Quiz
Test Six Practice Quiz
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Questions in this quiz (150)
1Which of these represents the majority of whole blood by volume?
- Aplasma
- Bplatelets
- Cerythrocytes
- Dleukocytes
2What is a hematocrit?
- AHematocrit is the percentage of all formed elements in a whole blood sample.
- BHematocrit is the percentage of erythrocytes in a whole blood sample.
- CHematocrit is the percentage of leukocytes and platelets in a whole blood sample.
- DHematocrit is the percentage of plasma in a whole blood sample.
3Which of these is true of the materials making up the buffy coat in centrifuged blood?
- AThey are less dense than both erythrocytes and plasma
- BThey are intermediate in density between erythrocytes and plasma.
- CThey are denser then plasma and erythrocytes.
- DThey are denser than erythrocytes but less dense than plasma.
4Which of the following is NOT regulated by the blood?
- Anutrient levels
- BpH level
- Cbody temperature
- Dfluid volume
5Which of the following is NOT a formed element in whole blood?
- Aerythrocytes
- Bleukocytes
- Cplatelets
- Dalbumin
6Which of the following would NOT be a characteristic of normal blood?
- Asticky texture
- B5 million RBC per microliter
- Cless viscous than water
- DpH of 7.4
7With a patient that is administered an injection of erythropoietin (EPO) you would expect to see ________.
- Adecreased white blood cell count
- Bincreased white blood cell count
- Cdecreased hematocrit
- Dincreased hematocrit
8In a centrifuged sample of blood, what should NOT be in the plasma portion of the sample?
- Afibrinogen
- Belectrolytes
- Calbumin
- Dplatelets
9Which plasma constituent is the main contributor to clotting?
- Afibrinogen
- Balbumin
- Calpha globulins
- Dbeta globulins
10Which of the formed elements is present in the greatest concentration?
- Aerythrocytes
- Bagranular leukocytes
- Cplatelets
- Dgranular leukocytes
11Which of the following is true of the structure of an erythrocyte?
- AErythrocytes are nucleated cells.
- BErythrocytes are cell fragments.
- CErythrocytes can bend and twist to fit through vessels.
- DErythrocytes are larger than other cells in the blood.
12What is the name of the protein found in erythrocytes that transports respiratory gases?
- Ahemoglobin
- Bfibrinogen
- Calbumin
- Dantibodies
13Which part of the hemoglobin molecule binds carbon dioxide for transport?
- Aheme group
- Bspectrin
- Camino acids of the globin
- Diron
14How many oxygen molecules can be transported by one hemoglobin molecule?
- Afour
- Beight
- Ctwo
15What part of the body does erythropoietin (EPO) target to increase erythropoiesis?
- Alungs
- Bkidneys
- Cliver
- Dbone marrow
16Mature erythrocytes lack a nucleus.
- ATrue
- BFalse
17Bilirubin is created when red blood cells are recycled. How is it removed from the blood stream?
- Athe kidneys
- Bthe pancreas
- Cthe spleen
- Dthe liver
18Abnormally low levels of erythrocytes caused by excessive bleeding is called______.
- Athalassemia
- Bsickle-cell anemia
- Chemorrhagic anemia
- Dpolycythemia
19Which of the following would you expect to have the least effect on hematocrit percentage?
- Adehydration
- Bliving at higher altitude
- Cinjection with erythropoietin (EPO)
- Dprolonged or excessive fever
20Blood reticulocyte counts provide information regarding ________.
- Aclotting ability of the blood
- Brate of platelet formation
- Crate of erythrocyte formation
- DWBC ability to defend the body against disease
21All of the following can be expected with polycythemia except ________.
- Aincreased blood volume
- Bhigh hematocrit
- Clow blood viscosity
- Dhigh blood pressure
22What organ in the body regulates erythrocyte production?
- Aliver
- Bbrain
- Cpancreas
- Dkidney
23The normal RBC "graveyard" is the liver.
- ATrue
- BFalse
24When a person has an acute bacterial infection, such as bacterial meningitis or appendicitis, which type of leukocyte increases in number?
- Abasophils
- Beosinophils
- Cneutrophils
- Dlymphocytes
25Which of these develops from lymphoid stem cells?
- Aerythrocytes
- Bgranulocytes
- Clymphocytes
- Dmonocytes
26All lymphocytes are also leukocytes.
