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SOC 170 Mid Term
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Questions in this quiz (120)
1An act that violates criminal law and is punishable by criminal sanctions is
- AA Crime
- BA Felonly
- CA Tort
- DDeviant
2The Consensus Model is a Criminal Justice Model in Which
- AThe content of criminal law is determined by the groups that hold economic, political, and social power in the community.
- BA majority of citizens in a society agree on what activities should be outlawed and punished as crimes.
- CSpecific social groups determine which deviant behaviors are to be defined as criminal
- DThe primary focus of law is to protect the individual from the power of government.
3Which of the following is NOT one of the components in the integrated definition of crime?
- APunishable under criminal law, as determined by the majority of a society, or in some cases a powerful minority.
- BConsidered an offense against society as a whole and prosecuted by public officials, not by victims and their relatives or friends.
- CPunishable by statutorily determined sanctions that bring about the loss of personal freedom or life
- DConsidered an offense against an individual but prosecuted by the state who is paid by the victim.
4Which of the following is true regarding deviance?
- ADeviance is an objective concept that all members of society agree upon
- BDeviance is another term used to describe all criminal activity
- CDeviance is behavior that is considered to go against the norms established by society.
- DDeviance is always considered criminal in nature.
5Federalism refers to
- AA system of government dominated by an all-powerful federal government
- BA system of checks and balances within the executive, legislative, and judicial branches of government
- CA system of government in which states are independent and self-governing
- DA sharing of government powers by federal and state authorities
6Which of the following is not considered an express power?
- Aa. The power to coin money
- Bb. Police powers
- Cc. The power to raise an army
- DThe power to regulate interstate commerce
7Police powers allow states to enact laws necessary to protect the __________ of their citizens.
- Aa. health
- Bb. morals
- Cc. safety
- Dd. all of these
8What level of law enforcement divides duties between counties and municipalities?
- Aa. Federal
- Bb. Local
- Cc. National
- Dd. State
9Which officers often police a state’s natural resources and often oversee its firearm laws?
- AFish, game, and watercraft officers
- BDepartment of State Security
- CHighway patrol
- DSheriffs
10Wildlife wardens, alcohol and beverage control agents, and fire marshals are examples of law enforcement officers at the ____ level.
- AMunicipal
- BCounty
- CState
- DFederal
11________ investigate most crimes and attempt to deter crime through patrol activities.
- Aa. Local police
- Bb. Highway patrol officers
- Cc. State police agencies
- Dd. Federal agencies
12Which agency operates throughout the United States?
- Aa. DEA
- Bb. FBI
- Cc. ATF
- Dall of the these
13The United States has a ____ court system.
- Aa. Dual
- Bb. Primary
- Cc. Single
- Dd. Tertiary
14A dual court system means that there are
- Aa. local and state courts
- Bb. trial and appellate courts
- Cc. federal and state courts
- Dd. misdemeanor and felony courts
1515. Once the court system convicts and sentences an offender, she or he is delegated to the ____ system.
- Aa. Corrections
- Bb. Management
- Cc. Supervision
- Dd. Treatment
1616. The most common correctional treatment, which allows the offender to return to the community and remain under the supervision of the agent of the court, is:
- Aa. House Arrest
- Bb. Intensive supervised probation
- CParole
- DProbation
17Those convicted of minor crimes with relatively short sentences, as well as those awaiting trial or transfer, are held in ____.
- AJails
- BParole agencies
- CPrisons
- DProbation offices
18____ house those convicted of more serious crimes with longer sentences.
- AJails
- BParole agencies
- CPrisons
- DProbation offices
19Counties and municipalities administer _________, while __________are the domain of federal and state governments.
- Aa. police; corrections
- Bb. jails; prisons
- Cc. police; courts
- Dd. probation; prisons
2020. Community supervision that occurs after release from jail or prison is called:
- Aa. Management time
- Bb. Parole
- Cc. Probation
- DSupervision period
2121. Which of the following is not an example of a community-based sentence?
- AMinimum security prisons
- BResidential centers
- CHalfway houses
- DWork-release centers
2222. The ability to choose between and among alternative courses of action is known as ____________.
- Aa. Choice
- Bb. Control
- Cc. Discretion
- Dd. Power
2323. Herbert Packer likened the idealized criminal justice system to a(n):
- ASports team
- BAssembly line
- CTangled bureaucracy
- DObstacle course
24Which of the following does not occur during the adjudication phase of the criminal justice process?
