Quiz
childhood
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Questions in this quiz (112)
1what nerves innervates the upper arms anterior compartment
- Amusculocutaneous
- Bradial nerve
- Caxillary nerve
- Dmedial nerve
- Eulnar nerve
2what nerves innervate the posterior compartment of the upper arm
- Amusculocutaneous
- Bradial
- Caxillary
- Dmedian
- Eulnar
3what nerve innervates the anterior compartment of the forearm
- Amedian nerve
- Bulnar nerve
- Cmusculocutaneous nerve
- Dradial nerve
- Eaxillary nerve
4what nerve innervates the posterior compartment of the forearm
- Amedian
- Baxillary
- Cradial
- Dulnar
- Emusculocutanous
5which of these best describes the femoral nerve
- AL2-L4 and it innervates the anterior compartment of the thigh
- BL2-L4 and it innervates the posterior compartment of the thigh
- CL2-L4 and it exits the obturator foramen to reach the muscles in the outer thigh
- DL4-S3 and it exits out of the greater sciatic foreamen
6which of these best describes the obturator nerve
- AL2-L4 and it innervates the anterior compartment of the thigh
- BL2-L4 and it exits the obturator foreman to reach the muscles in the outer thigh
- CL2-L4 and it exits the obturator foreman to reach the muscles in the inner thigh
- DL4-S3 and exits out of the greater sciatic notch
7which best describes the sciatic nerve
- AL4-S3 and exits out of the greater sciatic notch
- BL4-S3 and exits out of the lesser sciatic notch
- CL2-L4 and exits out of the greater sciatic notch
- DL2-L4 and exits out of the lesser sciatic notch
8a 24 year old man comes in due to pain that radiates from the lower back to the bum and down the leg. The man also claims that his leg feels like pins and needles. what nerve damage or constriction is causing this?
- Asciatic nerve
- Bfemoral nerve
- Cobturator nerve
- Dtibial nerve
9a 24 year old man comes in due to pain in the medial thigh and groin with weakness carrying out the function of leg adduction. the man also claims that he has sensory loss in his medial thigh. what nerve damage is causing this pathology?
- Aobturator nerve
- Bsciatic nerve
- Cfemoral nerve
- Dtibial nerve
10a 24 year old man comes in due to complains of quadricep muscle weakness and difficulty extending his knee due to this. he also has a pins and needles sensation in his leg and a dull ache in his scrotum. what nerve damage is causing this pathology?
- Asciatic nerve
- Bobturator nerve
- Cfemoral nerve
- Dtibial nerve
11in regards to the innervation of the thigh the anterior compartment is innervated by the [blank_start]femoral[blank_end] nerve, the medial compartment is innervated by the [blank_start]obturator[blank_end] nerve and the posterior compartment is innervated by the [blank_start]sciatic[blank_end] nerve. in regards to the innervation of the lower leg the anterior compartment is innervated by the [blank_start]deep fibular[blank_end] nerve, the lateral compartment is innervated by the [blank_start]superficial fibular[blank_end] nerve and the posterior compartment is innervated by the [blank_start]tibial[blank_end] nerve
- Afemoral
- Bobturator
- Csciatic
- Ddeep fibular
- Esuperficial fibular
- Ftibial
12what are the actions controlled by the femoral nerve in the thigh
- Aknee extension
- Bknee adduction
- Chip extension
- Dhep flexion
- Eknee flexion
13what is the actions controlled by the obturator nerve in the thigh
- Aknee extension
- Bknee adduction
- Chip extension
- Dhip flexion
- Elateral movement of hip
14what actions in the thigh are controlled by the sciatic nerve
- Aknee extension
- Bknee flexion
- Chip extension
- Dhip flexion
- Eknee adduction
15what nerves are directly branched of the sciatic nerve
- Atibial nerve
- Bcommon fibular
- Csuperficial fibular
- Ddeep fibular
- Ecommon tibial
- Fdeep tibial
- Gsuperficial tibial
16in the lower leg eversion of the foot is controlled by the [blank_start]superficial fibular[blank_end] nerve, assistin in dorsiflex movement of the ankle is controlled by the [blank_start]deep fibular[blank_end] nerve and the [blank_start]tibial[blank_end] nerve provides major contribution of nerve supply to the foot
- Asuperficial fibular
- Bdeep fibular
- Ctibial
17in regards with glucose transporters, [blank_start]GLUT-1[blank_end] supplies all tissues, [blank_start]GLUT-3[blank_end] supplies the nervous system, [blank_start]GLUT-2[blank_end] supplies pancreatic beta cells, intestines, kidney and the liver and the [blank_start]GLUT-4[blank_end] transporter supplies skeletal muscle, adipose tissue and the heart.
