Materials and Methods Final Exam Review

1. 1We discussed a number of ways to pay for construction services. Which one involved paying the general contractor a fixed dollar amount to complete the construction project?

   1. ACost plus a fee
   2. BLump sum
   3. CConstruction Manager
   4. DDesign/build
2. 2Prior to 2000, the three model building codes most prevalent in the United States were…
   
   

   1. ANational, Uniform, and Standard
   2. BNational, Basic, and Standard
   3. CNational, International, and Basic
   4. DUniform, Basic, and Standard
3. 3We discussed a number of ways to pay for construction services. Which one is the best fit for projects where the scope of work is not fully known at the time compensation is established?
   
   

   1. ADesign/build
   2. BLump sum
   3. CCost plus a fee
   4. DCMAR
4. 4LEED recognizes four levels of sustainable design; Certified, Silver, Gold, and Diamond.
   
   

   1. Atrue
   2. Bfalse
5. 5In the _________________ project delivery method, work does not begin until all design work is complete.

   1. Adesign/bid/build
   2. Bdesign/build
   3. CCMAR
   4. Dfast track
6. 6A _____________________ code requirement contains detailed information, is simpler to implement, and provides certainty for designers and builders.

   1. Aperformance
   2. Bprescriptive
   3. Cdescriptive
   4. Dfunctioning
7. 7Which statement below is correct? In the MasterFormat System…
   
   

   1. Aconstruction materials and systems are organized into 50 primary divisions
   2. BDivision 31 is related to earthwork
   3. CDivision 02 is related to existing conditions
   4. DDivision 04 is masonry
   5. EDivision 05 is metals
   6. FAll are correct.
8. 8Which statement below is correct regarding the construction manager project delivery method?
   
   

   1. AIt is best suited for simple, straight forward projects
   2. BThe CM is involved in the project prior to construction
   3. CThe CM has very limited influence on the project
   4. DIt eliminates the need for contractual agreements
9. 9Caroline Ask with the City of College Station recommended several “best management practices” related to stormwater management. One BMP was a designated concrete washout area. What is the primary reason for containing concrete washout on the project site?

   1. AConcrete contains a high sodium content
   2. BConcrete contains a low sodium content
   3. CConcrete has a high pH level
   4. DConcrete has a low pH level
10. 10The term construction documents, as used in the textbook, refers to…
    
    

    1. Adrawings and specifications
    2. Bdrawings only
    3. Cspecifications only
    4. Dnone of the above.

11. 11________ is a voluntary rating system administered by the U.S. Green Building Council.
    
    

    1. ALEED
    2. BLEAD
    3. CUSDA
    4. DUSSG
    5. ELEAN
12. 12In the __________________ project delivery method, the owner contracts with a single entity throughout the project.
    
    

    1. ADesign/build
    2. BDesign/bid/build
    3. CHard bid
    4. Dcost plus
13. 13According to the IBC, Type V construction is more fire resistant than Type I construction.
    
    

    1. Atrue
    2. Bfalse
14. 14Which type of excavation support leaves the excavation area totally free of obstructions?
    
    

    1. ACrosslot bracing
    2. BTiebacks
    3. CRakers
    4. Dnone of the above.
15. 15The information gained through subsurface exploration and laboratory testing is summarized in a written…
    
    

    1. Ageotechnical report
    2. Btest boring
    3. Cload test
    4. Dcompaction test report
16. 16The maximum allowable slope of an excavation where the material is stable is called the “angle of repose”.

    1. Atrue
    2. Bfalse
17. 17Which of these loads are typically considered when designing a building’s foundation?

    1. AWeight of furnishings
    2. BRoof weight
    3. CLateral soil pressure on basement walls
    4. Dall of the above
18. 18As it relates to subsurface exploration, the water table is…
    
    

    1. Athe elevation at which the soil is fully saturated with groundwater
    2. Bnot typically identified in a geotechnical report
    3. Cdetermined by a “load” test
    4. Ddetermined after construction is complete
19. 19Which type of soil is typically removed and stockpiled on site before construction begins and used for lawns and landscaping later?