- Aarrest
- Barraignment
- Ccriminal trial
- Dverdict
25Which of the following can occur in the prosecution and pretrial services step of the criminal justice process?
- Aarrest
- Bgrand jury
- Ccriminal trial
- Dsentencing
26During which step in the criminal justice process would the offender plead guilty to a criminal charge?
- AEntry into the system
- BProsecution and pretrial services
- CAdjudication
- DSentencing and Sanctions
27The informal criminal justice process relies upon the use of:
- ADiscretion
- BEqual treatment
- CPolicy-guided decision making
- DStatute-defined decision making
28Collectively, the discretionary decisions made by criminal justice professionals are said to produce a/an ____________________.
- ADue process model
- BCrime control model
- CFormal criminal justice process
- DInformal criminal justice process
29What is the ability to make operational decisions based on personal judgment instead of formal rules?
- ADiscretion
- BEthics
- CJustice
- DMorals
30Which of the following is a discretionary decision made by prosecutors?
- AThe decision to release an inmate on parole
- BThe decision to issue an arrest warrant
- CThe decision to convict a defendant
- DThe decision to reduce charges
3131. What are the moral principles that govern a person’s perception of right and wrong?
- ADiscretion
- BEthics
- CJustice
- DLaws
32Which statement below is incorrect?
- AEthics in criminal justice are closely related to the concept of justice.
- BCritical thinking is needed for an ethical response.
- CIntuition is enough for law enforcement to act.
- DDiscretion in criminal justice can present a potential for abuse.
33This model emphasizes the right of society to be protected from crime and violent criminals.
- ACrime Control Model
- BDue Process Model
- CConsensus Model
- DConflict Model
34This model emphasizes that the individual is to be protected from the power of the government.
- ACrime Control Model
- BDue Process Model
- CConsensus Model
- DConflict Model
35Which of the following is not a psychoactive drug?
- AMarijuana
- BAlcohol
- CHeroin
- DCocaine
36The UCR is prepared annually by:
- AThe United States Census Beureau
- BThe Department of Homeland Security
- CThe Federal Bureau of Investigation
- DThe United States Secret Service
37The number of women in prisons and jails is ---- over time
- ARemaining Stable
- BDecreasing Steadily
- CIncreasing Rapidly
- DSlowly increasing
38The study of crims is referred to as
- ACriminal Justice
- BCriminology
- CPsychology
- DSociology
39A theory is:
- AA relationship between two variables in which they vary together
- BAn educated guess by a criminologist about the relationship between two variables
- CA statement in which a variable is denoted as the cause of change in another variable.
- DAn explanation for a phenomenon based on observation, experimentation, and reasoning
40A theory that believes criminals must be taught both the practical and emotional skills necessary to participate in illegal activity.
- ALabeling theory
- BLearning theory
- CSocial process theory
- DTrait theory
41Social conflict theory focuses on ---- as a key component in explaining crime
- AChoice
- BThe community
- CLearning
- DPower
42To understand the basics of addiction and physical dependance, you must understand the role of ----- in the brain
- ASerotonin
- BNorepinephrine
- CDopamine
- DHistamine
43A chronic offender is also referred to as a -----
- ACarrer criminal
- BConstant criminal
- CChronic victim
- DPersistent perpetrator
44The term "judge made" law is synonymous with:
- AAdministrative law
- BCase law
- CConstitutional law
- DStatutory law
45The remedy for a violation of civil law is
- AMonetary damages awarded to the plaintiff
- BProbation up to five years
- CA fine parid to the state or county
- DIncarceration up to 1 year
46The ---- is a the supreme law of the land and as such is the basis of all law in the United States.
- ADecleration of Independance
- BU.S. Penal Code
- CU.S. Constitution
- DCase law of the United States Supreme Court
47What degree of felony carries the maximum penalty of death?
- ACapital offense
- BFirst degree felonies
- CSecond degree felonies
- DThird degree felonies
48In a criminal case the burden of proof is
- ABeyond a reasonable doubt
- BPreponderance of the evidence
- CBeyond a shadow of doubt
- DBy clear and convincing evidence
49Murder, rape, and theft are examples of ---- crime
- AMala in se
- BMala prohibita
- CPremeditated
- DDeliberate
50What is the defense for a criminal ability that is used to assert a lack of criminal responsibility because according to the law, a person cannot have the requisite state of mind to commit a crime?