- AGLUT-1
- BGLUT-3
- CGLUT-2
- DGLUT-4
18in regards with glucose uptake in peripheral tissues, glucose enters the pancreas via [blank_start]GLUT-2[blank_end] transporters. this causes [blank_start]insulin[blank_end] production. [blank_start]insulin[blank_end] then binds to receptors in peripheral tissues causing [blank_start]GLUT-4[blank_end] to translocate to the surface to allow [blank_start]glucose[blank_end] uptake in peripheral tissues
- AGLUT-4
- BGLUT-2
- Cinsulin
- Dinsulin
- Eglucose
19there are 2 types of acetycholine receptors. [blank_start]nicotinic[blank_end] receptors are ligand gated cation channels, that are pentameric. they have a central cation pore which in the central nervous system is for [blank_start]sodium[blank_end] ions. the other type is [blank_start]muscarinic[blank_end] receptors which are G-protein coupled receptors.
- Anicotinic
- BNa
- Cmuscarinic
20which of these best describes the babuski reflex
- Aits a normal reflex in infants, it is normal in children up to 2 years old. it occurs when the sole of the foot has been firmly stroked and the big toe moves upwards or towards the surface of the foot. the other toes fan out
- Bits a normal reflex in adolescents, it is normal in children up to 18 years old. it occurs when the sole of the foot has been firmly stroked and the big toe moves upwards or towards the surface of the foot. the other toes fan out
- Cits a normal reflex in infants, it is normal in children up to 2 years old. it occurs when the sole of the foot has been firmly stroked and the big toe moves downwards or towards the sole of the foot. the other toes fan out
- Dits a normal reflex in adolescence, it is normal in children up to 16 years old. it occurs when the sole of the foot has been firmly stroked and the big toe moves upwards or towards the surface of the foot. the other toes fan out
21damage to the [blank_start]upper motor[blank_end] neurone can result in spasticity and exaggerated reflexes, and damage to the [blank_start]lower motor[blank_end] neruone leads to weakness, twitching of muscle and loss of muscle mass
- Aupper motor
- Blower motor
22which of these is true in upper motor neurone lesions
- Aspastic paralysis
- Bfasciculations
- Cfibrillations
- Dhyper reflexia
- Ebabuski reflex
- Fno babuski reflex
- Gflaccid paralysis
- Hhyporeflexia
- Ino fasciculations
- Jno fibrillations
23what is true about lower motor neruone lessions
- Aspastic paralysis
- Bfasciculations and fibrillations
- Cmuscle atrophy
- Dno fibrillations and no fasciculations
- Emuscle hypertrophy
- Fhypo reflexia
- Ghyper reflexia
- Hbabuski sign not present
- Ibabuski sign present
- Jflaccid paralysis
24pharmacodynamics is what the [blank_start]drug does to the body[blank_end]
- Adrug does to the body
25pharmacokinetics is what the [blank_start]body does to the drug[blank_end]
- Abody does to the drug
26there are 4 targets of drug action they are receptors, ion channels, enzymes and transporters. receptor agonists can be direct and control ion channel opening or closing or by [blank_start]transduction mechanism[blank_end], which is where the follwoing can occur: enzymes are activated or inactivated, ion channel modulation and DNA transcription. They act on ion channels as blockers where permeation is blocked or as [blank_start]modulators[blank_end] where there is increased or decreased opening probability. Enzymes are targeted by inhibitors, [blank_start]false substrates[blank_end] which case a abnormal metabolites to be produced or by [blank_start]prodrugs[blank_end] which cause active drugs to be produced. lastly they act on transporters by normal transport, inhibition and [blank_start]false substrates[blank_end]
- Atransduction mechanism
- Bmodulators
- Cfalse substrates
- Dprodrugs
- Efalse substrates
27what are the 4 receptor superfamilies
- Aligand gated ion channels
- Bkinase linked receptors
- Cphosphate linked receptros
- DATP controlled receptors
- EG-protein coupled receptors
- Fnucleur receptors
- Gplasma membrane receptors
- HAMP controlled receptors
281) a action potential in a motor neuron is propagated to the axon terminal
2) this local action potential tiggers the opening of voltage gated [blank_start]calcium[blank_end] ion channels, and [blank_start]calcium[blank_end] flood the terminal bulb
3) [blank_start]calcium[blank_end] triggers the release of [blank_start]Ach[blank_end] by [blank_start]exocytosis[blank_end] from its vesicles
4) [blank_start]Ach[blank_end] diffuses across the [blank_start]synapse[blank_end] and binds to receptors on the motor end plate of the muscle cell membrane
5) binding opens the non specific cation channels, leading to a large movement of [blank_start]sodium[blank_end] ions into the cell and a smaller amount of [blank_start]potassium[blank_end] ions out of the cell
6) the result is end plate potential. [blank_start]local[blank_end] currents flow between the depolarised end plate and the adjacent membrane
7) [blank_start]local[blank_end] current flow opens voltage gated [blank_start]sodium[blank_end] ion channels in the adjacent membrane
