Wk 7 - Applied Microbiology and Haemotology

Jessica Bulley
Quiz by , created over 1 year ago

Wk 7 - Applied Microbiology and Haemotology MEDI1000

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Jessica Bulley
Created by Jessica Bulley over 1 year ago
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Question 1

Question
Select two reasons for preventing microbes from getting into food.
Answer
  • Prevent slow decomposition process
  • Prevent bad odors
  • Prevent food spoilage
  • Prevent food related illnesses

Question 2

Question
Select Five ways how could microbes contaminate food
Answer
  • • with soil
  • • preparation procedures
  • • improper storage
  • • harvesting/slaughtering
  • • handling
  • • incorrect food stacking in fridge
  • • delayed pesticides

Question 3

Question
How does fermentation preserve food?
Answer
  • Increases shelf life and safety of product and Improves digestibility, nutritional content
  • Increases putrification and safety of product and speeds up disease process, nutritional content

Question 4

Question
List Five relevant boxes to pathogenic bacteria, viruses and parasites that can cause illness through food or water
Answer
  • Salmonella spp. infection Vibrio cholera Vibrio parahaemolyticus
  • Rotavirus Hepatitis A Polio Vaccine Adenovirus
  • Helminths Crytosporidium parvum Entamaeba histolytica Giardia lamblia
  • Bacillus cereus intoxication Clostridium botulinum Staphylococcus aureus Campylobacter infection
  • Norovirus Astrovirus Entrovirus (Echovirus)
  • Rhinovirus Sinusitus Pleurusy TSS

Question 5

Question
Norovirus, Astrovirus and Entrovirus (Echovirus) are types of parasitic foodborne diseases
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 6

Question
Bacillus cereus, Clostridium botulinum, Staphylococcus aureus, Campylobacter infection, Salmonella spp. Vibrio cholera & Vibrio parahaemolyticus are types of Bacterial foodborne diseases
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 7

Question
Why does spoilage of food appear rapid when the microbes are on the food for long periods before the appearance of spoilage?
Answer
  • • Due to exponential growth pattern microbes
  • • Due to stationary pattern of microbes

Question 8

Question
List Two uses for microbes in the industry.
Answer
  • Genetic engineering – deliberate modification of an organisms genome
  • Recombinant DNA technology – isolating a specific gene and inserting into a vector (plasmid) to form a recombinant molecule and producing large amounts of gene product
  • High transfection efficiency

Question 9

Question
List Five reasons for treating waste water.
Answer
  • • Remove pathogens: bacteria, viruses, eggs and cysts of parasitic worms
  • • Remove nutrients that cause pollution
  • • Prevent foul odours: H2S, amines, oil and grease scum
  • • Prevent contamination of drinking water
  • • Remove toxins: metals, pesticides, herbicides
  • • Remove bad taste

Question 10

Question
What is B.O.D?
Answer
  • Biochemical Oxygen Demand
  • Biological Oxydation Determination

Question 11

Question
Why is Biochemical Oxygen Demand important?
Answer
  • Determines the levels of biological degradable organic material present in water
  • Determine the levels of biological mercury not organic material present in water

Question 12

Question
What is the main process in secondary sewage treatment?
Answer
  • Microbial digestion of organic material and hydrolysis
  • Microbial digestion of organic material and Haemolysis

Question 13

Question
Give 3 uses for Bacteriophage
Answer
  • • Possible treatment for bacterial infection
  • • Identify pathogenic bacteria (Phage typing)
  • • Recombinant DNA technology
  • • Complete eradication of Viruses

Question 14

Question
What are the advantages of using HIV as a vector for gene therapy?
Answer
  • • Retrovirus • Reverse transcriptase generates DS-DNA • Integrated into host chromosome • Gene replacement therapy • Deliver and express gene
  • • Rhinovirus • Quickly transcriptase generates DS-DNA • Non-conforming into host chromosome • Prevention of Gene replacement therapy • Deliver and express gene

Question 15

Question
Name 5 different areas of study within the field of Haematology
Answer
  • Haemopoiesis
  • Coagulation
  • Haemoglobin
  • Formed elements of blood
  • Blood transfusion / cross matching
  • Dialylsis

