

Answer 235

they block D2 receptors in the CNS

Answer 236

Phenobarbital

Answer 237

Zolpidem (Stilnox)

Answer 238

Zopiclone (Imovan)

Answer 239

bitter or metallic taste in the mouth

Answer 240

behavioral changes

Answer 241

hypertension

Answer 242

hypoglycemia

Answer 243

parenterally

Answer 244

subcutaneously

Answer 245

by inhalation

Answer 246

enhancing GABA synaptic transmission

Answer 247

blocking D2 receptors

Answer 248

reducing cell membrane permeability to calcium T-channels

Answer 249

reducing cell membrane permeability to sodium channels

Answer 250

Carbamazepine

Answer 251

Benzodiazepines

Answer 252

Lamotrigine

Answer 253

Ethosuximide

Answer 254

Phenobarbital

Answer 255

Levetiracetam

Answer 256

It is a drug of first choice or focal and secondary generalized epilepsy

Answer 257

It is appropriate for treatment of absence seizures

Answer 258

It is used in the treatment of insomnia

Answer 259

It is useful for treatment of trigeminal neuralgia

Answer 260

It reduces cell membrane permeability to voltage-dependent sodium channels

Answer 261

It increases GABA synaptic transmission

Answer 262

It is a potent enzyme inducer

Answer 263

It is also used as an antiarrhythmic drug

Answer 264

constipation

Answer 265

weight gain

Answer 266

hepatotoxicity

Answer 267

Benzodiazepines

Answer 268

Carboxamides

Answer 269

Valproates

Answer 270

Barbiturates

Answer 271

skeletal muscles

Answer 272

bronchial smooth muscles

Answer 273

smooth muscles of GIT

Answer 274

autonomic ganglia

Answer 275

adrenal gland medulla

Answer 276

heart muscle

Answer 277

skeletal muscles

Answer 278

bradycardia

Answer 279

tachycardia

Answer 280

increased digestive (abundant saliva), bronchial, cutaneous, (sweat) and lacrimal secretions

Answer 281

increased tone and peristaltic contractions of GIT

Answer 282

Atropini sulfas

Answer 283

Pilocarpini hydrochloridum

Answer 284

Neostigmini methylsulfas

Answer 285

Galantamini bromidum

Answer 286

increases the intraocular pressure

Answer 287

decreases the intraocular pressure

Answer 288

lpratropii bromidum

Answer 289

Galantamine bromidum

Answer 290

Neostigmine methylsulfas

Answer 291

Pyridostigmine bromidum

Answer 292

bronchial asthma

Answer 293

paralytic ileus

Answer 294

bradycardia

Answer 295

Atropini sulfas

Answer 296

Butylscopolamine

Answer 297

Atracurium besilas

Answer 298

Ipratropium bromidum

Answer 299

tachycardia

Answer 300

intestinal smooth muscle relaxation

Answer 301

decrease the secretion of exocrine glands

Answer 302

bronchial asthma

Answer 303

spasm of the smooth muscles of GlT

Answer 304

to elicit papillary dilation

Answer 305

tachycardia

Answer 306

difficulties in seeing close objects

Answer 307

disorientation and hallucinations

Answer 308

histamine release

Answer 309

hypotension

Answer 310

hypertension

Answer 311

allergic reaction

Answer 312

Anticholinesterases

Answer 313

MAO inhibitors

Answer 314

Antimuscarinic agents

Answer 315

Aminoglycoside antibiotics

Answer 316

short-lasting effect

Answer 317

has no antagonist

Answer 318

anticholinesterases prolong its effect

Answer 319

oral administration

Answer 320

presynaptic neuronal endings

Answer 321

postsynaptic neuronal endings

Answer 322

blood vessels

Answer 323

iris dilator muscle

Answer 324

postsynaptic neuronal endings

Answer 325

presynaptic neuronal endings

Answer 326

myocardial cells

Answer 327

juxtaglomerular apparatus in the kidney

Answer 328

postsynaptic neuronal endings

Answer 329

bronchial smooth muscles

Answer 330

uterus (womb)

Answer 331

anaphylactic shock

Answer 332

hypoglycemia

Answer 333

arrhythmia

Answer 334

glaucoma with wide iridocorneal angle

Answer 335

pupillary dilation

Answer 336

bronchial dilation

Answer 337

blood pressure elevation

Answer 338

relaxation of uterine muscle

Answer 339

lsoprenalini sulfas

Answer 340

Orciprenalini sulfas

Answer 341

Salbutamol

Answer 342

Salmeterol

Answer 343

bronchial asthma

Answer 344

digitalis intoxication

Answer 345

arterial hypertension

Answer 346

threatening abortion

Answer 347

finger tremor

Answer 348

bronchial dilatation

Answer 349

hyperglycemia

Answer 350

Salbutamol

Answer 351

Clonidini hydrochloridum

Answer 352

α-Methyldopum (Dopegyt)

Answer 353

Drowsiness and depression

Answer 354

Hypertensive attacks following abrupt cessation of treatment

Answer 355

CNS stimulation

Answer 356

has antihypertensive effect

Answer 357

it is safe in pregnancy

Answer 358

could cause drug-induced parkinsonism

Answer 359

used to treat threatening abortion

Answer 360

Propranolol

Answer 361

Metoprolol

Answer 362

hypertension

Answer 363

bronchial asthma

Answer 364

arrhythmia

Answer 365

ischaemic heart disease

Answer 366

Bisoprolol

Answer 367

Metoprolol

Answer 368

Propranolol

Answer 369

hypoglycaemia

Answer 370

bronchoconstriction

Answer 371

hyperglycaemia

Answer 372

nightmares

Answer 373

positive inotropic effect

Answer 374

negative inotropic effect

Answer 375

increased cardiac output

Answer 376

cranial vessels constriction

Answer 377

arrhythmia

Answer 378

seizures - in higher doses

Answer 379

increased oxygen demand of the heart

Answer 380

bronchial constriction

Answer 381

attention deficit hyperactivity disorder (ADHD) in children

Answer 382

hypertension

Answer 383

narcolepsy

Answer 384

concentration and attention deficit in adults

Answer 385

Fluoxetine

Answer 386

Clomipramine

Answer 387

Paroxetine

Answer 388

Amitriptyiine

Answer 389

Inhibition of serotonin reuptake

Answer 390

Inhibition of norepinephrin reuptake

Answer 391

Stimulation of serotonin reuptake

Answer 392

MAO inhibition

Answer 393

tyramine containing nutrition

Answer 394

cyclic antidepressants

Answer 395

adrenomimetics

Answer 396

cholinolytics

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