- ATrue
- BFalse
27A person with an extremely high count of neutrophils is likely suffering ________.
- Aa bacterial infection
- Bpolycythemia
- Ca viral infection
- Danemia
28Which of the following is not a functional characteristic of WBCs?
- Apositive chemotaxis
- Bgranulosis
- Cameboid motion
- Ddiapedesis
29Which of the choices below is the parent cell for all formed elements of blood?
- Anormoblast
- Bhemocytoblast
- Cmegakaryocyte
- Dpolymorphonuclear cell
30Which of the following is characteristic of all leukocytes?
- AThey are phagocytic.
- BThey are the most numerous of the formed elements in blood.
- CThey have cytoplasmic granules.
- DThey are nucleated
31Which leukocyte might you expect to find in higher quantities in a person experiencing allergies?
- Aeosinophil
- Bbasophil
- Cneutrophil
- Dlymphocyte
32Leukemia refers to cancerous conditions involving white blood cells.
- ATrue
- BFalse
33Leukopenia is an abnormally low number of leukocytes.
- ATrue
- BFalse
34What factor stimulates platelet formation?
- Athrombopoietin
- Bplasmin
- Cinterleukin 2
- Derythropoietin
35What "clot buster" enzyme removes unneeded clots after healing has occurred during fibrinolysis?
- Afibrin
- Bthrombin
- Cplasmin
- Dplasminogen
36Hemostasis is important for __________.
- Awhite blood cell production
- Bred blood cell production
- Cstoppage of bleeding
- Dred blood cell recycling
37Which step in hemostasis involves activation of formed elements in the blood?
- Avascular spasm
- Bcoagulation
- Cfibrin production
- Dplatelet plug formation
38Which of the following represents a difference between extrinsic and intrinsic blood clotting pathways?
- AOne is faster than the other.
- BOne leads to the production of prothrombin activator and the other does not.
- COne involves calcium ions, while the other does not.
- DOne is triggered by tissue damage, while the other cannot be triggered by tissue damage.
39Digesting a clot after it is formed requires activation of what plasma protein by tPA?
- Athrombin
- Bplasmin
- Cfibrinogen
- Dplasminogen
40Which of the following would NOT lead to a bleeding disorder?
- Aexcess calcium in the diet
- Bvitamin K deficiency
- Cthrombocytopenia
- Dimpaired liver function
41The immediate response to blood vessel injury is clotting.
- ATrue
- BFalse
42Clotting factor activation turns clotting factors into enzymes.
- ATrue
- BFalse
43A person who lacks agglutinogen A but has agglutinogen B would have blood type __________.
- AB
- BAB
- CO
- DA
44AB blood type is the universal blood recipient because of that type's lack of agglutinogens.
- ATrue
- BFalse
45Which of the following scenarios could result in HDN (hemolytic disease of the newborn)?
- AO-positive female pregnant with a B-positive baby
- BAB-negative female pregnant with an AB-negative baby
- CB-negative female pregnant with an AB-positive baby
- DA-positive female pregnant with a B-positive baby
46Choose the incompatible transfusion.
- ADonate type A blood to a recipient with type AB blood.
- BDonate type B blood to a recipient with type AB blood.
- CDonate type B blood to a recipient with type O blood.
- DDonate type O blood to a recipient with type AB blood.
47Match
- AType O/Universal Donor
- BType B
- CType A
- DType AB/Universal recipient
48A mismatch of blood types during a transfusion is dangerous because ________.
- Apreformed antibodies in the recipient's blood will bind and clump (agglutinate) the donated cells
- Bclotting factors in the donor's blood will cause unwanted clots known as thrombus
- Cwhite blood cells from the donor's blood cause inflammation
- Dantibodies in the donor's plasma will attack and kill the recipient's healthy blood cells
49Which two factors below make rapid and substantial blood loss life threatening?
- Aloss of blood pressure and loss of oxygen carrying capacity
- Bloss of clotting ability and loss of osmotic pressure
- Closs of immunity and loss of blood pressure
- Dloss of immunity and loss of carbon dioxide carrying capacity
50When neither anti-A serum nor anti-B serum cause clumping (agglutination) of donor cells on a slide, the blood type is ________.
- AAB
- BO
- CB
- DA
51A total WBC count and a differential WBC count have been ordered for Mrs. Johnson. What information is obtained from the differential count that the total count does not provide?