    1. Atop soil
    2. Bbottom soil
    3. Cclay
    4. Dselect-fill
20. 20In what area of the country would you most likely find base isolators included as part of the foundation design?
    
    

    1. ASouthern California
    2. BCentral Texas
    3. CNew England
    4. DNorth Florida
21. 21The structural live load on a building includes…
    
    

    1. Aroofing material
    2. Bfurniture
    3. Cflooring material
    4. Dall of the above
22. 22A best management practice for preventing stormwater pollution is to provide a designated entrance to the project site.
    
    

    1. Atrue
    2. Bfalse
23. 23Which type of pile is typically “driven to refusal”?
    
    

    1. AEnd-bearing pile
    2. BFriction pile
    3. CDrilled pier
    4. DNone of the above
24. 24Which type of pier is constructed solely with crushed rock?
    
    

    1. AGravel-bearing
    2. BPrecast concrete
    3. CRammed aggregate
    4. DCaisson
25. 25Which type of pile is not hammered into the ground?
    
    

    1. AConcrete
    2. BSteel
    3. CTimber
    4. DHelical
26. 26When filling or backfilling soil on a construction site, lifts can be compacted by…
    
    

    1. Aheavy driven machinery over large areas
    2. Bsmall, walk-behind compactors for confined areas
    3. Cboth answers above
    4. Dcompaction is not required for lifts
27. 27One side of a building’s foundation rests on clay and the other side rests on a dense sand/gravel blend. If foundation settlement occurs, it would most likely be:
    
    

    1. Auniform settlement
    2. Bsandy-clay settlement
    3. Cdifferential settlement
    4. Dclay sand settlement
28. 28Contractors are required to create, post, and monitor a(n) _____________ that describes how storm water and erosion will be addressed on the construction site.

    1. ASWPPP
    2. BSWPPPP
    3. CSWPP
    4. DAHJPPP
29. 29Other conditions being constant, what is the relationship between the water/cement ratio and the strength of concrete?
    
    

    1. Aas water-cement ratio increases, strength decreases
    2. Bas water-cement ratio increases, strength increases
    3. Cas water-cement ratio increases, strength remains constant
    4. Das water-cement ratio increases, strength varies and cannot be predicted
30. 30If the specified overlap for reinforcing bars is 40 bar diameters, how long would the splice be for a #4 rebar?
    
    

    1. A16 inches
    2. B18 inches
    3. C20 inches
    4. D160 inches
31. 31A slump test is performed on concrete mix to determine…
    
    

    1. Athe compressive strength of concrete
    2. Bthe location of reinforcing steel in concrete
    3. Cthe workability/consistency of concrete
    4. Dthe water/cement ratio of concrete
32. 32According to the IRC, the minimum allowed yield strength of steel reinforcement (rebar) is…
    
    

    1. A30,000 psi (Grade 30)
    2. B40,000 psi (Grade 40)
    3. C60,000 psi (Grade 60)
    4. D75,000 psi (Grade 75)
33. 33If you suspect the concrete will be in contact with water that has a high concentration of sulphates, which type of Portland cement would be the best choice for the mix?

    1. AType I
    2. BType III
    3. CType IV
    4. DType V
    5. EType II
34. 34What is the name of the chemical process that causes concrete to harden?
    
    

    1. ADehydration
    2. BEvaporation
    3. CConsolidation
    4. DHydration
35. 35Fly ash, accelerators, retarders, superplasticizers, and air entrainment are added to concrete mix to:

    1. Aalter the concrete’s properties in different ways
    2. Bincrease strength
    3. Cincrease resistance to cracking
    4. Dincrease abrasion resistance
36. 36Which one of the following would not be provided by a marking on steel rebar?
    
    

    1. AProducing mill
    2. BRebar size
    3. CRebar length
    4. DType of steel
37. 37When is the compressive strength of concrete samples typically tested?
    
    

    1. Aafter 7 days of curing
    2. Bafter 7 and 28 days of curing
    3. Cafter 10 and 30 days of curing
    4. Dafter 14 days of curing
38. 38“Concrete” is addressed in which MasterFormat Division?
    
