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Chapter 10: Laboratory Procedures
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Questions in this quiz (82)
1Confirmatory (alternative) testing is performed on samples to increase the medical assistant's confidencce that the result of a test is correct. Which of the following is NOT a correct statment about confirmatory tests?
- Aconfirmatory testing is used to check validity of a test result
- Bconfirmatory testg is a proccedure for quality control
- Cconfirmatory testing may involve repeating the test on the same specimen
- Dconfirmatory testing may invovle testiing a new sample
- Econfirmatory testing would not be done when the sample results are normal
2A test to determine the ability of the kidneys to concentrate or dilute the uring, according to the needs of the body, measures
- Aglucose
- Bketone bodies
- Coccult blood
- Dprotein
- Especific gravity
3The range of the volume of urine voided by an adult during a 24 hour period is
- A30 - 60 mL
- B500 - 600 mL
- C750 - 2000 mL
- D250 - 2500 mL
- E1000 -5000 mL
4Clilnitest is a test to detect
- Aoccult blood
- Bglucosuria
- Chematuria
- Dacidity
- Eketonuria
5Due to excess lipids in the blood, turbid (lipemic) serum appears
- Alight yellow straw color
- Bcloudy and milky
- Cdark yellow
- Dclear and transparent
- Etinged with red
6If a blood sample is collected in a serum separator gel tube, the medical assistant generally should allow the clot to form for what period of minute(s) before centrifuging?
- A1
- B2
- C3
- D15
- E30
7A glucose tolerance test (GTT) measures the response of the body to a sudden intake of glucose. The highest blood glucose reading for a normal person during the GTT will occur
- A15 minutes after te test starts
- B30-60 minutes after the test starts
- C60-90 minutes after the test starts
- D90-120 minutes after the test starts
- Eright before the test starts
8In structure and form, cocci baccteria are found in which of the following shapes?
- Aspherical
- Bspiral
- Crod
- Dcurved
- Etriangular
9When doing a differential white cell count, the normal range of eosinophils is
- A1-3%
- B5-8%
- C10-12%
- D15-20%
- E20-25%
10The invasion of the body by any pathogenic organism is called
- Acontagion
- Binfection
- Cendemic
- Dcommunicable
- Epandemic
11The smallest of the microorganisms are the
- Arickettsiae
- Bstreptococci
- Cprotozoa
- Dviruses
- Efungi
12Cocci occurring in chains are
- Amicrococci
- Bdiplococci
- Cstreptococci
- Dstaphylococci
- Esarcinae
13Viruses differ from bacteria in that they have
- Aboth DNA and RNA
- Bonly DNA
- Conly RNA
- Deither DNA or RNA
- Eneither DNA nor RNA
14The term used to indicate that two or more organisms are living together is
- Asymbiosis
- Bsymphysis
- Csynapsis
- Dsynergism
- Esyncope
15A term applied to bacteria that can adapt to an environment with or without oxygen is
- Aaerobic
- Banaerobic
- Cfacultative
- Dgram-positive
- Egram-negative
16Diseases that occur when the body apprently fails to recognize its own constituents and begins to produce antibodies to fight them are called
- Aanaphylaxis
- Ballergy
- Clatent infection
- Dautoimmune
- Eacquired immuodeficiency syndrome (AIDS)
17Most rickettsial diseases are transmitted by
- Acoitus
- Bimproperly prepared food
- Cfecal0food contamination
- Ddirect contact
- Einsects and ticks
18The disease of Coccidioidomycosis is
- ASan Joaquin fever
- Bathlete's foot
- Cmalaria
- Dscarlet fever
- Erabbit fever
19An example of a pathogenic fungus that a medical assistant may see in a physicians office is
- Atetanus
- BTrichomonas vaginalis
- Cdysentery
- Dmalaria
- Eringworm
20The test in microbiology or bacteriology that checks the susceptibility of an organism to specific antibiotics is the
- Aculture test
- Bisolation test
- Csensitivity test
- Dscreening test
- Einoculation test
21The Mantoux test is used to screenn for the pathogenic acid-fast organism, which causes
- Agonorrhea and syphilis
- Bcholera and diphtheria
- Cmeasles and mumps
- Dtuberculosis and leprosy
- Epneumonia and hepatitis
22A persistent viral infecction in which the symptoms come and go is called a/an
- Aacute infecction
- Bchronic infection
- Cfast infection
- Dlatent infection
- Eslow infection
23The stain most used to identify and study bacteria ais the
- AGram stain
- Bacid-fast stain
- CWright's stain
- DGiemsa stain
- Enone of the above
24The normal range for a prothrombin time test is
- A5-10 seconds
- B11-13 seconds
- C18-20 seconds
- D25-30 seconds
- E30 seconds to 1 minute
25The "Chain of custody" referred to in drug testing in the workplace is
- Aa security system that protects the reliability and validity of the testing results
- Banother term for the drug-testing procedure
- Ca legal term used in the prosecution of drug addicts
- Da description of a policy that discourages drug usage in the workplace
- Ea pre-employment drug screen program
26Which of the following diagnostic radiology machines does not use x-ray or ionized radiation of any kind?