8) [blank_start]sodium[blank_end] ion entry decreases potential to threshold, initiating a action potential which is propagated throughout the muscle fibre
9) [blank_start]Ach[blank_end] is broken down by [blank_start]acetylcholinesterase[blank_end]- Acalcium
- Bcalcium
- Ccalcium
- DAch
- Eexocytosis
- FAch
- Gsynapse
- Hsodium
- Ipotassium
- Jlocal
- Klocal
- Lsodium
- Msodium
- NAch
- Oacetylcholinesterase
29the resting membrane potential is when a difference of -60 mv in electrical charge across the membrane exits
- ATrue
- BFalse
30contraction of muscles:
1) [blank_start]somatic[blank_end] motor neurons release [blank_start]Ach[blank_end] at the neuromuscular junction
2) net entry of [blank_start]sodium[blank_end] ions through [blank_start]Ach[blank_end] receptor channels [blank_start]inhibit[blank_end] a muscle action potential
3) an action potential in the T-tubule alters conformation of DHP receptors
4) DHP receptors opens, and [blank_start]calcium[blank_end] ion channels in the sarcoplasmic reticulum allow the entry of [blank_start]calcium[blank_end] ions into the cytoplam
5) [blank_start]calcium[blank_end] ions bind to [blank_start]troponin[blank_end] allowing strong actin myosin binding
6) the power stroke then occurs
7) [blank_start]actin[blank_end] filaments slide towards the centre of the [blank_start]sarcomere[blank_end]- Asomatic
- BAch
- Csodium
- DAch
- Einhibit
- Fcalcium
- Gcalcium
- Htroponin
- Icalcium
- Jactin
- Ksarcomere
31what is the best definition for isometric contraction
- Awhen the muscle actively maintains a contraction
- Bwhen the muscle actively shortens
- Cwhen the muscle actively lengthens
- Dwhen the muscle actively relaxes
32what best describes concentric contraction
- Awhen the muscle actively maintains a contraction
- Bwhen a muscle maintains a relaxation
- Cwhen the muscle actively shortens
- Dwhen the muscle actively lengthens
33what best describes ecentric contraction
- Awhen the muscle actively maintains a contraction
- Bwhen the muscle actively maintains a relaxation
- Cwhen a muscle actively shortens
- Dwhen a muscle actively lengthens
34ligaments join bone to bone
- ATrue
- BFalse
35what is the correct order of muscle development
- A1) myotome 2) myogenic precursor cells 3)myoblast 4) proliferation and elongation 5)myotube 6) myofibril
- B1) myotome 2) myogenic precursor cells 3)myoblast 4) proliferation and elongation 5)myofibril 6) myotubel
- C1) myofibril 2) myogenic precursor cells 3)myoblast 4) proliferation and elongation 5)myotube 6) myotome
- D1) myotome 2) myogenic precursor cells 3)myoblast 4) myotube 5) myofibril 6) proliferation and elongation
36tendons join bone to bone
- ATrue
- BFalse
37myotomes are a group of muscles innervated by a single spinal nerve
- ATrue
- BFalse
38an area of skin innervated by a group of nerves
- ATrue
- BFalse
39what actions do the myotomes C1 and C2 control
- Acervical flexion which is touching the chin to the chest
- Bcervical side flexion which is touching the ear to the shoulder
- Cshoulder elevation which is the shrugging motion
- Dshoulder abduction which is raising both arms in the air
40what actions do the myotomes C3 control
- Acervical side flexion which is touching the chin to the chest
- Bcervical side flexion which is touching the ear to the shoulder
- Cshoulder elevation which is a shrugging motion
- Dshoulder abduction which is raising both arms in the air
41what actions do the myotomes C4 control
- Acervical flexion which is touching the chin to the chest
- Bcervical side flexion which is touching the ear to the shoulder
- Cshoulder elevation which is the shrugging motion
- Dshoulder abduction which is raising the arms in the air
42what actions do the myotomes C5 control
- Acervical flexion which is touching the chin to the chest
- Bcervical side flexion which is touching the ear to the shoulder
- Cshoulder elevation which is the shrugging motion
- Dshoulder abduction which is raising both arms in the air
43what actions do the myotomes C6 control
- Aelbow flexion and wrist extension which forms the stop sign
- Belbow extension and wrist flexion which is bending the wrist downwards
- Cthumb extension which is a thumbs up
- Dfinger abduction and adduction which is spreading fingers apart and squeezing them together
44what actions do the myotomes C7 control
- Aelbow flexion and wrist extension which forms the stop sign
- Belbow extension and wrist flexion which forms a wrist bending downwards
- Cthumb extension which is a thumbs up
- Dfinger abduction and adduction which is spreading fingers apart and squeezing them together
45what actions do the myotomes C8 control
- Aelbow flexion and wrist extension which forms a stop sign
- Belbow extension and wrist flexion which forms the wrist bending down
- Cthumb extension which is a thumbs up
- Dfinger abduction and adduction which is spreading the fingers apart and squeezing them together
46what actions does the T1 myotome control
- Afinger abduction and adduction that causes the spreading of fingers apart and squeezing them together
- Bthumb extension which provides the thumbs up
- Celbow flexion and wrist extension that causes the stop sign