- ADuress
- BInsanity
- CEntrapment
- DMistake
51Court decisions that provide guidence in interpreting the law are called
- AProcedural guidelines
- BBenchmarks
- CPrecedents
- DBaselines
52The term mala prohibita refers to:
- AAn act that would be wrong even if no law prohibited it
- BA violation of natural law
- CA "human-made" law
- DAn act that foes against the public morality
53The guilty act in a criminal offense is referred to as
- AActus rae
- BMens rea
- CCorpus delicti
- DHabeus corpus
54As discussed in the textbook, Corpus delicti refers to:
- AThe dead body at the scene of a crime
- BThe element of criminal intent
- CThe basic elements of a crime
- DThe criminal act
55A common law test of a criminal responsibility that relies on the defendant's inability to distinguish right from wrong is the
- ADurham Rule
- BIrresistible-Impulse Test
- CM'Naughten Rule
- DSubstantial Capacity Test
56When the wrongful threat of one person induces another person to perfirm an act that he or she would otherwise not perform ------ exists
- ADuress
- BEntrapment
- CNecesity
- DSelf-defense
57This form of due process requires laws be carried out in a fair and orderly manner
- ALegislative due process
- BProcedural process
- CRelative due process
- DSubstantive due process
58The Fourth Amendment protects against:
- AExcessive bail
- BExcessive fines
- CCruel and unusual punishment
- DUnreasonable searches
59Early policing efforts were for the most part performed by:
- AEducated employees
- BPaid persons
- CProfessionals
- DVolunteers
60During field training officers are:
- ATaught the laws of search, seizure, arrest, and interrogation
- BHow and when to use weapons
- CSelf defense
- DIntroduced to the informal rules of policing
61The oldest federal law enforcement agency is the
- AFederal Bureau of Investigation
- BU.S. Border Patrol
- CU.S. Marshals
- DU.S. Secret Service
62In which city was the first organized police department formed?
- AAtlanta
- BBoston
- CNew York City
- DPhilidelphia
63In the public mind, the primary goal of the police officer is to
- AEnforce laws
- BProvide services
- CPrevent crime
- DPreserve the peace
64Attempting to stop crimes before they are committed is a form of --- policing
- ASocial
- BInteractive
- CProactive
- DReactive
65The important of intelligence-based policing was not evident before which major event?
- AWorld War I
- BWorld War II
- CThe Vietnam War
- D9-11 Attacks
66When police officers "handel the situation" they are performing which responsibility of policing.
- AEnforce laws
- BProvide services
- CPrevent Crime
- DPreserve the peace
67A style of policing that emphasizes centralized police organizations, increased use of technology, and a limitation of police discretion through regulations and guidelines was known as the
- APatronage system
- BProessional model
- CSpoils system
- DWatchman system
68Which agency was orignially created for combating currency counterfiters
- ABureau of Alcohol, Tobacco, Firearms, and Explosives (ATF)
- BDrug Enforcement Agency (DEA)
- CU.S Marshals Service
- DU.S. Secret Service
69What is the ultimate goal of a bureaucratic organization, such as a police department?
- AAdministration development
- BEfficiency
- CLow Employee turnover
- DWork satisfaction for the employee
70Which of the following is NOT a purpose of police patril listed in the text?
- ADeterrance of crime
- BMaintenance of public order
- CImprovement of public attitudes towards the police
- DProvision of services that are not crime related
71During the --- of policing, corruption was rampant
- ACommunity era
- BTechnological era
- CPolitical era
- DReform era
72A style of policing that emphasizes centralized police organizations, increased use of technology and a limitation of police discretion through regulations and guidelines was known as the:
- APatronage System
- BProfessional Model
- CSpoils System
- DWatchmen system
73What is the period of time at the beginning of a police officer's career during which she or he may be fired without cause?
- AProbationary period
- BRecruit period
- CTraining period
- DTrial period
74Of the three levels of law enforcement, ---- have the broadest authority to apprehend criminal suspects, maintain order, and provide services to the community?