- Afluoroscopy
- Bmammography
- Cxeroradiography
- Dcomputed tomography
- Emagnetic resonance imaging
27Which of the following statements about occult (hidden) blood in urine is FALSE?
- Aoccult blood is not visible to the naked eye
- Boccult blood is the hemoglobin from disintegrated red blood cells
- Chemoglobinuria is a term sometimes used to designate the presence of occult blood in urine
- Da positive reaction on the reagent test strip occurs when sediment has more than the normal number of red cells
- Eif the urine sediment turns the reagent test strip block white, the test is positive for occult blood
28The presence of numerous leukocytes in the urine during microscopic examination is referred to as
- Apolyuria
- Buremia
- Calbuminuria
- Dpyuria
- Eleukocytopenis
29On the N-Multistix 10 SG, most tests can be read
- Ain less than 2 minutes
- Bbetween 3 and 4 minutes
- Cbetween 5 and 10 minutes
- Dafter 15 minutes
- Eafter 1 hour
30In a reagent dipstick test for ketone bodies in the urine, the largest amounts are represented by an intensified
- Ared color
- Byellow color
- Cgreen color
- Dblue color
- Emaroon color
31If a urine specimen is to be sent to a laboratory for a bacteriologic culture, a female patient should be instructed to
- Acollect the specimen in a sterile bottle
- Bcollect a specimen midstream in a sterile bottle
- Ccollect a specimen midstream in a clean bottle
- Dcollect the entire specimen in a clean bottle
- Eforcibly void a small amount into a steril bottle
32Ictotest is a tablet used to diagnose
- Adiabetes mellitus
- Bliver function
- Ckidney function
- Dpregnancy
- Eurinary output
33Epithelial cells are reported as
- Athe number per high-power field
- Bthe number per low-power field
- C1+ to 2+
- Da particular color
- Ea percentage
34An Addis count is done to determine
- Awhether a patient is pregnant
- Ba patient's urinary output of formed elements for 12 hours
- Cthe number of red cells in urinary sediment
- Dthe presence of occult blood
- Ethe presence of ketone bodies
35A wound culture would be obtained to identify which of the following?
- AStrep bacteria
- Bstaph bacteria
- CGram-negative organisms
- Dother pathogens
- Eany of the above
36X-rays may be potentially dangerous to employees in a physicians office where they are taken because
- Amost machines leak radiation
- Bwalls cannot be protected
- Cthe effect of radiation is cumulative
- Dthe effect of radiation is difficult to determine symptomaticalaly
- Ephysicians do not explain the dangers
37Secondary radiation is
- Aemitted by the patient being filmed
- Bemitted by the direct roentgen beam
- Cleakage from head of x-ray
- Demitted by the cone of the x-ray machine
- Eemitted by the control panel of the x-ray machine
38Which of the following is not used in collecting sputum for cultures?
- Aexpectoration
- Btracheal suctioning
- Cbronchoscopy
- Dnebulization
- Epalpation
39The patient is scheduled for a retrograde pyelogram. The contrast medium will be administered
- Aorally
- Bintramuscularly
- Cintravenously
- Ddirectly
- Esubcutaneously
40A patient has been scheduled for an intravenous pyelogram (IVP) on a Tuesday morning. The medical assistant's instructions to the patient about diet for the preceding evening should be to eat
- Aa regular evening meal but no breakfast on Tuesday
- Ba light meal with nothing after 9:00 p.m.
- Ca regular evening meal and a light breakfast on Tuesday
- Dnothing after midnight
- Enothing for 24 hours before the test on Tuesday
41When a patient is placed in an AP (anteroposterior) position for radiography, the
- Aanterior (front of the body is facing the tube
- Banterior is facing the film
- Cposterior is facing the tube
- Dpatient is on his or her side
- Eface and abdomen are down on the table
42The fragments of blood cells that are counted on blood smears or in blood dilutions in order to predict the body's ability to clot blood are
- Aplatelets
- Beosinophils
- Creticulocytes
- Dfasophils
- Eneutrophils
43Which of the following tests would not be performed on an automated hematology instrument?