    

    1. Adivision 1
    2. Bdivision 2
    3. Cdivision 3
    4. Ddivision 4
    5. Edivision 5
    6. Fdivision 6
39. 39To prevent segregation of the coarse aggregate when placing concrete, it should not be…

    1. Amoved horizontally for long distances
    2. Bvibrated excessively
    3. Callowed to free fall without the use of dropchutes
    4. DAll the above
40. 40Unreinforced concrete has no useful _____________ strength.
    
    

    1. Astructural
    2. Bcompressive
    3. Ctensile
    4. Dworking
41. 41Concrete is typically measured, ordered, and priced by the…
    
    

    1. Atruck load
    2. Bcubic foot
    3. Ccubic yard
    4. Dsquare foot
42. 42Providing control joints in a concrete slab prevents shrinkage cracking.
    
    

    1. Atrue
    2. Bfalse
43. 43Which type of concrete finish would be the best choice for a sidewalk when a slip-resistant surface is desired?

    1. ASlick finish
    2. BBroom finish
    3. CMop finish
    4. DNone of the above
44. 44A control joint in a four-inch thick concrete slab-on-grade should be a minimum of…

    1. A1/2 inch deep
    2. B1 inch deep
    3. C1-1/2 inches deep
    4. D2 inches deep
45. 45A ____________ is a layer of crushed rock or gravel placed below a concrete slab on grade to keep moisture away from the underside of the slab.

    1. Avapor barrier
    2. Bdrainage break
    3. Ccapillary break
    4. Dmoisture barrier
46. 46Where would a snap tie be used on a construction site?

    1. Ain a concrete slab on grade
    2. Bin a structural suspended slab
    3. Cin a concrete wall form
    4. Din a drilled pier
47. 47When finishing a concrete slab on grade, what comes directly before floating?
    
    

    1. Atroweling
    2. Bforming the slab
    3. Cinstalling the rebar
    4. Dstrike-off
48. 48What is this?

    

    1. ATrowel Tool
    2. BBull Float Tool
    3. CDarby Finishing Tool
    4. DBroom Finish Tool
49. 49Which one of the following statements is not true for CDX plywood?
    
    

    1. Ait has a “C” grade face
    2. Bit has a “D” grade face
    3. Cit has a smooth, paintable surface and is often used where appearance is important
    4. Dit is constructed with exterior glue
50. 50If the span rating on a piece of OSB is 32/16, which one of the following statements is correct?

    

    1. Athe maximum spacing of supports is 32 inches if used as wall sheathing
    2. Bthe maximum spacing of supports is 32 inches if used as roof decking
    3. Cthe maximum spacing of studs is 16 inches if used in SIPs
    4. DOSB is not available with a span rating
51. 51A piece of nominal 2 x 6 framing lumber is shown in cross section below. The actual measured perimeter of the cross section is…

    1. A8"
    2. B12"
    3. C14"
    4. D16"
52. 52Which of the following is not true for plainsawn lumber?

    1. AIt is commonly used for framing
    2. BIt is commonly used for finish flooring, interior trim, and fine furniture
    3. CIt produces maximum yield and therefore greatest economy
    4. DIt requires the least repositioning of the log during sawing
53. 53LVL, PSL, and LSL are all types of...
    
    

    1. Achemical treatments for wood
    2. Bgrade stamps used on plywood
    3. Cbricks
    4. Dstructural composite lumber products
54. 54If a piece of lumber is stamped “KD-19”, which of the following statements is true?

    1. AThe moisture content of the wood will never be more than 19%
    2. BThe lumber was seasoned in a kiln to a moisture content of 19%
    3. CThe wood is free of defects (knots and indications of insect damage)
    4. DThe lumber was surfaced when in a seasoned condition
55. 55Which wood-species statement is true?
    
    

    1. AHardwoods are always harder than softwoods
    2. BSoftwoods typically come from broad-leafed trees
    3. CSoftwoods have a simple and uniform microstructure
    4. DHardwoods are commonly used for framing
56. 56Plywood can be chemically treated to make it fireproof.
    