- Delbow extension and wist flexion that causes the wrist to bent downwards
47what actions does the L1,L2 myotome control
- Ahip flexion which causes the knee to be pulled towards the chest
- Bknee extension which causes the straightening of the lower leg so its in line with the upper leg
- Cankle dorsiflexion which is putting the foot upwards towards the lower leg and flexing the toes
- Dbig toe extension which is sticking the big toe up in the air
48what does the L3 myotome control
- Aknee extension which causes the straightening of the lower leg so its in line with the upper leg
- Bhip flexion which causes the knee to be pulled in towards the chest
- Cankle dorsiflexion which is putting the foot upwards towards the lower leg and flexing the toes
- Dbig toe extension which is sticking the big toe up in the air
49what actions does the L4 myotome control
- Aknee extension which causes the straightening of the lower leg so its in line with the upper leg
- Bhip flexion which is pulling the knee towards the chest
- Cankle dorsiflexion which is putting the foot upwards towards the lower leg and flexing the toes
- Dbig toe extension which is sticking the big toe up in the air
50what actions does the L5 myotome control
- Aknee extension which causes the straightening of the lower leg so its in line with the upper leg
- Bknee extension which is straightening the lower leg so it is in line with the upper leg
- Cankle dorsiflexion which is putting the foot upwards towards the lower leg and flexing the toes
- Dbig toe extension which is sticking the big toe up in the air
51what actions are controlled by the S1 myotome
- Aankle dorsiflexion which is putting the foot upwards towards the lower leg and flexing the toes
- Bbig toe extension which is where the big toe is stuck out
- Cankle plantar flexion which is planting the toe downwards, straightening the foot so its in line with the lower leg
- Dknee flexion which is where the heel of the foot moves towards the buttocks
52what actions does the S2 myotome control
- Aankle dorsiflexion which is putting the foot upwards towards the lower leg and flexing the toes
- Bbig toe extension which is where the big toe sticks out in the air
- Cankle plantar flexion which is where planting the toes downwards and straightening the foot so its in line with the lower leg
- Dknee flexion which is where the heel of the foot moves towards the buttocks
53which of these form the axial skeleton
- Askull
- Bsternum
- Cvertebrae
- Dsacrum
- Eribs
- Flimb bones
- Gpelvis
- Hclavicle
- Iscapula
54which of these bones form the appendicular skeleton
- Askull
- Bsternum
- Cveterbrae
- Dsacrum
- Eribs
- Flimb bones
- Gpelvis
- Hclavicle
- Iscapula
55what are the 3 layers of somites
- Adermatome
- Bmyotome
- Cscleratome
- Dendoderm
- Emesoderm
- Fectoderm
56the [blank_start]scleratome[blank_end] helps develop the [blank_start]axial[blank_end] skeleton and the lateral plate [blank_start]mesoderm[blank_end] helps develop the bones and cartilage of the [blank_start]appendicular[blank_end] skeleton
- Ascleratome
- Baxial
- Cmesoderm
- Dappendicular
57which of these best describe the function of osteoblasts
- Asynthesize bone matrix
- Breabsorb and turnover bone
- Cactivate bone formation via altered signalling and apoptosis
- Dengulf invading cells
58what best describes the function of an osteoblast
- Asynthesize bone matrix
- Breabsorb and turnover bone
- Cactivate bone formation via altered signalling and apoptosis
- Dengulf recycled red blood cells
59what best describes the function of an osteoclast
- Asynthesize bone matrix
- Breabsorb and turnover bone
- Cactivate bone formation via altered signalling and apoptosis
- Dengulf old red blood cells
60what best describes the function of an osteocyte
- Asynthesize bone matrix
- Breabsorb and turnover bone
- Cactivate bone formation via altered signalling and apoptosis
- Dengulf old red blood cells
61which of the following is true for endochondrial ossification
- Aforms the bones seen in the appendicular skeleton
- Bforms flat bones of the skull, most of the cranial bones along with the clavicle
- Cbone formed over the scaffold of hyaline cartilage
- Ddirect conversion from mesenchymal tissue
- Eoccurs from fetal development until adolescence
- Flong bone formation
62which of the following is true for intramembranous ossification
- Aforms the bones of the appendicular skeleton
- Bbones formed over the scaffold of hyaline cartilage
- Clong bone formation
- Dflat bones of the skull, most of the cranial bones along with the clavicle
- Edirect conversion of mesenchymal tissue
- Foccurs from fetal development until adolescence
63intramembranous ossification:
1) differentiation of [blank_start]mesenchymal[blank_end] cells in embryonic skeleton
2) spreading out of the cells by formation of tissue and bone. Early [blank_start]osteoblasts[blank_end] cluster at the ossification centre
3) [blank_start]osteoblasts[blank_end] secrete [blank_start]osteoids[blank_end] that calcifies and traps them
4) once trapped they become [blank_start]osteocytes[blank_end] and osteogenic cells surrounding turn into [blank_start]osteoblasts[blank_end]