Question 16

Question
What is Anaemia?
Answer
  • An abnormal decrease of RBC
  • An abnormal increase of RBC

Question 17

Question
Explain what is meant by the term Leukaemia.
Answer
  • An abnormal increase of WBC
  • An abnormal decrease of WBC

Question 18

Question
What is Haemopoiesis?
Answer
  • The production of the formed elements of blood - WBC’s, RBC’s and platelets
  • The breakdown of the formed elements of blood - WBC’s, RBC’s and platelets

Question 19

Question
What is Erythropoiesis?
Answer
  • The process which produces red blood cells (erythrocytes).
  • The process which produces white blood cells (leukocytes).

Question 20

Question
What is the correct term for a decrease in neutrophils?
Answer
  • Neutropaenia
  • Neutrophilia

Question 21

Question
Where does Haemopoiesis occur? Select Two answers
Answer
  • Foetus - yolk sac, liver, spleen, bone marrow, lymph nodes
  • Adult - bone marrow
  • Foetus - liver, kidneys, placenta, bone marrow, lymph nodes
  • Adult - bone marrow, liver

Question 22

Question
Describe the shape of a RBC. Why do RBCs have this shape? Select Two answers
Answer
  • Shape allows for slow and constant diffusion of gasses, flexibility, change in shape/size
  • Biconcave disc - sturdy
  • Biconcave disc - flexible
  • Shape allows for rapid diffusion of gasses, flexibility, change in shape/size

Question 23

Question
Discuss the significance of the RBC membrane.
Answer
  • rapid diffusion of gasses
  • slow yet constant diffusion of gasses

Question 24

Question
List 3 Granulocytes that can be found in peripheral blood.
Answer
  • Neutrophils
  • Basophils
  • Eosinophils
  • Monocytes
  • Lymphocytes

Question 25

Question
List each of the 5 WBC types found in peripheral blood
Answer
  • Neutrophils
  • Monocytes
  • Lymphocytes
  • Eosinophils
  • Basophils
  • Leukocytes
  • Platelets

Question 26

Question
Neutrophils are the most common type of WBC and have
Answer
  • small granules in cytoplasm
  • large granules in cytoplasm

Question 27

Question
Eosinophils have
Answer
  • large strongly staining (orange/red) cytoplasm granules
  • small strongly staining (blue/purple) cytoplasm granules

Question 28

Question
Basophils have
Answer
  • large cytoplasmic granules (dark staining)
  • small cytoplasmic granules (orange staining)

Question 29

Question
Lymphocytes have a
Answer
  • large round nucleus/less cytoplasm
  • no nucleus/lots of cytoplasm

Question 30

Question
Monocytes are the largest WBC and have a
Answer
  • kidney shaped nucleus
  • liver shaped nucleus

Question 31

Question
Select type of WBC
Answer
  • Neutrophils
  • Eosinophils

Question 32

Question
Select type of WBC
Answer
  • Eosinophils
  • Basophils

Question 33

Question
Select type of WBC
Answer
  • Basophils
  • Neutrophils

Question 34

Question
Select type of WBC
Answer
  • Lymphocytes
  • Basophils

Question 35

Question
Select type of WBC
Answer
  • Monocytes
  • Eosinophils

Question 36

Question
What is the term used to describe variation in RBS size?
Answer
  • Anisocytosis
  • Poikilocytosis

Question 37

Question
Select the correct definition of Elliptocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)
Answer
  • – Oval shaped rather than thin or round – Less pronounced defects – Found in some types of anaemia
  • – Thin elongated cigar shaped cells – Change to membrane structure – Found in various types of anaemia

Question 38

Question
Select the correct definition of Ovalocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)
Answer
  • – Oval shaped rather than thin or round – Less pronounced defects – Found in some types of anaemia
  • – Thin elongated cigar shaped cells – Change to membrane structure – Found in various types of anaemia

Question 39

Question
Select the correct definition of Codocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)
Answer
  • – Loss of biconcave shape – Increased surface area:volume ratio
  • – Loss of biconcave shape - sphere – Decreased surface area:volume ratio – Found in many anaemias