- AThe differential WBC count and total WBC cell count test results mean the same thing.
- BThe differential count determines an increase or decrease in number of WBCs. The total WBC count determines the relative proportion of individual leukocyte types.
- CThe differential count determines the relative proportion of individual leukocyte types. The total WBC count indicates an increase or decrease in number of WBCs.
- DThe differential WBC count looks for unusual leukocytes in the blood. The total WBC count determines the relative proportions of individual leukocytes.
- EThe differential WBC count looks for unusual leukocytes in the blood. The total WBC count indicates an increase or decrease in number of WBCs.
52Abnormal excess of erythrocytes resulting in an increase in blood viscosity.
- APolycythemia
- BLeukemia
- CAnemia
- DEmbolus
- EThrombocytopenia
53Condition in which blood has abnormally low oxygen-carrying capacity.
- APolycythemia
- BLeukemia
- CAnemia
- DEmbolus
- EThrombocytopenia
54Cancerous condition involving white blood cells.
- AAnemia
- BPolycythemia
- CThrombocytopenia
- DLeukemia
- EEmbolus
55Free-floating thrombus in the bloodstream.
- APolycythemia
- BLeukemia
- CAnemia
- DEmbolus
- EThrombocytopenia
56Platelet deficiency resulting in spontaneous bleeding from small blood vessels.
- APolycythemia
- BAnemia
- CThrombocytopenia
- DLeukemia
57Which of the following provides a first line of defense against pathogens?
- Ainflammation
- Bintact skin and mucous membranes
- Ccomplement
- Dantimicrobial proteins
58What type of immune system cell performs the most phagocytosis in the body?
- Anatural killer, or NK, cells
- Bneutrophils
- CB lymphocytes.
- Dmacrophages
59What characterizes the chemotaxis phase of phagocyte mobilization?
- ANeutrophils actively ingest bacteria.
- BNeutrophils cling to the inner walls of capillaries and postcapillary venules.
- CNeutrophils and other WBCs migrate up the gradient of chemotactic agents to the site of injury.
- DNeutrophils flatten to squeeze between the endothelial cells of the capillary walls.
60What protein can be released by infected cells to help protect cells that have not yet been infected?
- Apyrogens
- Bopsonins
- Cinterferon
- Dcomplement
61How do interferons protect against viral infection in healthy cells?
- AInterferons activate complement
- BInterferons promote fever, or an abnormally high body temperature
- CInterferons block viral reproduction in healthy cells through the production of antiviral proteins.
- DInterferons perform opsonization to coat microorganisms.
62Which of the following chemicals do NOT directly trigger inflammation?
- Akinins
- Bhistamines
- Cprostaglandins
- Dantibodies
63Which of the following phases involves white blood cells leaving capillaries?
- Adiapedesis
- Bleukocytosis
- Cchemotaxis
- Dmargination
64Which type of chemical induces fever?
- Aantibodies
- Binterferon
- Ccomplement
- Dpyrogens
65Which of the following is an effect of complement activation?
- Afever
- BT cell activation
- Ctissue repair
- Dopsonization
66Which cells secrete histamines that trigger inflammatory pathways?
- ANK cells
- Bmast cells
- Cmacrophages
- Dneutrophils
67An advantage of innate immunity is ________.
- Athe use of antibodies to cause cell lysis and kill invading cells
- Bthe specificity of its individual cells which specialize in the removal on one type of antigen
- Cits barriers that prevent pathogens from entering into the body
- Dthe numerous steps in the activation of its cells that can prevent autoimmune disease
68Inflammation ________.
- Aslows the healing process with swelling that can impair bodily function
- Bis caused by viral activity to enhance the spread of the disease
- Cis caused by bacterial activity to enhance the spread of disease
- Dbrings more leukocytes to the site of infection
69All but one of the following occur during the inflammatory response. Select the example below that does not describe the process of inflammation.
- ARelease of prostaglandins resulting in pain.
- BChemotaxis draws leucocytes to the site of injury.
- CVasoconstriction will prevent excessive blood loss due to injury.
- DIncreases capillary permeability.
70Which of the following is not a function of the inflammatory response?
- Areplaces injured tissues with connective tissue
- Bsets the stage for repair processes
- Cdisposes of cellular debris and pathogens
- Dprevents the spread of the injurious agent to nearby tissue
71Which of the following is a part of the second line of defense against microorganisms?
