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CHEM 430 midterm

Flora Dong Chemistry English 126 cards

Cards in this deck (126)

  1. 1What does negative potential mean and what is this maintained by?Intracellular environment negative relative to external.
    Maintained by K+ leak channel
  2. 2Name 4 clinical applications that target cell excitation as treatment approach.1. block nerve conduction as local anesthesia
    2. reduce nerve cell excitability in epilepsy
    3. reduce vascular smooth muscle tone to decrease BP
    4. suppression of aberrant excitation in cardiac arrythmia
  3. 3Why would nonexcitable cells have membrane potential? (2 reasons)1) PMF for OXPHOS
    2) active transport & cmpd uptake
  4. 4Define resting potential and action potential in the context of excitable cells.Resting potential = -70 mV, cell default membrane potential based on ion gradient on both side; excitable cells only
    Action potential = transient reversal of membrane potential
  5. 5Other than neurons, name 3 types of excitable cells and briefly describe their synapses.1) Skeletal muscle - motor neuron
    2) Gland cell - neuron
    3) Heart muscle - pacemaker via electrical synapses & worker cells
  6. 6What are the 2 forces that generate diffusion potential across membranes?Colomb force and entropy
  7. 7For K+, Cl-, Na+, Ca2+, name their relative concentration in cytosol vs. extracellular + flow dir.K+ : high intra, low extra > OUT
    Cl- : low intra, high extra > IN
    Na+ : low intra, high extra > IN
    Ca2+ : VERY low intra, high extra > in
  8. 8Which ion channel is the most regulated?Na+ channels most regulated because this controls AP
  9. 9Which channels open to make membrane potential more + ? More -?More +: NaV, CaV
    More -: Cl-, K+
  10. 10Describe how voltage-gated sodium channels sustain & spread action potential (4 stages).1) Nearby cells get depolarized
    2) Na channel open, steep influx of Na+
    3) K+ channel slowly open, repolarizes cell
    4) Na+ close
  11. 11How does voltage gated potassium channel extinguish action potential?By letting potassium out to repolarize the cell
  12. 12Differentiate between the depolarization of pacemaker vs. worker cells.Pacemaker: spontaneous drifting lead to opening of CaT, repolarized by K+ channel
    Worker: depolarization via CaL, repolarization via SLOW Kv (weird AP shape)
  13. 13How does planar lipid bilayer work?Insert purified channel to lipid bilayer
    Apply voltage & measure current across channel
  14. 14How does the patch clamp technique work?Observe channel in natural environment by using whole cell; glass pipette seals a patch of the membrane containing channel & a current is passed through to observe ion flow
  15. 15What’s the difference between fast and slow block?Fast block - blocks the active NaV conformation; reversible
    Slow block: blocks inactive state of conformation; declay channel reactivation
  16. 16How are diethylamine and phenol used to demonstrate the fast and slow block action of lidocaine on NaV channels?Diethylamine & phenol ~ to lidocaine parts
  17. 17How do Katp channels in smooth muscle cells shut down excess contraction?XS muscle contraction deplete ATP > dissociated from sulfonylurea receptors, opens Katp channels>hyperpolarize cell and prevent muscle contraction
  18. 18How do Katp channels in beta cells regulate insulin secretion? Potential drug target?Uptake of glucose makes ATP > attach to sulfonylurea receptor > close Katp > depolarize the cell > intiate Ca2+ mediated insulin release
  19. 19Name 2 types of Ca2+ channels that control striated muscle contraction & differentiate.Dihyropyridine receptor (DHPR) - L-type Ca channel
    Ryanodine Receptor (RyR) - Ca2+-activated Ca2+ channel on ER membrane
  20. 20Differentiate entry of Ca2+ in heart vs. skeletal muscle cells.In heart muscle cell, entrance of Ca2+ through DHPR is required to open RyR, which in turn induce contraction.
    In skeletal muscles, DHPR conformation change alone is enough to trigger RyR release of Ca2+ to induce contraction.