- AMunicipal police agencies
- BCounty Sheriff's department
- CState Policing agencies
- DFederal policing agencies
75Which of the following is NOT under the direction of the Department of Homeland Security?
- AU.S Customs and Boarder Protection
- BThe Federal Bureau of Investigation (FBI)
- CU.S immigration and Customs Enforcement
- DThe U.S Secret Service
76Which agency is charged with investigating over two hundred federal crimes, including kidnaping, bank robbery, and gambling?
- AATF
- BDEA
- CFBI
- DU.S secret service
77After a crime has been committed and the patrol officer has gathered preliminary information from a crime scene, the responsibility of identifying the offender is delegated to the:
- ADetective
- BInternal affairs unit
- CPatrol officer
- DPolice Chief
78Which of the following is a reason for continued growth in the field of private security?
- AThe war on drugs and the resulting increase in gang violence.
- BThe creation of federal regulations governing the security field.
- CAn economic upswing
- DConcern over a terrorist attack
79Which is the principle of command in most police departments?
- ADictatorial
- BDelegation of authority
- CEfficiency
- DWork satisfaction for the employee
80A hierarchically structured administrative organization that carried out specific functions is a/an
- ABureaucracy
- BDelegation
- CChain of command
- DStrategy
81This is the smallest stretch that a police officer or group of police officers regulary patrol
- Abeats
- Bdistrict
- Cstations
- Dzone
82Who founded the modern police department purposes of deterrence, public order, and 24 hour services in 1829?
- ASir Robert Peel
- BJ Edgar Hoover
- CJoseph Friday
- DTheodore Rosevelt
83The most common way for someone to become a detevtive is to
- AAttend graduate school in criminal justice
- BAttend specialized training in the field
- CEarn an undergraduate college degree
- DBe promoted from patrol officer
84Aggressive investigation strategies include
- ACrackdowns
- BUndercover operations
- CRoadblocks
- DIncreased patrol of hotspots
85Because of ---- police officers are limited in what they can do to convince the target of an undercover operation to participate in illegal activity.
- ADuress
- BEntrapment
- CNecessity
- DSelf-defense
86Which crime is investigated most throughly and thus results in the highest clearance rates?
- ABurglary
- BComputer theft
- CMurder
- DStolen Vehicle
87Which is not an example of trace evidence
- ABallistics
- BBlood
- CFingerprints
- DHair
88Ballistics is the study of
- ADNA
- BFingerprints
- CFirearms
- DResponse time
89The establishment of a connection between a suspect and a crime often through the use of DNA evidence in the absence of an ongoing investigation is a/an
- AProactive solve
- BClearance rate
- CRandom hit
- DCold hit
90A databse containing the DNA of more than 4.5 million people is
- ACODIS
- BAFIS
- CIBIS
- DNCVS
91For more than a century the most important piece of trace evidence has been ---
- ADNA
- BThe human fingerprint
- CHuman hair
- DBlood evidence
92Who operated the National Combined DNA Index System
- AATF
- BDEA
- CFBI
- DICE
93A reactive approach to policing that emphasizes a speedy response to calls for service is
- ACommunity policing
- BDirected policing
- CProblem-oriented policing
- DIncident Driven Policing
94An area that is concentrated which high criminal activity to which there is a directed police response is a:
- AGhetto
- BHeavy Spot
- CHot spot
- DSlum
95What type of technology is utilized by police departments to locate and identify hot spots
- AArrest rates
- BCrime mapping
- CPreventive patrol
- DRapid response
96The "broken window theory" is based on the theory that by cracking down on ---- crimes police can significantly reduce all crimes in an area.
- AFelony
- BProperty
- CQuality-of-life
- DViolent
97A policing philosophy that moves beyond responding to incidents and attempts to solve the root causes of criminal behavior is -----
- AProblem oriented policing
- BCommunity policing
- CIncident-driven policing
- DProactive policing
98The use of force by police officers occurs in about ---- percent of all police-public encounters?
- A9
- B4
- C1
- D6
99The Kansas City Experiment shows that decreasing preventitive patrol:
- AHad little impact or no impact on crime
- BDecreased crime
- CIncreased crime
- DIncreased the number of reported offenses
100A ---- is when an officer actively demands payment from an individual or a business in return for certain services
- ACleaning
- BMooching
- CPayoff
- DShakedown
1011. The purpose of a “frisk” is to discover _____________________.
- Aa. Weapons
- Bb. Evidence
- Cc. The suspect’s identity
- Dd. Narcotics
102A (n) ____ is a brief detention of a person by law enforcement agents for questioning.