- Aphagocytes
- Bkeratin
- Ccilia
- Dgastric juice
72Innate immune system defenses include ________.
- Aphagocytosis
- Bplasma cells
- CB cells
- DT cells
73Fever ________
- Adecreases the metabolic rate of the body to conserve energy
- Bis a higher-than-normal body temperature that is always dangerous
- Ccauses the liver to release large amounts of iron, which seems to inhibit bacterial replication
- Dproduction is regulated by chemicals that reset the body's thermostat to a higher setting
74Natural killer (NK) cells _______
- Aare also called cytotoxic T cells
- Bare cells of the adaptive immune system
- Ccan kill cancer cells before the adaptive immune system is activated
- Dare a type of phagocyte
75Which antimicrobial protein triggers inflammation?
- Acomplement
- Bpyrogen
- Cnterferon
- Dhistamine
76Adaptive defenses require us to use what molecules that can identify whether a cell is a self or nonself cell?
- Ainterferons
- Bcomplement proteins
- Cantigens
- Dantibodies
771. [blank_start]Cytotoxic T cell[blank_end] : Kills cancer cells and virus infected body cells
2. [blank_start]Memory cell :[blank_end] Enables quick and efficient response to secondary exposure to antigen
3. [blank_start]Regulatory T cell :[blank_end] Slows or stops the immune response
4. [blank_start]Helper T cell :[blank_end] Absence results in no immune response
5. [blank_start]B cell :[blank_end] Forms antibody producing cells- ACytotoxic T cell
- BMemory cell :
- CRegulatory T cell :
- DHelper T cell :
- EB cell :
78Choose the best description of an antigen.
- Aa particle (typically a foreign protein) that triggers inflammation
- Ba chemical that enhances or modifies immune response
- Cpart or a piece of a disease or pathogen
- Da particle that triggers the adaptive immunity
79Which of the areas seen the figure must be occupied by T lymphocytes, at least for a while, but is NOT required for the production of B lymphocytes?
- Alymph nodes
- Bthe general circulation
- Cthe thymus
- Dthe bone marrow
80B lymphocytes develop immunocompetence in the ____
- Athymus
- Bbone marrow
- Clymph nodes
- Dspleen
81The antivenom used to treat venomous snake bites is an antibody produced in an animal such as a horse. Suppose these antibodies are injected into a patient who has been bitten by a venomous snake--how would you classify the resulting humoral immunity?
- Aactive immunity, artificially acquired
- Bpassive immunity, naturally acquired
- Cpassive immunity, artificially acquired
- Dactive immunity, naturally acquired
82Which of the following should produce naturally acquired, active immunity?
- Arecovering from the chicken pox
- Bgetting a flu vaccine
- Cdrinking breast milk
- Dinjections of antibody produced by a goat
83Which of the following occurs when antibodies block specific sites on viruses or bacterial exotoxins?
- Aprecipitation
- Bagglutination
- Ccomplement fixation and activation
- Dneutralization
84Which mechanism(s) of antibody action result(s) in cell lysis?
- Acomplement fixation and activation
- Bagglutination
- Cprecipitation
- Dneutralization
85Label
- ANeutralization
- BAggultination
- CPrecipitation
- DComplement
- EPhagocytosis
- FInflammation
- GCell lysis
86Vaccines provide what type of immunity?
- Aartificial passive
- Bnatural active
- Cartificial active
- Dnatural passive
87Which of the following are properly matched?
- AIgM: secreted in tears
- BIgA: primary antibody during primary immune response
- CIgE: primary antibody of the secondary immune response
- DIgG: most abundant antibody
881. [blank_start]IgE :[blank_end] Involved in allergies.
2. [blank_start]IgA :[blank_end] Protects mucosal barriers.
3. [blank_start]IgM :[blank_end] First to peak during a primary immune response.
4. [blank_start]IgG :[blank_end] Main antibody of both primary and secondary immune response.