  21. 21What are transient receptor potential channels? Activators? Functions?Fxns for sensory perception
    Activated by physical stimuli and conduct multiple ions (hydrated form)
    also some ligands (ex. capsaicin)
  22. 22Briefly explain functional cycle of Na/K ATPase.1. ATP-bound, take-in 3 Na+
    2. Self-hydrolyze ATP, release 3 Na+ out
    3. Take in 2 K+
    4. Release Pi & bind ATP, release K+ in
  23. 23Name how Rb+ is used to elucidate the phosphorylation states of Na/K ATPase.Rb+ mimics K+ but plugs the channel > addition causes Na/K ATPase to deP and decrease in labeled form, which was present when there is only Na+
  24. 24Differentiate between presynaptic feedback vs. retrograde feedback.Presynaptic - neurotransmitter goes back to another receptor on presynaptic neuron to prevent release of more neurotransmitter
    Retrograde - post-synaptic neuron releases a neurotransmitter to inhibit presynap
  25. 25Name & describe two types of summation of postsynaptic potentials.Temporal - firing frequency det. AP
    Spatial - inhibitory vs. excitatory presynaptic neuron summation det. firing of post-synaptic neuron
  26. 26Name 2 major families of major neurotransmitter receptors and types under each.1. Ligand-gated channels (Cys loop, purine X receptor, glutamate)
    2. GPCR (alpha, beta, muscarinic)
  27. 27Describe how photoaffinity of TDBzcholine is used to determine the binding pocket of Ach receptors.Photoactivation of TDBzcholine forms covalent adduct with receptor > label detection = receptor adduct; fragmentation to determine exact ligand-binding site
  28. 28Draw Ach receptor function cycle – what drives the unidirection?Resting, bound > Open, bound > Inactivated bound > Inactivated, free> resting, free
    Driven by degradation of Ach neurotransmitter
  29. 29Name 2 excitatory and inhibitory receptors in cys-loop family.Ionotropic
    Excitatory: nAchR, 5-HT3 serotonin
    Inhibitory: GABAa, Glycine
  30. 30Name types of synapses for both sympathetic and parasympathetic systemSymapathetic: 1) nAChR, 2) a/B-adrenergic
    Para: 1) nAChR, 2) muscarinic
  31. 31Explain the concept of a “false transmitter”?A false transmitter inhibits the release of actual neurotransmitter from vesicle; once released from presynap, they also feedback inhibit the presynaptic neuron to further decrease activity of synapse
  32. 32How can MAO be inhibited and why is it inhibited?MAO can be inhibited via mechanism-based inhibition by forming covalent adduct.
    MAO degrades neurotransmitter from catecholamine synapse > increase life time of monoamine transmitter to treat depression
  33. 33Name 3 major types of hormone receptors.1. Nuclear receptors (steroid, thyroid)
    2. Tyrosine Kinase receptors (insulin, GH, growth factor)
    3. GPCR (ppt hormones; ep/norep)
  34. 34List the glands and the respective hormones under the control of anterior pituitary.Thyroid > T3/T4
    Adrenal gland > cortisol, aldosterone, androgens
    Testicles/ovaries > estrogen, androgens, progestins
    mammary gland > prolactin
  35. 35Illustrate regulatory patterns in the hypothalamus pituitary axis for cortisol and growth hormone.GHRH > GH > IGF-1; somatostatin inhibits GH
    CRH > ACTH > cortisol
    Both are feedback inhibition loops
  36. 36Name the hormones under the control of posterior pituitary.2 ppt hormones
    vasopressin (antidiuretic)
    oxytocin (induce labor, breastfeeding)
  37. 37Name 2 types of thyroid hormones and which is more powerful.T3 and T4
    T3 is more powerful form
  38. 38Knowing thyroid hormone induce both B-adrenergic and uncoupling protein, what will happen?B-adrenergic receptors in heart and muscle, so expect increase HR
    Uncoupling protein increase ETC activity without ATP production > increase heat prod (sweating)
  39. 39Which enzyme iodinates and couples Tyr to make thyroid hormones?Thyroid peroxidase
    (couples Tyr side chain of thyroglobulin)
  40. 40How do goiters occur and how can they be treated?Hypothyroidism > enlargement of thyroid gland. Treat via iodine supplementation
  41. 41How can hyperthyroidism result and how can they be treated?From autoantibodies against TSH-receptor/hormone-producing tumors
    Treated: 131I, thyroid peroxidase inhibitors (methimazole)
  42. 42Give the classes and major members of the steroid hormones + glands they are from.Glucocorticoid, cortisol (adrenal)
    Mineralcorticoid, aldosterone (adrenal)
    Androgens, testosterone, dihyro (testicles)
    Estrogen, estradiol/triol (ovary)
    Progestins, progesterone (ovary, placenta)
  43. 43Differentiate between transactivation vs. transrepression.Transactivation - hormone-bound nuclear receptor binds DNA seq & act as transcription factors to increase expression
    Transrepression - hormone-bound nuclear receptor binds proteins (i.e. TFs) to decrease transcription of certain genes.