5) [blank_start]osteoids[blank_end] secreted around the capillaries form the [blank_start]trabecular[blank_end] matrix
6) [blank_start]osteoblasts[blank_end] on the surface of the spongy bone become the [blank_start]periosteum[blank_end]
7) this forms a protective layer of compact bone superficial to the [blank_start]trabecular[blank_end] bone
8) this crowds nearby blood vessels that condense into [blank_start]red[blank_end] marrow- Aosteoblasts
- Bosteoblasts
- Costeoids
- Dosteocytes
- Eosteoblasts
- Fosteoids
- Gtrabecular
- Hosteoblasts
- Iperiosteum
- Jtrabecular
- Kred
- Lmesenchymal
64endochondrial ossification:
1) some [blank_start]mesenchymal[blank_end] tissue turns into [blank_start]chondrocytes[blank_end] that form cartilaginous skeletal precursor
2) [blank_start]perichondrium[blank_end] appears as more of the matrix is produced and [blank_start]chondrocytes[blank_end] in the centre of the cartilaginous model increase in size
3) matrix calcifies and [blank_start]chondrocytes[blank_end] die
4) blood vessels invade space which enlarge cavities
5) [blank_start]osteoblasts[blank_end] form from osteogenic cells
6) the enlarging spaces eventually form the medullary cavity
7) penetration of cartilage by capillaries initiates transformation of [blank_start]perichondrium[blank_end] into [blank_start]periosteum[blank_end]
8) [blank_start]osteoblasts[blank_end] from a periosteal collar of compact bone around the cartilage of the [blank_start]diaphysis[blank_end]
9) [blank_start]primary[blank_end] ossification centre forms
10) [blank_start]chondrocytes[blank_end] and cartilage grow, which increases the length of bone, bone replaces cartilage at the [blank_start]diaphysis[blank_end]
11) cartilage only remains at the joint surface as [blank_start]articular[blank_end] cartilage and between the [blank_start]diaphysis[blank_end] and [blank_start]epiphysis[blank_end] as the [blank_start]epiphyseal[blank_end] growth plate
12) [blank_start]epiphyseal[blank_end] regions and the centers reform into the [blank_start]secondary[blank_end] ossification centre- Amesenchymal
- Bchondrocytes
- Cperichondrium
- Dchondrocytes
- Echondrocytes
- Fosteoblasts
- Gperichondrium
- Hperiosteum
- Iosteoblasts
- Jdiaphysis
- Kprimary
- Ldiaphysis
- Mchondrocytes
- Narticular
- Odiaphysis
- Pepiphysis
- Qepiphyseal
- Repiphyseal
- Ssecondary
65which of these best describe the reserve zone in a bone
- ARegion closes to the epiphyseal end and contains small chondrocytes in matrix. They do not participate in bone growth but secure epiphyseal plate to the osseous tissue of the epiphysis
- BContains slightly larger chondrocytes, it makes new chondrocytes via mitosis to replace those that die at the diaphyseal end of the plate
- COlder and larger chondrocytes, the more mature ones are situated closer to the diaphyseal end, bone growth is due to cellular division and maturation of cells
- DChondrocytes are dead because the surrounding matrix has calcified and capillaries along with osteoblasts penetrate this zone. Osteoblasts secrete bone tissue on the remaining calcified cartilage connecting the epiphyseal plate and the diaphysis
66which of these best describe the proliferative zone in a bone
- AChondrocytes are dead because the surrounding matrix has calcified and capillaries along with osteoblasts penetrate this zone. Osteoblasts secrete bone tissue on the remaining calcified cartilage connecting the epiphyseal plate and the diaphysis
- BOlder and larger chondrocytes, the more mature ones are situated closer to the diaphyseal end, bone growth is due to cellular division and maturation of cells
- CContains slightly larger chondrocytes, it makes new chondrocytes via mitosis to replace those that die at the diaphyseal end of the plate
- DRegion closes to the epiphyseal end and contains small chondrocytes in matrix. They do not participate in bone growth but secure epiphyseal plate to the osseous tissue of the epiphysis
67which of these best describe the zone of maturation and hypertrophy in a bone
- ARegion closes to the epiphyseal end and contains small chondrocytes in matrix. They do not participate in bone growth but secure epiphyseal plate to the osseous tissue of the epiphysis
- BContains slightly larger chondrocytes, it makes new chondrocytes via mitosis to replace those that die at the diaphyseal end of the plate
- COlder and larger chondrocytes, the more mature ones are situated closer to the diaphyseal end, bone growth is due to cellular division and maturation of cells
- DChondrocytes are dead because the surrounding matrix has calcified and capillaries along with osteoblasts penetrate this zone. Osteoblasts secrete bone tissue on the remaining calcified cartilage connecting the epiphyseal plate and the diaphysis
68which of these best describe the zone of calcified matrix in a bone
- AChondrocytes are dead because the surrounding matrix has calcified and capillaries along with osteoblasts penetrate this zone. Osteoblasts secrete bone tissue on the remaining calcified cartilage connecting the epiphyseal plate and the diaphysis
- BOlder and larger chondrocytes, the more mature ones are situated closer to the diaphyseal end, bone growth is due to cellular division and maturation of cells