5. [blank_start]IgD :[blank_end] Along with IgM, this is a B cell receptor.- AIgE :
- BIgA :
- CIgM :
- DIgG :
- EIgD :
89A flu vaccine is needed seasonally to be effective but a polio vaccine is only needed once. The best explanation of this is ______
- Athe flu vaccine is substantially weaker than the polio vaccine
- Bthe flu has several strains that change seasonally
- Cthe polio virus is substantially weaker than the flu virus
- Dexposure to flu vaccine produces no memory cells from proliferating B-lymphocytes
90Vaccines work by _______
- Asuppressing inflation to help speed healing
- Bboosting innate immunity with cytokines
- Cproviding the necessary antibodies to fight infections
- Dpriming the adaptive immunity with a relatively harmless primary exposure
91Plasma cells _______
- Ahave a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum reflecting the fact that they secrete a tremendous amount of protein (antibody)
- Bhave a great deal of rough endoplasmic reticulum to dispose of ingested pathogens
- Care small so that they slip between endothelial cells of capillaries to fight infection in the surrounding tissues
- Dare large so that they can envelope their prey by phagocytosis
92B cells respond to the initial antigen challenge by ________.
- Aforming of a large number of cells that are unlike the original B cell
- Bproducing progeny cells that include plasma cells and memory cells
- Creducing its size
- Dimmediately producing antigen-specific antibodies
93The primary immune response ________
- Ais another name for immunological memory
- Bhas a lag period while B cells proliferate and differentiate into plasma cells
- Coccurs when memory cells are stimulated
- Doccurs more rapidly and is stronger than the secondary response
94Antibody functions include all of the following except ______
- Alinking soluble antigens together so that they fall out of solution
- Bcross-linking cell-bound antigens on red blood cells when blood types are properly matched
- Cbinding and inactivating chemical toxins released by bacteria or other microorganisms
- Dtargeting foreign cells so that complement proteins can cause cellular lysis
95Which of the following statements does NOT describe the adaptive immune response?
- AIt is specific.
- BIt occurs immediately after the body is challenged by foreign material
- CIt is systemic.
- DIt has memory.
96Antibodies mostly act against extracellular targets in body fluids and are therefore considered part of the humoral branch of adaptive immunity.
- ATrue
- BFalse
97What type of T cell can directly attack and kill other cells, such as virus-infected cells?
- Acytotoxic T (TC) cells
- BAPC
- Chelper T (TH) cells
- Dregulatory T (TReg) cells
98Which of the following are NOT appropriately matched?
- Acytotoxic T cells: destroy virally infected cells
- BB cells: produce free antibodies
- Cmacrophages: antigen-presenting cells
- Dhelper T cells: destroy infected cells
99Activated CD8 cells become __________.
- Acytotoxic T cells
- Bhelper T cells
- CB cells
- DNK cells
100An advantage to adaptive immunity is ________.
- Athe use of antibodies that cause cell lysis and kill invading cells
- Bits memory cells that provide quicker, larger and more efficient immune response upon second exposure to an antigen
- Cits need for several cells to be activated over several days on first exposure
- Dthe ability of its individual cells to respond to many different pathogens
101Which of the following cells has the largest role and most widespread effect on immunity?
- AB cell
- BAPC
- Chelper T cell
- Dcytotoxic T cell
102What types of antigen do T cells NOT recognize?
- Aprocessed fragments of protein antigens displayed on surfaces of body cells
- Bbacterial antigens
- Ccancer antigens
- Dself-antigens
103Which of the following examples below describes an autoimmune disease?
- ARelease of bacterial endotoxins that block acetylcholine release result in muscle paralysis.
- BInfection and death of T-helper cells by a virus, resulting in a loss of adaptive immunity.
- CUncontrolled cell division resulting in cell surface abnormalities recognized by NK cells.
- DAntibody binding to acetylcholine receptors of the motor end plate resulting in muscle weakness.
104Select the correct statement about immunodeficiency.
- ASevere combined immunodeficiency (SCID) disease is an acquired condition.
- BHodgkin's disease is a hereditary immunodeficiency found in children.
- CThe causative agent in acquired immune deficiency syndrome (AIDS) is a virus that recognizes CD4 proteins.
- DThe most common form of immunodeficiency is graft-versus-host (GVH) disease.
105Which of the following distinguishes lymphatic vessels from veins?
- ALymphatics transport fluids toward the heart
- BLymphatics lack the three tunics present in veins.
- Cpermeability of the walls
- DLymphatics have valves, while veins do not.
106What is the main function of the lymphatic system?
- AThe lymphatic system returns leaked fluid and plasma proteins that escape from the bloodstream to the blood.
- BThe lymphatic system makes blood cells through a process known as hematopoiesis.
- CThe lymphatic system transports blood and lymph throughout the body.
