Quiz
Week 1 DFT Prep - IRR, IRMER, Social Media, Prescribing, Teamworking, Clinical Records, GDC standard 8
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Perguntas do quiz (62)
1What is the annual radiation dose limit for a "classified employee"?
- A20mSv/year
- B6mSv/year
- C15mSv/year
- D50mSv/year
2What is the annual radiation dose limit for a member of the public?
- A2mSv/year
- B5mSv/year
- C20mSv/year
- D1mSv/year
3All steps must be taken to restrict exposure to ionising radiation to ALARP.
ALARP stands for:
A[blank_start]s[blank_end]
L[blank_start]ow[blank_end]
A[blank_start]s[blank_end]
R[blank_start]easonably[blank_end]
P[blank_start]racticable[blank_end]- As
- Bow
- Cs
- Deasonably
- Eracticable
4An RPA stands for:
R[blank_start]adiation[blank_end]
P[blank_start]rotection[blank_end]
A[blank_start]dviser[blank_end]- Aadiation
- Brotection
- Cdviser
5For a salaried dentist, their "employer" is...
- APractice manager
- BChief executive of NHS board
- CThemselves
6For a self employed NHS dentist, their "employer" is...?
- APractice manager
- BChief Executive of NHS Board
- CThemselves
7For a self employed private dentist, their "employer" is...?
- APractice manager
- BChief executive of NHS board
- CThemselves
8The person who carries out or engages others to carry out medical exposures is defined as the e[blank_start]mployer[blank_end]
- Amployer
9A r[blank_start]eferrer[blank_end] is defined as a registered healthcare professional who is entitled with the employer's procedures to refer individuals to a practitioner for dental exposure
- Aeferrer
10A p[blank_start]ractitioner[blank_end] is a registered healthcare professional who is entitled in accordance with the employer's procedures to take responsibility for an individual exposure
- Aractitioner
11An o[blank_start]perator[blank_end] is a person who is entitled in accordance with the employer's procedures to carry out practical aspects of dental exposures
- Aperator
12If you post cases on social media, you must ensure that...
- ACases are anonymised
- BIt is for the purpose of discussing best practice
- CPatients cannot be identified
- DAll of the above
13True or false: The GDC states you must NOT post any information or comments about patients on social networking or blogging sites.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
14True or false: You must NEVER add a patient on social media sites
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
15Online behaviour by a colleague that might be putting a patient at risk (conduct, decision making, behaviour) must be raised as a concern by you in accordance with which GDC standard?
- A8
- B7
- C6
16You must maintain the public's confidence in you and the dental p[blank_start]rofession[blank_end] (GDC standard [blank_start]9[blank_end]). This means you must avoid posting/sharing the following to social media;
D[blank_start]runken[blank_end] images
Underwear/n[blank_start]udity[blank_end]
Comments or statuses about [blank_start]patients[blank_end]
Photographs of [blank_start]illegal[blank_end] substances
R[blank_start]acist[blank_end] images or statuses
Anything that may damage your i[blank_start]mage[blank_end] as a dental professional or that of your practice- A9
- Brofession
- Crunken
- Dudity
- Epatients
- Fillegal
- Gacist
- Hmage
17To avoid breaches in confidentiality there are three overall procedures to follow (Confidentiality NHS Code of Practice/NHS Care Record Guarantee for England):
Duty of c[blank_start]onfidence[blank_end]
E[blank_start]xplicit[blank_end] consent
L[blank_start]egal[blank_end] requirement- Aonfidence
- Bxplicit
- Cegal
18To maintain levels of patient confidentiality, a committee reported on the NHS and set out six principles. These are known as the "..." principles?
- ACaldecote
- BCaldecott
- CCaldicott
19The six Caldicott principles (instigated to maintain levels of confidentiality within the NHS) are:
1. Do you have a j[blank_start]ustified[blank_end] purpose for using this confidential information?
2. Are you using it because it is absolutely n[blank_start]ecessary[blank_end] to do so?
3. Are you using the m[blank_start]inimum[blank_end] information required?
4. Are you allowing a[blank_start]ccess[blank_end] to this information on a strict need-to-know basis only?
5. Do you understand your r[blank_start]esponsibility[blank_end] and duty to the subject with regards to keeping their information s[blank_start]ecure[blank_end] and confidential?
6. Do you understand the l[blank_start]aw[blank_end] and are you complying with the law before handling the confidential information?- Austified
- Becessary
- Cinimum
- Dccess
- Eesponsibility
- Fecure
- Gaw
20The person employed by each NHS trust to oversee policies, compliance, and safeguarding of patient identifiable information is known as the...?