- CContains slightly larger chondrocytes, it makes new chondrocytes via mitosis to replace those that die at the diaphyseal end of the plate
- DRegion closes to the epiphyseal end and contains small chondrocytes in matrix. They do not participate in bone growth but secure epiphyseal plate to the osseous tissue of the epiphysis
69bones grow in length due to the fact that osseous tissue is added to the diaphysis
- ATrue
- BFalse
70Bone remodeling:
the first stage is called [blank_start]resorption[blank_end] and in this stage [blank_start]osteoblasts[blank_end] attach and secrete enzymes, such as collagenases and liposomal enzymes, dissolving the bone matrix. Proteins, minerals and calcium salts all pass through the [blank_start]osteoclast[blank_end] to be excreted into [blank_start]extracellular[blank_end] space. The second stage is called [blank_start]formation[blank_end], which is where [blank_start]osteoblasts[blank_end] migrate to the hallowed out space and secrete [blank_start]osteoids[blank_end] that over time hardens and calcifies. The last stage is called [blank_start]quiescence[blank_end] and is where [blank_start]osteoblasts[blank_end] become embedded in their own matrix and become [blank_start]osteocytes[blank_end].- Aresorption
- Bosteoblasts
- Costeoclast
- Dextracellular
- Eformation
- Fosteoblasts
- Gosteoids
- Hquiescence
- Iosteoblasts
- Josteocytes
71which is true about bone modelling
- Aprocess of bone growth
- Boccurs before peak mass is achieved
- Cends at early adulthood
- Dgrowth plates are open
- Ebone responds to mechanical factors
- Fcalcium homeostasis is achieved
- Gbone is repaired
- Hgrowth plates are closed
- Ioccurs after peak mass is achieved
- Joccurs after early adulthood
72which of the following is true for bone remodelling
- Abone responds to mechanical factors
- Bcalcium homeostasis is achieved
- Cbone is repaired
- Doccurs after peak mass is achieved
- Eoccurs after early adulthood
- Fgrowth plates are closed
- Ggrowth plates are open
- Hends at early adulthood
- Ioccurs before peak mass is achieved
- Jprocess of bone growth
73osteoclast activation:
[blank_start]monocytes[blank_end] become [blank_start]osteoclasts[blank_end] when they bind to [blank_start]RANK[blank_end] ligand receptors on [blank_start]osteoblasts[blank_end]. [blank_start]OPG[blank_end] is a [blank_start]RANK[blank_end] ligand inhibitor. [blank_start]oestrogen[blank_end] is involved in producing [blank_start]OPG[blank_end]. when [blank_start]OPG[blank_end] is present [blank_start]RANK[blank_end] ligands on [blank_start]monocytes[blank_end] cannot bind to the [blank_start]RANK[blank_end] ligand receptor meaning there is decreased maturation to [blank_start]osteoclasts[blank_end] and less bone [blank_start]remodeling[blank_end]. if [blank_start]oestrogen[blank_end] levels are low for example in [blank_start]menopause[blank_end], less [blank_start]OPG[blank_end] is produced so increased [blank_start]osteoclasts[blank_end] are formed which leads to increased bone [blank_start]remodeling[blank_end] and therefore weaker bones- Amonocytes
- Bosteoclasts
- CRANK
- Dosteoblasts
- EOPG
- FRANK
- Goestrogen
- HOPG
- IOPG
- JRANK
- Kmonocytes
- LRANK
- Mosteoclasts
- Nremodeling
- Ooestrogen
- Pmenopause
- QOPG
- Rosteoclasts
- Sremodeling
74[blank_start]decreased calcium[blank_end] levels cause the [blank_start]parathyroid[blank_end] gland to secrete [blank_start]parathyroid hormone[blank_end] which causes the indirect activation of [blank_start]osteoclasts[blank_end] and bone [blank_start]reabsorption[blank_end].
[blank_start]increased calcium[blank_end] levels cause the [blank_start]thyroid[blank_end] gland to secrete [blank_start]calcitonin[blank_end] which causes less reabsorption to take place along with less absorption of calcium in the [blank_start]intestines[blank_end] and less reuptake of calcium in the [blank_start]kidneys[blank_end]- Adecreased calcium
- Bparathyroid
- Cparathyroid hormone
- Dthyroid hormone
- Eosteoclasts
- Fosteoblasts
- Gosteocytes
- Hreabsorption
- Iadsorption
- Jincreased calcium
- Kthyroid
- Lcalcitonin
- Mintestines
- Nkidneys
75which 4 of these correctly states the role of the given nerve or vessel
- Athe role of the epiphyseal artery is to supply the joint
- Bthe role of the metaphyseal artery is to supply the joint
- Cthe role of the diaphyseal artery is to supply the joint
- Dthe role of the periosteal artery is to supply the majority of compact bone
- Ethe role of the periosteal artery is to supply the majority of soft bone
- Fthe periosteal nerve is a sensory nerve that carries pain fibres
- Gthe periosteal nerve is a motor nerve that controls motor action
- Hthe perichondrial nerve is a sensory nerve that carries pain fibres
76interstitial bone growth is longitudinal growth of the bone
- ATrue
- BFalse
77appositional bone growth is longitudinal growth of the bone
- ATrue
- BFalse
78in fracture repair there are 4 stages: haematoma repair formation, fibrocartilage callus formation, bony callus formation of the trabecular bone and the healing of the fracture.