- DThe lymphatic system produces high fluid pressures.
107Which of the following mechanisms is NOT used to propel lymph through lymphatic vessels?
- Apulmonary motion
- Bthe milking action of muscles
- Cgravity
- Dsmall heart-like pumps
108Lymph from the right leg ultimately is delivered to which duct in the thoracic region?
- Aright lymphatic duct
- Bthoracic duct
- Cjugular trunk
- Dsubclavian trunk
109Lymph from what regions of the body is drained into the right lymphatic duct?
- Athe left upper limb, the left side of the head and thorax, and both lower limbs
- Bthe right upper limb, the right side of the head and thorax, and the right lower limb
- Cthe digestive organs and lower limbs
- Dthe right upper limb, the right side of the head, and the thorax
110Where are the three large clusters of superficial lymph nodes?
- Athe cervical, inguinal, and axillary regions
- Bthe axillary, brachial, and subclavian regions
- Cthe cervical, acromial, and mammary regions
- Dthe lumbar, inguinal, and femoral regions
111 Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
- Ato drain excess fluid from capillaries
- Bto carry pathogens towards lymph nodes
- Cto participate in gas exchange at capillaries
- Dto help carry absorbed lipids to the blood
112Once collected, lymph ultimately drains into __________
- Avenous circulation
- Bthe liver for detoxification
- Carterial circulation
- Dlymph nodes
113Which statement describes the origin of lymph fluid?
- ALymph is collected from fluid that accumulates in veins as blood slowly circulates back toward the heart.
- BLymph is excess fluid formed from plasma that accumulates in the tissues as interstitial fluid
- CLymph is collected from atrial to venous anastomoses
- DLymph is secreted into the lymph vessels
114Lymphedema may be treated by all EXCEPT which of the following?
- Amanual compression of the affected area
- Bmovements of the affected area
- Ctreatments that promote growth of lymphatic vessels
- Dbed rest to allow enhanced blood flow and therefore healing of the affected area
115Which of the following is NOT a part of the lymphatic system?
- Alymphatic vessels
- Blymph nodes
- Cerythrocytes
- Dlymph
116Which of the following is NOT a normal component of lymph?
- Aions
- Bplasma proteins
- Cred blood cells
- Dwater
117Which of the following is NOT a function of the lymphatic system?
- Adraining excess interstitial fluid
- Btransporting respiratory gases
- Ccarrying out immune responses
- Dtransporting dietary fats
118Lymphatic ________ are formed from the union of the largest collecting lymphatic vessels.
- Aducts
- Btrunks
- Ccapillaries
- Dnodes
119Chyle is delivered to the blood via the lymphatic system
- ATrue
- BFalse
120Which lymphoid organ is primarily active during the early years of life?
- AA
- BB
- CC
- DD
121Which lymphoid organ extracts aged and defective blood cells and platelets from the blood in addition to storing some of the breakdown products for later reuse?
- AA
- BB
- CC
- DD
122Which of these lymphoid organs is the thymus?
- AA
- BB
- CC
- DD
123Which of these lymphoid organs destroys bacteria before it can breach the intestinal wall and generates “memory” lymphocytes for long-term memory?
- AA
- BB
- CC
- DD
124Select the correct statement about lymphoid tissue.
- ALymphoid macrophages secrete antibodies into the blood
- BLymphoid tissue is predominantly reticular connective tissue
- COnce a lymphocyte enters the lymphoid tissue, it resides there permanently.
- DT lymphocytes act by ingesting foreign substances.
125Which lymphoid organ(s) serve(s) as the site where B lymphocytes become immunocompetent B cells?
- Ared bone marrow
- Btonsils
- Cthymus gland
- Dthyroid gland
126The filtration of lymph and activation of the immune system are the two basic functions of the _________
- APeyer's patches
- Btonsils
- Cspleen
- Dlymph nodes
127Which of the following is NOT a function of lymph nodes?
- Aproduce lymphoid cells and house granular WBCs
- Bproduce lymph fluid and cerebrospinal fluid
- Cserve as antigen surveillance areas
- Dact as lymph filters and activate the immune system
128Where is the spleen located?