  44. 44Name classes of hormones belonging to adrenal steroid hormone and functions.Glucocorticoid - metabolic regulation
    Mineralcorticoid - control of Na/K balance & elimination in kidneys
    Androgens - precursors for gonadal androgen & estrogens
  45. 45Which enzyme prevents non-specific mineralocorticoid receptor activation and how does it work?11-B-hydroxysteroid DH
    Oxidizes cortisol to cortisone to prevent them from binding MR in kidney epithelia to prevent XS retention of Na & excretion of K
  46. 46What happens if aromatase is inhibited? Use?Aromatase responsible for making estrogen from testosterone. Inhibitor useful in treating estrogen-breast cancer
  47. 47Describe the role and processes done by osteoblast.Osteoblast responsible for building bone matrix. Lays down collagen that forms fibrils, which is covered with PPi to inhibit premature Ca2+ deposition. Alk Phos. cleaves PPi and initiates bone matrix formation.
  48. 48Describe the role and processes done by osteoclast.Osteoclast breaks down bone matrix.
    Osteoclasts bind to bone matrix, seal a patch and secrete H+ that dissolves it. Ca2+ and Pi released from it then taken into blood.
  49. 49What’s the major hormone to increase bone desorption and how does it work?Parathyroid hormone (PTH)
    Released via decrease in blood [Ca2+], promotes Ca2+ retention and Pi elimination from kidneys; promotes activation of VitD
  50. 50What are the major hormones to decrease bone desporption?Calcitonin - via C cells, promotes Ca2+ & Pi deposition in the bone
    Calcitrol (VitD) - promote Ca2+ & Pi uptake via intestines; inhibit PTH secretion
    Estrogen - sustain bone matrix
  51. 51Name the long vs. short-term control of bone marix hormones.Short: PTH vs. Calcitonin
    Long: Calcitrol, estrogen
  52. 52How do bisphosphonate drugs work?Biphosphonates target osteoclasts. They resemble pyrophosphates, which are taken by osteoclasts > inhibit FPP synthesis in the cell & lead to apoptosis
    Overall prevent bone matrix resorption
  53. 53Name the 3 ways by which drugs affect their receptors1. Mode of binding: reversible/covalent
    2. Bind site: ortho vs. allosteric
    3. Fxnal effect: activation vs. inhibition
  54. 54What’s the Scatchard plot, why is it used and how do you interpret it?Semi-log graph, logged [ligand]
    n (R abundance) = y-axis, k=slope
    Straight line for 1 type receptor; curved >1 type receptor
  55. 55Illustrate reversible and covalent receptor inhibition as Y (receptor saturation) vs. [ligand].Reversible = right-shifted curve
    Covalent = vertically compressed curve
  56. 56Write equation for competitive inhibition. Why does this explain receptor occupancy curve shifts right?Y = [L]/[L] + K'
    K'>KL, so curve is right-shifted
  57. 57Write equation for covalent inhibition. Why does this explain vertical compression of receptor occupancy graph?Y =(L/L+K)(Runmod/Rtotal)
    Runmod < Rtotal, vertical compression
  58. 58Look at graph of tolazoline and phenoxybenzamine, which type of inhibition is each?Tolazoline = right shift > reversible
    Phenoxybenzamine = vertical compression > covalent
  59. 59How does phenoxybenzamine block receptors covalently?Phenoxybenzamine block a-adrenergic R via reacting with Cys side chain to form covalent adduct
  60. 60Differentiate between effect of full agonist, partial agonist, antagonist, inverse agonist and neutral antagonist wrt two state model.Full: affinity for active state, 0 for inactive
    Partial: affinity for active>inactive; partial acitivty
    Inverse: affinity for inactive> active, decrease spontaneous activity
    Neutral: affinity active = inactive; doesn't change equilibrium
  61. 61Plot dose-effect curve of two state model with reference to full & partial agonist, inverse agonist, neutral antagonist. (Y vs. [L])Full = max activity
    Partial = partial max. activity
    Inverse = decrease activity from basal
    Neutral = flat basal activity
    *Assuming receptor has some activity state w/out ligand
  62. 62Look at graphs for 5-HT1A, 5HT2B, Dopamine, what type of action is aripiprazole taking?Aripiprazole is partial agonist for 5HT1a, inverse agonist for 5 HT2b, maybe neutral antagonist for dopamine (dunno)
  63. 63Name 4 receptor behaviors not explained by 2-state model.1. Oligomers & cooperativity
    2. Agonist-specific coupling
    3. Refractory states
    4. B-arrestin-biased ligands
  64. 64Explain cooperative behavior of oligomeric receptors. What’s the effect on receptor activity?Individual subunits bind L via mass-action kinetics but doesn't change state individually. Change in conformation is in concert > lead to sigmoidal curve, lower signal: noise ratio.