- Aa. Arrest
- Bb. Frisk
- Cc. Seizure
- Dd. Stop
103The ____ prohibits the use of illegally seized evidence.
- Aa. Exclusionary rule
- Bb. Poisoned tree rule
- Cc. Probable cause rule
- DReasonable rule
1044. Any physical or verbal evidence police are able to acquire by using illegally obtained evidence is known as:
- Aa. Fruit of the poisoned tree
- Bb. The exclusionary rule
- CThe rotten apple doctrine
- Dd. Exculpatory evidence
1055. A pat-down or minimal search by police to discover weapons with the purpose of protecting the officer or other citizens, and not to find evidence of illegal substances for use in a trial, is referred to as a(n):
- Aa. Arrest
- Bb. Frisk
- Cc. Seizure
- Dd. Stop
106Which case law established "stop and frisk?"
- Aa. Carroll v. United States
- Bb. Mapp v. Ohio
- Cc. Terry v. Ohio
- Dd. Weeks v. United States
107What is the scope of the search during a stop?
- AArea within the suspect's immediate control
- BArea within the suspect's reach
- CNothing can be searched
- Dd. Outer clothing only
1088. A(n) ____ is the taking into custody of a citizen for the purpose of detaining him or her on a criminal charge.
- Aa. Arrest
- Bb. Frisk
- Cc. Seizure
- Dd. Stop
109 What is the justification required to make an arrest?
- AExclusionary evidence
- BMere suspicion
- CProbable cause
- DReasonable suspicion
110Arrest warrants are written orders, based on probable cause and issued by a:
- ALaw enforcement officer
- BProsecuting attorney
- CGrand jury
- Dd. Judge
111In order to obtain a search warrant, a police officer must generally provide specific information on the premises to be searched, the illegal activity taking place, the items to be seized, and:
- Aa. Preponderance of the evidence
- Bb. Probable cause
- Cc. Proof beyond a reasonable doubt
- Dd. Reasonable suspicion
11212. A(n) ____ is the forcible taking of a person or property in response to a violation of the law.
- Aa. Arrest
- Bb. Frisk
- Cc. Search
- Dd. Seizure
113What kind of search takes place when an individual gives law enforcement permission to search their persons, homes, or belongings?
- AAn automobile search
- BA consent search
- CA search incident to arrest
- DA search within plain view
114The reasoning behind the warrantless search of automobiles is that:
- ABecause they traverse public roadways, there is no expectation to privacy in one’s vehicle
- BVehicles contain an area too small to require a search warrant
- CVehicles are moveable, and could drive away before the officer could obtain a warrant
- DVehicles can have more than one driver, therefore they are not considered under the Fourth Amendment right to be free from unreasonable searches
11515. Given the invasiveness of electronic surveillance, the Supreme Court has generally held that the practice is prohibited by _____________________.
- Aa. The Fourth Amendment
- Bb. The Fifth Amendment
- Cc. The Sixth Amendment
- Dd. The Eighth Amendment
11616. What is the legal basis for the Miranda warning?
- Aa. First Amendment
- BFourth Amendment
- CFifth Amendment
- DEighth Amendment
11717. If a law enforcement officer has a search warrant authorizing him to search for a laser printer, where can he look during the search procedure for this evidence?
- ASmall drawers
- BJewelry boxes
- COn desktops
- DIn a medicine cabinet
11818. The Fourth Amendment contains two critical legal concepts: a prohibition against unreasonable searches and seizures, and:
- AA trial by a jury of peers
- BProhibition against cruel and unusual punishment
- CRequirement of probable cause to make an arrest
- DRequirement of reasonable suspicion to make an arrest
11919. When police are conducting a search or seizure, they must be ____.
- Aanalytical
- BFair
- CQuiet
- DReasonable
12020. Generally speaking, which of the four sources of probable cause mentioned in the text is not strong enough to stand alone?
- AInformation
- BEvidence
- CAssociation
- DPersonal observation
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- Undergraduate Criminal Justice Quiz on SOC 170 Mid Term, created by Sean O on 31/10/2018.
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- Sean O
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