- Ain the left side of the abdominal cavity just beneath the diaphragm and curled around the anterior aspect of the stomach
- Bin the wall of the distal portion of the small intestines
- Cin the inferior neck and extending into the superior thorax, partially overlying the heart deep to the sternum
- Dforming a ring of lymphoid tissue around the entrance to the pharynx (throat)
129After surgical removal of the spleen (i.e., a splenectomy), some other organs take over most of its functions. Which of the following spleen functions in the adult can not be performed by bone marrow?
- Aimmune surveillance
- Berythropoiesis
- Cremoval of aged and damaged red blood cells from the blood
- Dstorage of platelets
130Functions of the spleen include all of those below EXCEPT ________.
- Aforming crypts that trap bacteria
- Bstorage of blood platelets
- Cremoval of old or defective blood cells from the blood
- Dstorage of iron
131Which tonsil is located in the posterior wall of the nasopharynx and is referred to as the adenoids if it is enlarged?
- Apalatine tonsils
- Blingual tonsil
- Cpharyngeal tonsil
- Dtubal tonsils
132Which of the following lymph organs is NOT matched with its function?
- Abone marrow: form lymphocytes
- Bthymus: mature T cells
- Cspleen: remove red blood cells
- DPeyer's patches: mature B cells
133Mucosa-associated lymphoid tissues include all of the following EXCEPT ________.
- APeyer's patches
- Blingual tonsils
- Cpalatine tonsils
- Dislets of Langerhans
134The tonsils located at the base of the tongue are the _______
- Alingual tonsils
- Bpalatine tonsils
- Cpharyngeal tonsils
- DPeyer's tonsils
135The thymus functions strictly in maturation of B cells.
- ATrue
- BFalse
136The thymus is most active during ________.
- Amiddle age
- Bfetal development
- Cchildhood
- Dold age
137The thymus is the only lymphoid organ that does NOT ________.
- Ahave lymphocytes
- Bhave a cortex and medulla
- Cdirectly fight antigens
- Dproduce hormones
138Which lymphoid organ atrophies as we age?
- Aspleen
- Bappendix
- Ctonsils
- Dthymus
139Besides lymph nodes, where would you expect to find proliferating (dividing) B cells?
- Ain the thyroid
- Bin the skin
- Cin the brain
- Din the spleen
140The major function of the red blood cells (RBC) is to ________
- Arelease histamine and other anti-inflammatory substances
- Btransport O2 and CO2
- Cphagocytize bacteria
- Dseal small tears in blood vessels
141Platelets _______
- Aare essential for the immune response
- Btransport O2 and CO2
- Care the smallest formed elements of blood
- Dare cellular components of blood
142A person who has symptoms of paleness and chronic fatigue is suspected of having anemia. To investigate this suspicion further, it would be most helpful to measure _______
- Adifferential WBC count
- Bhematocrit
- Ctotal WBC count
143Normally, the amount of plasma in whole blood is ________ than the amount of formed elements; plasma makes up approximately ________ percent of whole blood.
- Agreater; 65
- Bgreater; 55
- Cless; 30
- Dless; 45
144A normal red blood cell count is ________; of the sexes, ________ generally have greater numbers
- A4 to 6 million/mm2 of blood; men
- B4 to 6 million/mm2 of blood; women
145This formed element is essential for blood clotting.
- ARBCs
- BSalts
- CPlatelets
- DEosinophils
146White blood cell containing granules, which mediates hypersensitivity reactions of immune system and produces histamine, seratonin, and heparin.
- Abasophil
147A mononuclear, non-phagocytic, WBC
- Alymphocyte
148label
- AMonocyte
149what is it
- Aerythrocyte
1501. [blank_start]Eosinophil[blank_end] Nucleus has two lobes; contains granules of lysosomal enzymes; functions in attacking parasitic worms and plays complex roles in inflammatory diseases like allergies and asthma.
2. [blank_start]Neutrophil[blank_end] Nucleus is multilobed; functions as a phagocyte; contains fine indistinct granules.
3. [blank_start]Erythrocyte[blank_end] Transports CO2 and oxygen.
4. [blank_start]Basophil[blank_end] Contains a U- or an S-shaped nucleus; granules stain very dark; releases histamine and heparin.
5. [blank_start]Monocyte[blank_end] Largest of the WBCs; crucial in defense against viruses; associated with chronic infections.- AEosinophil
- BNeutrophil
- CErythrocyte
- DBasophil
- EMonocyte
Information
- Description
- From Mastering A&P Chapters 17, 20, and 21
- Author
- Cameron Bonney
- Language
- English
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