Question 40

Question
Select the correct definition of Spherocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)
Answer
  • – Loss of biconcave shape - sphere – Decreased surface area:volume ratio – Found in many anaemias
  • – Loss of biconcave shape – Increased surface area:volume ratio

Question 41

Question
Select the correct definition of Schistocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)
Answer
  • – Irregularly contracted fragments – Variable appearance – Found in conditions with trauma to RBC’s e.g. burns
  • – Elongated, crescent shaped – Sickle cell anaemia – Abnormal haemoglobin (HbS)

Question 42

Question
Select the correct definition of Drepanocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)
Answer
  • – Elongated, crescent shaped – Sickle cell anaemia – Abnormal haemoglobin (HbS)
  • – Irregularly contracted fragments – Variable appearance – Found in conditions with trauma to RBC’s e.g. burns

Question 43

Question
Select the correct definition of Acanthocytes (burr cells) (RBC Poikilocytosis)
Answer
  • – Multiple irregular thorny projections – Changes in phospholipid metabolism – Found in liver disease
  • – Teardrop shape – Stretched out of shape - excessive time (spleen) – Found in many conditions

Question 44

Question
Select the correct definition of Dacrocytes (teardrop cells) (RBC Poikilocytosis)
Answer
  • – Teardrop shape – Stretched out of shape - excessive time (spleen) – Found in many conditions
  • – Multiple irregular thorny projections – Changes in phospholipid metabolism – Found in liver disease

Question 45

Question
Select the correct definition of Stomatocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)
Answer
  • - Oval or rectangular area of central pallor – “Cup” - shaped – Found in liver disease
  • – Short, evenly spaced pointed projections – Acute blood loss, burns, uraemia - kidney failure

Question 46

Question
Select the correct definition of Echinocytes (RBC Poikilocytosis)
Answer
  • – Short, evenly spaced pointed projections – Acute blood loss, burns, uraemia - kidney failure
  • – Oval or rectangular area of central pallor – “Cup” - shaped – Found in liver disease

Question 47

Question
What is Polychromasia and what may it indicate?
Answer
  • Abnormal coloured RBC's (blue, orange) which may indicate increased number of immature RBC’s
  • Abnormal pale RBC's which may indicate decreased number of immature RBC’s

Question 48

Question
What physiological processes do platelets have a role in?
Answer
  • Primary role is the prevention of blood loss
  • Primary role is the encouragement of blood loss

Question 49

Question
What does the term “Thrombocytopaenia” mean?
Answer
  • Decreased platelet count
  • Increased platelet count

Question 50

Question
What is the term for an increased number of Lymphocytes in the peripheral blood?
Answer
  • Lymphocytosis
  • Lymphopaenia

Question 51

Question
Either of 2 principles can be used in Automated Cell Counting machines. What are these 2 principles?
Answer
  • Manual or automated
  • Direct or indirect

Question 52

Question
What blood cells can be manually counted using a Haemocytometer? (Can the chamber also be used to count anything else besides blood cells?)
Answer
  • All blood cells. The chamber can also be used to count bacterial cells in suspension and WBC’s in CSF
  • All blood cells aside from platelets. The chamber can also be used to count bacterial cells in suspension and WBC’s in CSF

Question 53

Question
Different areas of a counting chamber are used for counting different types of blood cells. What areas are used for a manual WCC?
Answer
  • The Diff
  • Relative count

Question 54

Question
Explain why WBC types should always be reported as Absolute Number and not Relative numbers following a Diff.
Answer
  • Absolute Number count indicates the exact number of cells per RBC/WBC which may differ from other relative levels of different cells.
  • Due to possible computer malfunctions, it is possible to have an incorrect relative number statement of sample.

Question 55

Question
How do autoimmune diseases occur?
Answer
  • An autoimmune disorder occurs when the body's immune system attacks and destroys healthy body tissue by mistake.
  • An autoimmune disorder occurs when the body's digestive system attacks and destroys healthy body tissue by mistake.

Question 56

Question
Describe the difference between passive and active vaccination.
Answer
  • Passive immunity is provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system. Active immunity results when exposure to a disease organism triggers the immune system to produce antibodies to that disease.
  • Passive immunity results when exposure to a disease organism triggers the immune system to produce antibodies to that disease. Active immunity is provided when a person is given antibodies to a disease rather than producing them through his or her own immune system.