- AIvy (template) bleeding time
- BWBC count
- CRBC count
- Dred blood cell indices
- Eplatelet count
44When you perform a chemical urinalysis test using a reagent strip, which one of the following tests would you expect to read positive
- Aprotein
- Bglucose
- Cnitrite
- Dbilirubin
- Eurrrobilinogen
45A blood cell that is very large with a nucleus that may be oval, indented, or horseshoe-shaped is a/an
- Alymphocyte
- Bmonocyte
- Cbasophil
- Deosinophil
- Eneotrophil
46In a differential smear, platelets appear as very small azure-blue bodies when stained with
- AGram's stain
- BWright's stain
- Ciodine
- DZiehl-Neelsen stain
- Emerthiolate
47RBC pipettes are made so that if blood is drawn to the 0.5 mark and diluted to the 101 mark, the dilution will be
- A1:50
- B1:100
- C1:150
- D1:200
- E1:500
48A hemocytometer is a counting chamber used to count cells microscopically. The total area on one side of the hemocytometer is
- A6 mm 2
- B4 mm 2
- C1 mm 1
- D9 mm 2
- E5 mm 2
49If you performed a white blood count using a hemocytometer and the average cell count was 120, the dilution was 1:20, and the area counted was 4 mm 2, what would be reported as the answer?
- A5000 WBC/mm 3
- B10,000 WBC/mm 3
- C8250 WBC/mm 3
- D6000 WBC/mm 3
- E12,500 WBC/mm 3
50If you performed a white blood count using a hemocytometer and the average cell count was 120, the dilution was 1:20, and the area counted was 4 mm 2, what would be reported as the answer?
- A5000 WBC/mm 3
- B10,000 WBC/mm 3
- C8250 WBC/mm 3
- D6000 WBC/mm 3
- E12,500 WBC/mm 3
51The normal WBC's per cubic millimeter for both men and women is
- A2500-5500
- B4500-6000
- C4500-11,000
- D6000-11,000
- E8000-12,000
52A fibrometer is an automated analyzer that is used to perform
- Aglucose determination
- Bcoagulation determinations using clot formation
- Cplatelet determinations
- Dhemoglobin determinations
- Eprotein determinations
53The normal RBC count for men, reported as millions of cells per cubic millimeter, is
- A1.5-2.5
- B2.5-3.5
- C3.5-4.5
- D4.5-6.0
- E5.5-6.5
54A complete blood cell (CBC) count consists of all of the following when capillary blood is used EXCEPT
- Ared blood cell (RBC) count
- Bwhite blood cell (WBC) count
- Chemoglobin (HgB) estimation
- Ddifferential count (diff)
- Eerythrocyte sedimentation rate (sed rate)
55On long standing, urine becomes
- Aneutral
- Bacid
- Calkaline (basic)
- Dclear
- Ebalanced in acidity and alkalinity
56Normal urine has a pH range of
- A1.5-3.5
- B2.5-4.0
- C4.5-8.0
- D0-9.0
- E10.0-14.0
57The normal specific gravity of urine usually ranges between
- A1.000 and 1.001
- B1.001 and 1.002
- C1.010 and 1.025
- D1.025 and 1.050
- E1.050 and 1.0075
58The weight of a given volume of a substance divided by the weight of the same volume of water is the formula for
- Aspecific gravity
- BpH
- Cacidity
- Dalkalinity
- Esedimentation
59For the highest possible magnification, the 100x oil immersion lens is used with an eyepiece (ocular) that gives a magnificantion of 10x. this allows the medical assistant to see an object
- A10 times its actual size
- B100 times its actual size
- C1,000 times its actual size
- D10,000 times its actual size
- E100,000 times its actual size
60When a microscopic slide is to be examines, the field is found by
- Alowering the low power objective using the coarse adjustment
- Blowerinng the microscope head by using the micrometer head
- Cusing the high power objective
- Dusing the intermediate power objective
- Eusing a 53 eyepiece
61The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) issued recommendations known as Universal Precautions for the prevention of such diseases as
- AAIDS and hepatitis
- Bsmallpox
- Cinfluenza
- Dcancer
- Escurvy
62Normal bleeding time using Duke's method is
- A1-3 minutes
- B5/10 minutes
- C10-15 minutes
- D15-30 minutes
- E30-60 nminutes
63An example of a Gram negative organism is
- Astreptococcus
- Bpneumococcus
- Ctubercle bacillus
- Ddiphtheria bacillus
- ENeisseria gonorrhoeae
64An example of a Gram positive organism is
- Agonococcus
- Btyphoid bacillus
- CStaphylococcus
- Ddysentery bacilolus
- EMenigococcus
65Expressed in terms of mm/hour, the normal range of Westergren erythrocyte sedimentation rates (ESR) for men older than 50 is
- A0-20
- B0-9
- C11-29
- D31-50
- E51-70
66The average range of hemoglobin values for women, expressed as g/100 mL, is