- ACaldicott guardian
- BBiggleswade guardian
- CSandy guardian
- DNorthill guardian
21The data protection act sets out 8 key principles
1. Processed fairly and l[blank_start]awfully[blank_end]
2. Processed for the s[blank_start]pecified[blank_end] purpose for which it was obtained
3. Adequate, relevant, and not e[blank_start]xcessive[blank_end] for the purpose for which it was obtained
4. Accurate and kept up to d[blank_start]ate[blank_end]
5. Not kept for l[blank_start]onger[blank_end] than necessary for the purpose for which it was obtained
6. Processed in accordance with the r[blank_start]ights[blank_end] of data subjects
7. Appropriate measures taken against accidental l[blank_start]oss[blank_end], destruction, or damage
8. Not transferred outside the E[blank_start]uropean[blank_end] Economic area, unless adequately protected- Aawfully
- Bpecified
- Cxcessive
- Date
- Eonger
- Fights
- Goss
- Huropean
22The stipulation that you must not keep patient data for longer than necessary is in accordance with which principles?
- AData protection act 1998
- BCaldicott Principles 1997
- CFreedom of information act 2000
23True or false: The FOI act gives the public right to request ANY recorded information held by any type of public authority
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
24True or false: The FOI act states that a person's confidential information may be requested
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
25Select all the drugs that warfarin might interact with
- ANSAIDs
- BCarbamazipine
- CAzoles
- DMetronidazole
- EMacrolides
- FClarithromycin
- GFluoride varnish
- HDifflam spray
26True or false: prescribing azoles and clarithromycin to a patient taking statins may result in myopathy
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
27When prescribing NSAIDs, you must ensure you do not prescribe them to people who are;
- AEpileptic
- BAsthmatic
28Patient who have additional/complex needs when prescribing must be considered carefully. These include:
- ANursing mothers
- BPregnant mothers
- CThose on oral contraceptives
- DThe elderly
- EImmunocompromised patients
- FLiver impairment
- GPizza
29"Off label" prescribing means that some licensed drugs are recommended for use outside of their l[blank_start]icense[blank_end]. Their use in management of dental conditions has been endorsed by the B[blank_start]NF[blank_end].
Some drugs are licensed for use in adults but not in [blank_start]children[blank_end] as most drugs are not tested in [blank_start]children[blank_end].
Responsibility for prescribing drugs "off-label" lies with the practitioner who signs the p[blank_start]rescription[blank_end].- Aicense
- BNF
- Cchildren
- Dchildren
- Erescription
30What must be stated on the prescription as a LEGAL requirement of prescription writing for children under 12 years?
- ATheir name
- BTheir address
- CTheir age and DOB
- DThe practice address
31True or false; prescriptions must be written in ink
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
32True or false; if you are a consultant it is a LEGAL requirement to write your prescriptions illegibly
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
33True or false: micrograms may be abbreviated to mcg on a prescription
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
34Patients should be warned about potential side effects of any prescribed drug. These are commonly;
- ADizziness
- Bnausea/diarrhoea
- Closs of consciousness
- Dweight loss
35Adrenaline stored for medical emergencies should be:
- A1:1000 solution
- B1:5000 solution
- C1:100 solution
36What dose of glucagon should be given in a medical emergency in the first instance?
- A1mg
- B2mg
- C10mg
- D5mg
37Aspirin stored for medical emergencies should be;
- A100ml injection
- B5ml spray
- C500mg dispersible tablets
- D300mg dispersible tablets
38A single dose of metered GTN spray delivers...
- A400 micrograms
- B300 micrograms
- C100 micrograms
- D500 micrograms
39Midazolam solution should be given in an emergency as...
- AIM injection
- BBuccal infiltration
- CBuccal topical administration
- DIntranasal administration
40One actuation of a salbutamol inhaler delivers...