Question 57

Question
What does MHC stand for?
Answer
  • Major histocompatibility complex
  • Major histopathology complex

Question 58

Question
What is the purpose of MHC?
Answer
  • The function of MHC molecules is to bind peptide fragments derived from pathogens and display them on the cell surface for recognition by the appropriate T cells.
  • The function of MHC molecules is to bind T cell fragments derived from pathogens and display them on the cell surface for recognition by the appropriate T cells.

Question 59

Question
Adaptive immunity refers to antigen-specific immune response and Innate immunity refers to nonspecific defense mechanisms
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 60

Question
Innate immunity refers to antigen-specific immune response and Adaptive immunity refers to nonspecific defense mechanisms
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 61

Question
....refers to antigen-specific immune response. The adaptive immune response is more complex than the innate. The antigen first must be processed and recognized. Once an antigen has been recognized, the adaptive immune system creates an army of immune cells specifically designed to attack that antigen. Adaptive immunity also includes a "memory" that makes future responses against a specific antigen more efficient.
Answer
  • Adaptive immunity
  • Innate immunity

Question 62

Question
B Cells ....
Answer
  • .....proliferate into Memory B cells and plasma cells
  • ..... do not proliferate into Memory B cells and plasma cells

Question 63

Question
Memory B cells are derived from B cells. They are immune specific towards a certain bacterium or virus.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 64

Question
Plasma cells are derived from B cells. They enlarge and secrete large amounts of antibodies.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 65

Question
The Humoral response: [blank_start]4.[blank_end] B cells produce memory cells. Memory cells provide future immunity. [blank_start]1.[blank_end] Antigens bind to B cells. [blank_start]3.[blank_end] B cells proliferate and produce plasma cells. The plasma cells bear antibodies with the identical antigen specificity as the antigen receptors of the activated B cells. The antibodies are released and circulate through the body, binding to antigens. [blank_start]2.[blank_end] Interleukins or helper T cells costimulate B cells. In most cases, both an antigen and a costimulator are required to activate a B cell and initiate B cell proliferation.
Answer
  • 4.
  • 1.
  • 3.
  • 2.

Question 66

Question
A T cell, or T lymphocyte, is a type of lymphocyte (a subtype of white blood cell) that plays a central role in cell-mediated immunity.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 67

Question
When a Macrophage engulfs a Pathogen, it becomes a
Answer
  • Antigen Presenting Cell
  • Antibiotic Presenting Cell

Question 68

Question
Helper T cells recognize Antigen Presenting Cells and helps to stimulate B cells to divide into Plasma cells
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 69

Question
Helper B cells recognize Antigen Presenting Cells and helps to stimulate B cells to divide into Plasma cells
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 70

Question
Memory helper T cells are a part of the Memory bank which help to attack and destroy the same pathogen if it was to return again.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 71

Question
[blank_start]T[blank_end] Cells are produced in the [blank_start]Thymus[blank_end], once they have matured they are sent to the [blank_start]Spleen[blank_end] or to circulate around the [blank_start]Lymph[blank_end] system.
Answer
  • T
  • B
  • Thymus
  • Bone marrow
  • Spleen
  • Sternum
  • Lymph
  • Cardiovascular

Question 72

Question
A Cytotoxic T cell (killer T cell) is a type of immune cell that can kill certain cells, including foreign cells, cancer cells, and cells infected with a virus.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 73

Question
A cell‐mediated response involves mostly T cells and responds to any cell that displays aberrant MHC markers, including cells invaded by pathogens, tumor cells, or transplanted cells.
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 74

Question
The cell‐mediated response involves mostly [blank_start]T[blank_end] cells
Answer
  • T
  • B

Question 75

Question
The humoral response (or antibody‐mediated response) involves mainly [blank_start]B[blank_end] cells
Answer
  • B
  • T

Question 76

Question
Select the different types of T cells.
Answer
  • Killer T-cells
  • Helper T-cells
  • Macrophage
  • Bank T Cells

Question 77

Question
Poikilocytes are abnormally shaped red blood cells
Answer
  • True
  • False