- A6-10
- B12.5-15
- C18-22
- D24-28
- E30-34
67In a differential white blood cell count, basophils and eosinophils may average
- Aless than 5%
- B10-20%
- C25-33%
- D40-50%
- E50-70%
68In differential white blood cell counts of adults, lymphocytes may average
- Aless than 5%
- B5-10%
- C10-20%
- D25-33%
- E60-80%
69In a normal differential WBC count, neutrophils average approximately
- A10-20%
- B20-40%
- C0-5%
- D50-70%
- E70-80%
70The normal hematocrig reading for men is approximately
- A30-40%
- B40-52%
- C50-60%
- D60-70%
- E70-80%
71The Centers for Disease Control and Prevention (CDC) has developed guidelines r ecognizing the infectious potential of any patient specimen. Which of the following guidelines provides the single greatest protection against AIDS and other bloodborne pathogens?
- Astore personal items
- Bwear protective clothing
- Cisolate each biological speciment from the worker
- Davoid spattering of biological specimens
- Edo not eat or drink in the laboratory
72A quality control program in a laboratory ensures the reliability of the tests and their results. Which of the following would cause errors in a quality control program?
- Aproper care and handling of specimens
- Bevaluation of the techniques and equipment used to perform the tests
- Cevaluation of the changes and/or errors commonly associated with routine clinical chemistry
- Destablishment of confidence that the variables that cause errors are within as acceptable range
- Ethe quality control program should be posted weekly
73Levy-Jennings charts are used in the laboratory to make easy comparisons of test controls in order to have better
- Aquality control
- Bcalibration of instruments
- Cstatistical deviations
- Da record of test values
- Enone of the above
74Blood serum
- Amay be separated from the blood cells by centrifugation
- Bis always collected in green-top tubes
- Cis obtained from clotted blood that has been mixed with an anticoagulant
- Dretains fibrinogen after centrifugation
- Eall of the above
75Which of the following factors must be included when calculating a blood cell count that has been performed using the Unopette and the hemocytoeter?
- Anumber of cells counted
- Bthe rea counted
- Cdilution factor
- Ddepth of the fluid on the hemacytometer
- Eall of the above
76Which of the following blood parameters is performed with a colorimeter within an automatic blood cell counter?
- Awhite blood cell determination
- Bred blood cell determination
- Chematocrit determination
- Dhemoglobin determination
- Ewhite cell differential
77The reagent strip medhod for occult blood in urine is measuring amounts of
- Abilirubin
- Bwhite blood cells
- Cintact red cells and free hemoglobin
- Durobilinogen
- Efibrinogen
78The part(s) of the microscope responsible for regualating the light that strikes the object are the
- Aocular and objective
- Bcondenser and iris diaphragm
- Clens and barrel of the microscope
- Dstage
- Eeyepiece
79Agglutination test kits used to detect the presence of heterophil antibodies that are found in the plasma or serum of patients with infectious mononucleosis I\(IM) contain the following
- Aslides
- Breagents
- Cpositive control
- Dnegative control
- Eall of the above
80To determine the specific gravity of a urine sample in a physicians office, a medical assistant might use which of the following?
- Aurinometer
- Brefractometer
- CN-Multistix SG reagent strip
- Dfalling drop method
- Eall of the above
81If a urine sample is permited to stand for a period longer than 1 hour at room temperature without a preservative, which of the following will NOT occur
- Athe sample will become alkaline (basic)
- Bglucose levels may increase
- Cbilirubin will undergo changes due to the effect of light
- Dbacteria will multiply rapidly, resulting in a cloudy specimen
- Eurea may be converted to ammonia
82Which of the following laboratory tests results indicates the need for immediate action (an action value)?
- Aa fasting blood sugar of 100 mg/100mL
- Ba hematocrit of 50 % in an adult male
- C1% eosinophils on a blood WBC differential slide
- D2-3 WBC in a urine specimen
- Ehigh protein level in a urine specimen
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- Quiz on Chapter 10: Laboratory Procedures, created by carrieleekennedy on 25/08/2014.
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