    

    1. Atrue
    2. Bfalse
57. 57As discussed in class, waterborne salts are associated with...
    
    

    1. Awood preservatives
    2. Bproduction of OSB
    3. Cnail coatings designed to prevent corrosion
    4. Dfloor planking used in heavy timber construction
58. 58To improve absorption, lumber may be punctured with an array of cuts on the surface called incising before the chemical preservative treatment is applied.

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
59. 59If a piece of lumber is stamped S-DRY, which of the following statements is true?

    1. Athe moisture content of the lumber will never be more than 19%
    2. Bthe wood is OSB
    3. Cthe lumber is free of defects (knots and indications of insect damage)
    4. Dthe piece of lumber was surfaced when in a seasoned condition
60. 60A heavy timber building (IBC Type IV Construction) is primarily fire-protected by…
    
    

    1. Aadding paint-on fire protection to the wood members
    2. Bspecifying wood only for nonstructural elements
    3. Cusing only dense wood species
    4. Dusing a minimum size cross-section for structural members such as columns and beams
61. 61In mass timber buildings, building services such as piping and wiring...
    
    

    1. Acan be routed within channels
    2. Bcan be concealed behind a finished wall or drop ceiling
    3. Ccan be left exposed
    4. DAll the above
62. 62Beams used in Heavy Timber construction are sometimes firecut. This is done to...

    1. Aallow air circulation at the beam’s end in an effort to reduce moisture decay
    2. Ballow the beam to freely rotate out of the supporting wall in a fire event
    3. Censure that columns stay plumb
    4. Dmitigate the effects of wood shrinkage
63. 63Which type of factory housing is designed to comply with the building code in effect where the home will be located and is transported on a flat-bed tractor-trailer?

    1. AMobile
    2. BModular
    3. CManufactured
    4. DNone of the above
64. 64Lateral force resistance in wood-framed construction prevents a structure from…
    
    

    1. Asliding
    2. Boverturning
    3. Cwracking
    4. DAll the above
65. 65A significant benefit of using floor trusses instead of solid wood (e.g., 2”x 12”) joists is…
    
    

    1. Afloor trusses allow for easier installation of building services
    2. Bfloor trusses can be installed sideways or “flat”
    3. Cfloor trusses are typically heavier than comparable joists
    4. Dfloor trusses are typically lighter than comparable joists
66. 66As discussed in class, which one of the following wood light framing techniques can be used to reduce the amount of lumber required for a project?
    
    

    1. Aplatform framing
    2. Badvanced framing
    3. Cballoon framing
    4. Deffective framing
67. 67“Bridging” in wood light frame construction is most closely associated with…
    
    

    1. Astuds
    2. Brafters
    3. Cfloor joists
    4. Dtop plates
68. 68In terms of wood light frame construction, hips and valleys are associated with…

    1. Astairs
    2. Broofs
    3. Cexterior siding
    4. Dfloor joists
69. 69In the wall insulation video that you watched in Canvas, which type of insulation material was not discussed?
    
    

    1. AChopped up newspaper
    2. BExpanding spray foam
    3. CRecycled blue jeans
    4. DChopped up tires
70. 70Which one of the following wood framing members would most likely to be pressure treated to resist decay and insects?
    
    

    1. Astud
    2. Bsill/bottom plate
    3. Cfloor joist
    4. Drafter
71. 71Anchor bolts are used in wood light frame construction to connect…
    
    

    1. Asteel beams to interior steel pipe columns
    2. Brafters to top plates
    3. Cstuds to top plates
    4. Dbottom plates to the concrete foundation
72. 72As discussed in class, why is a brick wall is washed with muriatic acid?
    
    

    1. ATo remove mortar stains
    2. BTo seal the wall
    3. CTo prepare the wall for demolition
    4. DTo remove the brick finish
73. 73When are the mortar joints in a brick wall typically tooled?
    
    

    1. AAn hour or two after laying the brick
    2. BBefore sunset
    3. CEight hours after laying the brick
    4. DImmediately after laying the brick
74. 74____________ are provided at the bottom course of brick veneer to allow moisture to escape from the wall cavity.
    