  65. 65Explain agonist-specific coupling. Example?More >1 active receptor conformation state linked to 2 diff adapters > 2 diff effects.
    Ex. 5-HT2 receptors that bind 2 G proteins
  66. 66Explain receptors with refractory states. Example?Receptors has a state that's bound to ligand but functionally inactive, also in resting but activiable state
    Ex. nACh receptor
  67. 67What’s receptor reserve? How does this relate to biochemical cascade dose-effect?RR = amt of R that can be KO'd without affecting the effector activity
    [R] directly related to biochem effect, depending on population of native vs. overexpressed receptor
  68. 68Differentiate potency vs. efficacy.Potency = lowest [drug] that elicits effect
    Efficacy = extent of drug effect
  69. 69What’s the therapeutic index and what does it mean?TI = drug toxic/drug effect
    Used to det. range of dose that optimize betwn efficacy vs. toxicity
  70. 70Briefly describe 3 stages of drug transport.1. Absorption - uptake into blood plasma
    2. Distribution - equilibration of drug between blood and rest of body
    3. Elimination - excretion/metab. inactivation
  71. 71Name 3 routes of application, adv/disadv associated.1. Oral - convienience; multiple barriers
    2. Intravenous - no barriers; risk of infection/allergy
    3. Pulmonary - fast, limited use
  72. 72Name 4 possible locations of drug targets & examples.1. Inside circulation, inside cell
    2. Inside circulation, outside cell
    3. Outside circulation, inside cell
    4. Outside circulation, cell surface
  73. 73Describe difference between regular capillary vs. brain capillary; relationship to drug distribution?Reg. capillary: 1 layer, fenestrated endothelium allow solute exchange
    Brain: 2 layers, unfenestrated endothelium via tight junction + glial cells seal
  74. 74How does intestinal epithelium act as barrier to drug absorption?Intestinal epithelium has P450 that inactivate drugs + ABC transporters that extrude drugs
  75. 75How are MOST drugs transported in the body?Passive diffusion
    Non-ionic diffusion
  76. 76What’s the ideal polarity of drugs and why? How can this be achieved?Hydrophobic - can cross membrane but not to hydrophobic to get stuck
    Achieved via removing polar fxnal gps
  77. 77Why is heroin much more potent and addictive than morphine? (hint: absorption?)Heroin can cross BBB (acetylation), while morphine can't; more addictive and potent
  78. 78What’s non-ionizable diffusion? How is this useful?Transport of ionizable drug in nonionizable form
    pH adjustment can change ionic state of drug to prevent accumulation/activation
  79. 79How does gastric acid promote the accumulation of acetylsalicylic acid in cells of mucous membrane?ASA protonated in acidic pH > cross membrane via non-ionic diffusion > deprotonated & ionic in alkaline pH in cytosol to prevent accumulation in gastric mucosa > effect
  80. 80What are ABC transporters (traits) and where are they located? Why are they problematic wrt drugs, especially chemotherapy?ATP-binding cassettes. Located in SI, liver, kidney, BBB. Extrude drugs > contributes impenetration & chemo drug resistance
  81. 8112. How can drug uptake in the brain be increased? (hint: ABC transporters)By inhibiting ABC transporters
  82. 82How is L-DOPA transported in the brain and how can this delivery be optimized?Transported via Tyr transporter > converted to dopamine via decarboxylase
    Optimize via peripheral L-DOPA decarboxylase inhibitor
  83. 83Briefly diagram the portal circulation (weird).To liver:
    1) Liver artery (oxygenated)
    2) Portal vein (from GI, partially oxy)
    Out liver:
    Liver vein (deoxygenated)
  84. 84What are the 2 fates of drug in liver lobule? What is the function of liver cell?1) Drug is taken up into hepatocytes
    2) Drug enters bile via bile duct
  85. 85Define first-past effect.% of drug converted to metabolite via portal circulation before reaching systemic
    (i.e. partial inactivation, propanolol)
  86. 86Name 3 compartments of drug distribution. If in circulation, what is drug likely doing?1) Mostly in circulation (large drugs)
    2) In interstitial space (hydrophilic)