after the fracture, torn blood vessels begin to bleed and this forms a clot called a [blank_start]fracture haematoma[blank_end]. the disruption of blood flow results in cell death around the fracture. within 48 hours the [blank_start]internal callus[blank_end] formed by [blank_start]chondrocytes[blank_end] begin secreting [blank_start]fibrocartilage[blank_end] matrix between the two ends of the broken bone, while the periosteal chondrocytes and [blank_start]osteoblasts[blank_end] create an [blank_start]external[blank_end] callus of [blank_start]hyaline[blank_end] cartilage and bone, respectively, around the outside of the break. This stabilizes the fracture. Over the next several weeks, [blank_start]osteoclasts[blank_end] resorb the dead bone; [blank_start]osteogenic[blank_end] cells become active, divide, and differentiate into osteoblasts. The cartilage in the calli is replaced by [blank_start]trabecular[blank_end] bone via [blank_start]endochondral[blank_end] ossification. Eventually, the internal and external calli unite, compact bone replaces [blank_start]spongy[blank_end] bone at the outer margins of the fracture, and healing is complete- Afracture haematoma
- Binternal callus
- Cchondrocytes
- Dfibrocartilage
- Eosteoid
- Fosteoblasts
- Gexternal
- Hhyaline
- Ielastic
- Josteoclasts
- Kosteogenic
- Ltrabecular
- Mendochondral
- Nintermembranous
- Ospongy
- Pcompact
79pre fixed brachial plexus is a anatomical variation where the contributing nerve roots all move up one so that they occur from C4-C8
- ATrue
- BFalse
80post fixed brachial plexus is a anatomical variation where the contributing nerve roots all move up one so that they occur from C4-C8
- ATrue
- BFalse
81what are the 3 branches that the Roots of the brachial plexus form
- Adorsal scapular nerve
- Blong thoracic nerve
- Cfirst intercostal nerve
- Dsuprascapular nerve
- Esubscapular nerve
- Fsecond intercostal nerve
82what motor supply does the musculacutanous nerve control
- Abicep
- Bbrachials
- Ccoracobrachialis
- Dtricep
- Edeltoids
- Fforearm
83what motor supply does the axillary nerve control
- Ateres minor
- Bdeltoid
- Cteres major
- Dbicep
- Etricep
84what sensory supply does the musculacutanous nerve control
- Askin over the lateral forearm
- Bskin of the lowest part of the deltoid muscle
- Cproximal dorsal aspect of the lateral 3.5 fingers (thumb, index, middle and half of the ring finger)
- Dlateral 2/3 of palm
85what sensory supply does the axillary nerve control
- Alowest part of the deltoid muscle
- Bskin of lateral forearm
- Clateral 2/3 of palm
- Dpalmer aspect of 3.5 fingers
86what sensory supply does the radial nerve control
- Aproximal dorsal aspect of thumb
- Bproximal dorsal aspect of index finger
- Cproximal dorsal aspect of middle finger
- Dproximal dorsal aspect of half of the ring finger
- Eproximal dorsal aspect of ring finger
- Fproximal dorsal aspect of half the index finger
- Gproximal dorsal aspect of half the middle finger
87what sensory supply does the median nerve control
- Adorsal fingertip of the thumb
- Bproximal dorsal aspect of the thumb
- Cproximal dorsal aspect of the index finger
- Ddorsal fingertip of the index finger
- Eproximal dorsal aspect of the middle finger
- Fdorsal fingertip of the middle finger
- Gproximal aspect of half the ring finger
- Hdorsal fingertip of half the ring finger
88what sensory supply does the ulnar nerve control
- Adorsal aspect of the little finger
- Bproximal aspect of the little finger
- Cdorsal aspect of half the ring finger
- Dproximal aspect of half the ring finger
- Eproximal aspect of the index finger
- Fdorsal aspect of the index finger
- Gproximal aspect of half the middle finger
- Hdorsal aspect of half the middle finger
89the definition of haemostasis is clot formation
- ATrue
- BFalse
90stages of haemostasis:
[blank_start]vasospasm[blank_end] : the first response is initiated by pain receptors and it causes [blank_start]vasoconstriction[blank_end] to [blank_start]slow[blank_end] blood flow and [blank_start]maintain[blank_end] blood pressure in the artery, this aids in the formation of the [blank_start]platelet plug[blank_end].
platelet plug : 1) adhesion - platelets stick to exposed collagen and are made visible by damage to the tunica [blank_start]intima[blank_end]. VWF (van willebrand factor) leaks from the plasma through damaged epithelium. [blank_start]VWF[blank_end] binds to collagen and microfibrils and then captures platelets, this initiates activation of the platelets.