    

    1. AWeep holes
    2. BDrain vents
    3. CMoisture escape openings
    4. DRain outlets
75. 75Name the mortar types in order of decreasing strength.
    
    

    1. AM, N, S, O, K
    2. BM, S, N, O, K
    3. CK, S, N, O, M
    4. DS, N, M, O, K
76. 76why is lime is added to mortar?

    1. AIt increases strength
    2. BIt improves workability
    3. CIt is required for hydration
    4. DIt is cheaper than dirt
77. 77The low-lift method and the high-lift method are different procedures for...
    
    

    1. Alaying brick leads from corners
    2. Binstalling brick on scaffolds
    3. Cgrouting reinforced brick walls
    4. Dspanning an arch in a masonry wall
78. 78You would be least likely to see a mason’s apprentice (beginner) performing which of the following task on a jobsite?
    
    

    1. Awashing brick
    2. Blaying a lead
    3. Cinstalling brick courses between two corners
    4. Dmixing mortar
79. 79Much like concrete, admixtures such as accelerators and retarders can be added to mortar to alter its properties.
    
    

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
80. 80The effect of posttensioning a CMU wall is to put the wall in:
    
    

    1. Ahorizontal tension
    2. Bvertical shear
    3. Cvertical tension
    4. Dvertical compression
81. 81Which item below is not a type of light gauge steel framing member?
    
    

    1. AStud
    2. BJoist
    3. CTrack
    4. DTop plate
82. 82Which method below is not used to verify that the necessary bolt tension has been achieved on a slip-critical connection?
    
    

    1. ATurn-of-the-nut
    2. BSnug-tight
    3. CLoad indicator washer
    4. DTension control bolt
83. 83In very tall buildings, steel column sizes diminish as the building rises.
    
    

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
84. 84On a drawing (blueprint), a structural steel member is referred to as “W10 x 33.” This member is most likely a…
    
    

    1. Abeam
    2. Bjoist
    3. Cfooting
    4. Dreinforcement bar
85. 85Which structural steel member below is not required to be fire-protected in Type II-A construction? (Hint: Remember the “fun fact” we discussed in class)
    
    

    1. Across-bracing
    2. Bcolumn
    3. Cbeam
    4. Djoist
86. 86On a W12x26 steel member, what does the number “26” represent?
    
    

    1. Adepth in inches
    2. Bweight per linear foot
    3. Cwidth of beam in inches
87. 87Which type of structural steel connection relies on friction between the adjoining faces of the steel members to resist movement?
    
    

    1. ABearing-type
    2. BBolted
    3. CSlip-critical
    4. DSnug-tight
88. 88In a _________________ structural steel connection, the bolts need only to be installed to a snug tight condition.
    
    

    1. Abearing-type
    2. Bslip-critical
    3. Cfriction-type
    4. Dturn-of-the-nut
89. 89Which type of connection would most likely include a “coped” structural steel member?
    
    

    1. ABeam to girder connection
    2. BBeam to column connection
    3. CGirder to column connection
    4. DSlab to girder connection
90. 90Open-webbed steel joists (bar joists) are usually used in a commercial steel-framed building to support…
    
    

    1. Amasonry
    2. Bstairs
    3. Croof decks
    4. Djoist girders
91. 91Who is primarily responsible for preparing shop drawings that show connection details for structural steel components?
    
    

    1. Athe architect
    2. Bthe structural engineer
    3. Cthe fabricator
    4. Dthe erector
92. 92Wrapping a steel column with gypsum board is an example of passive fire protection.
    
    

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
93. 93On a structural steel building, you would most likely see shear studs connecting…
    
    

    1. Aa steel beam to a column
    2. Ba steel beam to a girder
    3. Ca light gauge steel stud to a steel beam
    4. Dmetal roof decking to a steel beam
94. 94The last beam is placed at the top of a steel building with a degree of ceremony. According to the textbook, which activity below could be part of the ceremony?
    
    

    1. Athrowing a “topping-out” party
    2. Battaching a small potted plant to the beam before it is lifted in place
    3. Cattaching a hard hat to the beam before it is lifted in place
    4. DAll the above
95. 95Which type of fire protection appears like paint but expands when exposed to heat and forms a thick, stable char that insulates the structural steel in a fire event?
    