    3) In fat (lipophilic)
    If in circulation, likely bound to serum albumin
  87. 87Explain volume of distribution (Vd) and what the values will mean.Vd = mol drug/[drug] plasma (L)
    Low Vd = in circulation; quick elimination if not bound to protein
    high Vd = in fat, slow elimination
  88. 88Illustrate elimination route of hydrophilic and hydrophobic drugs.Hydrophilic = renal excretion (if small)
    Hydrophobic = converted to hydrophilic in liver then renal excretion
  89. 89Name 4 stages of urine processing by the kidney.1. Ultrafiltration
    2. Solute reuptake
    3. Water reuptake
    4. Solute secretion
  90. 90Outline function of the glomerulus, proximal tubule, loop of Henle, distal tubule.Glomerulus - filtration via hydrostatic P
    Proximal tubule - active solute reuptake
    loop of Henle - water reuptake via salt gradient of interstitial space
    Distal tubule - fine tune pH, salt content
  91. 91What drives glomerular filtration?Difference in hydrostatic P > high in arteriole, low in capillary
    So net filtration
  92. 92For which stages can drugs be substrate?Filtration, reuptake and secretion
  93. 93How does drug’s rate of urinary excretion depend on its membrane permeability?Permeant = Curine ~ C interstitial; excretion ~ vol. urine
    Impermeant = nurine = nfiltrate
    excretion NOT dependent on urine vol; rate of elimination ~ GFR
  94. 94What does inulin clearance measure and why?Measures GFR
    Quantitatively filtered without reuptake or secretion because it's a polar molecule; impermeant & retained in urine
  95. 95What does renal clearance measure and mean?Renal clearance measure vol. of blood plasma cleared of drug per time
    i.e. how effectively kidney eliminates drug
  96. 96Under what circumstances can drug half-lives be accounted for by GFR?Low protein binding and in circulation
  97. 97Differentiate between glomerular filtration rate (GFR) vs. renal plasma flow (RPF)GFR = Vfluid filtered from renal glomerular capillaries per time
    RPF = V blood delivered to kidney per time (measure via pAH that's quantitatively secreted in single pass of blood through kidney)
  98. 98How can one prevent drug accumulation caused by repeated-drug application?Use initial large loading dose to get therapeutic lvl then use smaller repeated dose
  99. 99Name 4 types of reactions in drug metabolism1. Oxidation
    2. Reduction
    3. Conjugation
    4. Hydrolysis
  100. 100Define enterohepatic cycling + diagram to illustrate the process.Process of reuptake & cycling back to liver via portal vein for repeated round of conjugation (i.e. repeated transformation before renal excretion)
  101. 101Does hydrophobicity predict the extent of metabolism? Why?No, because most drugs undergo some type of transformation before elimination, hydrophilic + hydrophobic
  102. 102Name 2 enzymes in each phase I and phase II metabolism & reactions they perform.Phase I - intro of reactive gps (P450, oxidoreductase)
    Phase II - conjugation of reactive gp (sulfotransferase, GST)
  103. 103Where are CYP450 enzymes and what types of reactions can they do? Why can they do so many? (hint: BIOL 439)Phase I oxidative metab. enzyme with broad substrate range.
    Heteroatom oxidation, dealkylation, carbon oxidation, epoxide formation
  104. 104How is drug metabolism transcriptionally induced? Overall effect?Drug bind preganolone X receptor (nuclear), diffuse into nucleus, bind xenobiotic response elements (XRE) & induce transcription of metab. enzymes to increase OVERALL drug metab.
  105. 105Name 4 key possible phase II metabolism reaction types.1) Glutathione, GST
    2) UDP-glucuronide, glucuronic acid, UDP-glucuronosyl transferase
    3) Sulfate, PAP, sulfotransferase
    4) Acetylation, acetyl-CoA, N-acetyltransferase (NAT)
  106. 106How is morphine metabolized? What does this indicate wrt to drug metabolism?Skips phase I & directly conjugated.
    If reactive already present then skips phase I of metab.
  107. 107Use hepatic metabolism of acetaminophen to explain why excess ingestion is a problem.Acetaminophen undergo phase I > NAPQI (quinone) > react readily with glutathione.