2) activation of platelets
3) [blank_start]aggregation[blank_end] - exposed collagen fibres as well as ADP, serotonin and thromboxane A2 (TXA2) released by platelets promote aggregation and attraction of [blank_start]white[blank_end] blood cells. serotonin and [blank_start]TXA2[blank_end] promote local [blank_start]vasoconstriction[blank_end] and further aggregation
then the last stage is the [blank_start]fibrin[blank_end] clot- Avasospasm
- Bvasoconstriction
- Cslow
- Dmaintain
- Eplatelet plug
- Fintima
- GVWF
- Haggregation
- Iwhite
- JTXA2
- Kvasoconstriction
- Lfibrin
91the half life of platelets is 10-15 days
- ATrue
- BFalse
92vitamin [blank_start]K[blank_end] is important for synthesis of clotting factors in the [blank_start]liver[blank_end]. it is [blank_start]fat[blank_end] soluble and stored in fat tissue. it is found in green leafy vegetables, vegetable oils and cereals. K1 found in meat and eggs are synthesized by gut bacteria into K2
- AK
- Bliver
- Cfat
93anticlotting systems:
anti thrombin (III) is a potent [blank_start]inhibitor[blank_end] of coagulation and inactivates [blank_start]thrombin[blank_end]. its activity is enhanced by [blank_start]heparin[blank_end] which is normally present in [blank_start]endothelial[blank_end] cells. both block active factors IX-XIII. antithrombin deficiency is a rare heridatory disease that generally occurs from people who suffer recurrent venous thrombosis and pulmonary embolisms. endothelial cells also express thrombomodulin (TM) that can bind to [blank_start]thrombin[blank_end], this eliminates it coagulant effects and also activates protein C from [blank_start]vitamin K[blank_end] dependent precursors.- Ainhibitor
- Bthrombin
- Cheparin
- Dendothelial
- Ethrombin
- Fvitamin K
94black and blue marks are due to deoxygenated and clotted blood within the skin
- ATrue
- BFalse
95what color is bruising with a high presence of hemoglobin associated with
- Ared/blue
- Bgreen
- Cyellow
- Dgolden brown
96what color is bruising with a high presence of biliverdin associated with
- Ared/blue
- Bgreen
- Cyellow
- Dgolden brown
97what color is bruising with a high presence of bilirubin associated with
- Ared/blue
- Bgreen
- Cyellow
- Dgolden brown
98what colour is associated with bruising due to hemosiderin
- Ared/blue
- Bgreen
- Cyellow
- Dgolden brown
99complete the diagram
- Aacromion
- Bclavicle
- Cglenoid
- Dhumerus
- Ecaracoid process
100complete the diagram
- Amedial epicondyle
- Btrochlea
- Clateral epicondyle
- Dcapitellum
- Eradial head
101complete the diagram
- Ainguinal ligament
- Bround ligament
- Csuperficial femoral artery
- Ddeep femoral artery
- Ecommon iliac artery
- Finternal iliac artery
- Gexternal iliac artery
- Hcommon femoral artery
102complete the image
- Atibia
- Bfibula
- Cfemur
- Dpopliteal artery
- Egraniculate arteries
- Fanterior tibial artery
- Gposterior tibial artery
- Hperoneal artery
103select the correct answer
- Abrachial artery
- Banterior+posterior circumflex arteries
- Caxillary artery
- Dright subclavian artery
104complete the question
- Aarticular cartilage
- Bepiphyseal line
- Cspongy bone
- Dcompact bone
- Enutrient foramen
- Fendosteum
- Gmedullary cavity
- Hperiosteum
- Idiaphysis
- Jepiphysis
- Kmetaphysis
105the epiphyseal growth plates are located in the epiphysis of the bone
- ATrue
- BFalse
106complete the image
- Abranches
- Bcords
- Cdivisions
- Dtrunks
- Eroots
- Fmusculocutanous
- Gulnar
- Hmedial
- Iinferior
- JC8
- KT1
- Lradial
- Mmedian
- Nposterior
- Omiddle
- PC7
- Qlateral
- Rsuperior
- SC6
- TC5
- Uaxillary
107complete the question
- Aintrinsic
- Bextrinsic
- CXII
- DXIIa
- EXI
- FXIa
- GIX
- HIXa
- Icalcium ion and IV
- JVIIIa, calcium ions and PF3
- KX
- LXa
- MVII
- NVIIa
- OVa, calcium ions and PF3
- Pprothrombin (II)
- QThrombin (IIa)
- RFibrinogen (I)
- Sfibrin (Ia)
- Tcross linked fibrin clot
- UXIIIa
108complete the image
- Ahumerus
- Bradius
- Culnar
109complete the diagram
- Ascaphoid
- Btrapezium
- Ctrapeziod
- Dcapitate
- Elunate
- Ftriquetrum
- Gpisiform
- Hhamate
- I5th metacarpal
- J5th proximal phalanx
- K5th middle phalanx
- L5th distil phalanx
- M1st metacarpal
- N1st proximal phalanx
- O1st distil phalanx
- Pulnar
- Qradius
110compete the question
- Atransverse carpal
- Binverse carpal
- Cproximal carpel
- Dmedian
- Eradial
- Fulnar
111complete the image
- Atibia
- Bfibula
- Cfemur
112complete the question
- Afibula
- Btibia
- Ctalus
- Dcalcaneus
- Ecuboid
- Ftarsal-metatarsal joints
- Gmetatarsal-phalangeal joints
- Hphalanges
- Imetatarsal
- Jcuneiforms
- Knavicular
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- Quiz on childhood, created by David alibhai on 16/03/2019.
- Author
- David alibhai
- Language
- English
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