    

    1. ASpray-applied fire-resistive material (SFRM)
    2. BIntumescent coating
    3. CPlaster
    4. DGypsum board
96. 96A member on a structural steel drawing is identified as “L5 x 4 x ⅜”. This member is:
    
    

    1. Aa channel
    2. Ba wide-flange beam
    3. Ca wide-flange column
    4. Dan angle
97. 97The fabricator and erector are always the same firm in structural steel construction.
    
    

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
98. 98Welded connections, properly designed and executed, are stronger than the members they join.
    
    

    1. ATrue
    2. BFalse
99. 99In light gauge steel construction, tracks are comparable to which wood framing member?

    1. ATop plates
    2. BStuds
    3. CHeaders
    4. DRafters
100. 100On a drawing (blueprint), a light gauge steel framing member is referred to as “2-800L150-43”. This member is most likely a

     1. Astud
     2. Btrack
     3. CL-header
     4. Djoist
101. 101The depth of a light gauge steel framing member with the designation 600S162-54 is ___ inches.
     
     

     1. A1 5/8
     2. B5.4
     3. C6
     4. D600
102. 102Light gauge steel framing members readily conduct heat and require special attention to thermal bridging.
     
     

     1. ATrue
     2. BFalse
103. 103In light gauge steel construction, what are “hat channels” used for?
     
     

     1. Abridging, backing, or furring
     2. Bstuds
     3. Cjoists
     4. DAll the above
104. 104On a drawing (blueprint), a building element is referred to as 600S162-54. This element is most likely a…

     1. Achannel
     2. Btrack
     3. Ccolumn
     4. Dstud
105. 105How do the light gauge steel framing members discussed in Chapter 12 differ from the heavier structural steel members discussed in Chapter 11?

     1. ALight gauge steel framing members are more susceptible to corrosion
     2. BLight gauge steel framing members are cold-rolled
     3. CLight gauge steel framing members are never produced in the United States due to environmental concerns
     4. DLight gauge steel framing members are made with steel containing a higher carbon content
106. 106As discussed in class, the most common way of fastening light gauge steel framing members is by

     1. Aself tapping screws
     2. Bbolts and nuts
     3. Cnails
     4. Dglue
107. 107In the light gauge steel framing designation “250U050-54”

     1. A250 refers to the steel strength
     2. BU designates this member as a stud
     3. C54 refers to the sheet metal thickness in mils
     4. DNone of the above
108. 108You would most likely see a breather matt installed…
     
     

     1. Aunder a single-ply membrane
     2. Bunder wood shakes
     3. Cbetween the roof deck and the roof membrane
     4. Das a vapor retarder on a low-slope roof
109. 109The term “ponding” is directly related to a phenomenon where the structural deck deflects under the weight of standing water such that progressively more water accumulates, leading to possible overloading and collapse.
     
     

     1. ATrue
     2. BFalse
110. 110The term _____________, which typically consists of crushed stone or gravel, is used to protect low-slope roofs against wind uplift, UV radiation, and physical wear such as foot traffic.
     
     

     1. Aballast
     2. Bweight
     3. CBUR
     4. Dmembrane
111. 111In a Protected Membrane Roof (PMR) system, the insulation is installed…
     
     

     1. Aabove the roof membrane
     2. Bbetween the structural deck and the roof membrane
     3. Cbelow the structural deck
     4. DNone of the above
112. 112You would most likely see a topside vent installed…
     
     

     1. Aon a low-slope roof where the insulation is installed below the structural deck
     2. Bon a low-slope roof where the insulation is installed between the structural deck and the membrane
     3. Con a low-slope roof where the insulation is installed above the membrane
     4. DAll the above
113. 113According to our discussion in class, which of these is considered a low-slope roof?

     1. AA roof with a 15% slope
     2. BA roof with a pitch of 2:12
     3. CA roof with a slope of 45 degrees
     4. DNone of the above

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Management Construction Quiz on Materials and Methods Final Exam Review, created by Tyler Warford on 13/12/2022.

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