- A100 micrograms
- B100 milligrams
- C100 nanograms
- D100 grams
41True or false: allergies should always be treated by administration of IM adrenaline. Oral antihistamines are ineffective.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
42The recommended regimen to aid anxiety is:
- ADiazepam 5mg two hours before procedure
- BMidazolam 100 micrograms an hour before the procedure
- C70ml vodka 10 mins before procedure
43True or false: diazepam is safe for use in children
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
44True or false: there is no evidence to suggest prescription of antibiotics for prevention of dry socket in non surgical extractions.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
45When a patient presents with trismus, FoM swelling, or difficulty breathing, patients should be treated as such:
- AImmediate transfer to hospital
- BLocal measures to relieve infection
- CAntibiotic prescription - oral
- DAntibiotic prescription - IV
46Antibtioic prescribing should be kept to a minimum because... (tick all that apply)
- ARise in C. Dificile in vulnerable groups
- BAntibiotic resistance globally
- CAntibiotic cost to NHS
47True or false: take care when prescribing antibiotics that do not induce liver enzymes to those on oral contraceptives or the contraceptive ring
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
48True or false: Previous experience of vomiting with clarithromycin should preclude further prescription
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
49You should consider antibiotic prescription for dental abscesses when: (select all that apply)
- AThere is evidence of systemic involvement
- BThere is evidence of spreading infection
- CThere is evidence of cellulitis
- DLocal measures have proved ineffective
- EThe patient has requested them
- FThe access to the canal space would be difficult
- GIt's a Friday afternoon and you have an early tee-time tomorrow
50Metronidazole can be prescribed when (select all that apply)
- AAdjunct to amoxicillin when patient presents with spreading infection
- BPatient allergic to penicillin
- CPatient on oral contraceptive
- DManagement of reversible pulpitis
51Select the first line antibiotics for dental abscesses
- AAmoxicillin
- BMetronidazole
- CClindamycin
- DClarithromycin
- ECo-amoxiclav
- FPhenoxymethylpenicillin
52For NUG you should first prescribe... (select all that apply)
- AMetronidazole 3 day course
- BAmoxicillin 3 day course
- CClindamycin 3 day course
- DCorsodyl 7 day course
53Sinusitis is usually self limiting
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
54Select all the interventions appropriate for sinusitis
- ASteam inhalation
- BEphedrine nasal drops 0.5%
- CAmoxicillin 7 day course
- DMetronidazole 7 day course
- EDoxycycline 7 day course
55To avoid f[blank_start]ungal[blank_end] infections, those with a steroid inhaler should be advised to r[blank_start]inse[blank_end] their mouth with water or brush teeth immediately after using the inhaler.
Infection of p[blank_start]seudomembraneous[blank_end] candidosis can be treated with a [blank_start]7[blank_end] day course of f[blank_start]luconazole[blank_end] capsules or m[blank_start]iconazole[blank_end] oromucosal gel. If these are contraindicated you can try n[blank_start]ystatin[blank_end] oral suspension for 7 days.- Aungal
- Binse
- Cseudomembraneous
- D7
- Eluconazole
- Ficonazole
- Gystatin
56The same regime for denture stomatitis can be used as for pseudomembranous candidosis, the patient can also be advised to [blank_start]brush[blank_end] their palate daily, clean dentures in c[blank_start]hlorhexidine[blank_end] or sodium h[blank_start]ypochlorite[blank_end] for 15 minutes daily, and to leave dentures out as o[blank_start]ften[blank_end] as possible during treatment.
- Abrush
- Bhlorhexidine
- Cypochlorite
- Dften
57Angular cheilitis can be treated with the following (select all that apply)
- AMiconazole cream 2%
- BSodium fusidate ointment 2%
- CMiconazole 2% with hydrocortisone cream 1%
- DNystatin
- EDifflam spray
58Herpes simplex infections can be treated with (select all that apply)
- AAvoiding dehydration
- BAnalgesia
- CAntimicrobial mouthwash
- DHydrogen peroxide mouthwash
- ESodium hypochlorite
- FAciclovir cream
- GAcyclovir tablets 200mg (severe/immunocompromised)
- HAcyclovir tablets 800mg (severe/immunocompromised)
59A patient with a history of peptic ulcers who's odontogenic pain is not quelled with paracetamol can be prescribed...
- ADiclofenac
- BIbuprofen
- CLansoprazole
60Trigeminal neuralgia in primary care can be controlled quickly by...
- ALansoprazole
- BOmeprazole
- CAspirin
- DCarbamazepine
61TMJ dysfunction can be treated in the following ways:
1. Reassurance, avoid [blank_start]chewing[blank_end] gum, have a s[blank_start]oft[blank_end] diet, and possibly an o[blank_start]cclusal[blank_end] splint
2. Analgesia (acute) e.g. i[blank_start]buprofen[blank_end]
3. Short course of muscle relaxant e.g. d[blank_start]iazepam[blank_end]- Achewing
- Boft
- Ccclusal
- Dbuprofen
- Eiazepam
62Mucosal ulceration and inflammation can be treated with:
1. Rinsing with HSMWs
2. Simple moutwashes e.g. s[blank_start]odium[blank_end] chloride
3. Antimicrobial mouthwashes e.g. c[blank_start]hlorhexidine[blank_end]
4. H[blank_start]ydrogen[blank_end] p[blank_start]eroxide[blank_end] mouthwash
5. T[blank_start]etracycline[blank_end] mouthwash (RAS) - doxycycline dispersible tablets
6. Local analgesics e.g. b[blank_start]enzydamine[blank_end] mouthwash or oral spray, l[blank_start]idocain[blank_end]e ointment or spray
7. Topical c[blank_start]orticosteroids[blank_end] e.g. betamethasone soluble tablets- Aodium
- Bhlorhexidine
- Cydrogen
- Deroxide
- Eetracycline
- Fenzydamine
- Gidocain
- Horticosteroids
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- Week 1 DFT prep quiz
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