    OD leads to glutathione depletion in liver, fatal
  108. 108Explain how GST enzyme can help to activate anticancer drug canfosfamide.Canfosfamide react with GST, which cleaves it to get alkylatin drug that kills cell.
    (Target tumors that overexpress GST to confer resistance)
  109. 109What’s N-acetyltransferase? Is this a phase I or II enzyme?NAT = acetylation
    Phase II enzyme
  110. 110Explain how arylamine carcinogens can be metabolically activated.Hydroxylated by P450 followed by NAT/ST, eventually lose acetate to form electrophile that react with biomolecules
    acidic urine = deprotonated GST > increase toxicity
  111. 111What phase is reductive drug metabolism? Responsible enzymes?Phase I
    Enzymes are random (no specific enz)
  112. 112Use redox cycling and reductive metabolism to explain why isouramil can lead to toxicity.Isouramil engages reacts with oxygen and consumes glutathione and NADPH > depletion of glutathione lead to accumulation of H2O2 which can form ROS to dmg biomol
  113. 113What is favism and why does G6PDH cause this? What’s the broader application of this consideration? (hint: think malaria relevance)Hemolytic anemia w. fava bean
    G6PDH deficiency lead to inability to regenerate reducing equiv NADPH > no protein replacement, Hb spill into blood
    usually present in malaria-endemic countries
    Since antimalaria drugs redox cycles > need to consider this
  114. 114How can reductive metabolism be exploited in therapeutics?Cancer cell = reducing env
    Prog drug can be activated via nitro reduction + acetylation > activate 2 alkylation groups to crosslink DNA and kill cell
  115. 115Describe the general GPCR structure.7 transmembrane helices, with CT tethered via FA chain to membrane
    Extracell. NT, intracell. CT
    Few conserved motifs essential for activity
  116. 116Describe the general GPCR activity cycle.1. GPCR activated
    2. Gaby bind GPCR > Ga exchange GDP to GTP
    3. Ga & by dissociate > go to effectors
    4. Ga self-hydroylze GTP
    5. GDP allow reassociation of heterotrimer
  117. 117Explain how FRET can be used to detect G protein bind to adenosine receptor and dissociation from it.Association: CFP on Gy, YFP on GPCR
    Dissociation: CFP on Ga, YFP on Gy
  118. 118Which is more diverse – G-protein/GPCR?GPCR more diverse > multiple converge on 1 G protein to trigger same intracellular response
  119. 119Describe adenylate cyclase pathway of GPCR.Ga activates adenylyl cyclase > makes cAMP > activate PKA to P' stuff
    Gby binds Katp > opens > hyperpolarize cell
  120. 120Describe phospholipase C cascade of GPCR.Active Ga cleaves PIP2 > IP3 + DAG
    IP3 activate ER Ca2+ channel > release Ca2+ > calmodulin-dependent contraction
    DAG activate PKC > P's stuff
  121. 121How does NK1 and NK3 GPCR chimers illustrate the binding mechanism of experimental drug CP96354?NK3 conserved seq on NK1 decreased drug inhibition; NK1 conserved seq on NK3 increased inhibition
    Seq exchanged essential for ligand binding on GPCR
  122. 122What type of activation does protease-activated GPCR undergo? How to deactivate?Irreversible > proteolytic cleavage of NT domain binds ligand-binding site on GPCR
    Inactivation via endocytosis ONLY
  123. 123What are the advantages of GPCR oligomerization?Cooperativity
    novel ligand specificity
    diff mediator and reinforce/inhibit each other at cell surface (decrase noise in cell)
  124. 124Explain the experiment that characterized the functional specialization of GABAb receptor heterodimers.Replacing transmembrane helices vs. NT tail of heterodimer affected ligand-bind vs. G-protein activation
  125. 125Name pharmaceutical applications of bivalent agonists and monovalent ligands. Are heterodimeric drugs feasible?Bivalent agonist = stretch effect on mAChR
    Monovalent = selective activation of heteroligomer (similar to agonist-specific coupling)
    Heterodimeric not feasible since need to bind correctly and simultaneously
  126. 126What is tachyphylaxis and the mechanism? What are the potential targets in this pathway? (2)Tachyphylaxis = partial desensitizationo f GPCR drug due to B-arrestin deactivation of GPCR
    Targets: 1) inhibit B-arrestin, 2) inhibit GPCRkinase

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Chemistry Flashcards on CHEM 430 midterm, created by Flora Dong on 24/02/2018.
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