Flashcards
Virology 9-14
Cards in this deck (200)
- 1What are the advantages of bacteria being able to move and be sticky?When the bacteria finds a niche there is no transition time.
Bacteria usually grow as communities/populations - 2What is the importance of biofilms?-can contain a single species or multiple species
-a major problem in medical devices
-not restricted to host surfaces - 3How do microorganisms play a significant role in biofouling?-water systems
-ship hulls - 4What are the features of bacterial capsules?-A polymer of repeating units made of sugars
-can loosely encase a bacterial cell or be released into the environment - 5What are the multiple functions of bacterial capsules?-acts to hide a cell from immune recognition
-causes tissue damage itself
-exploited in industry e.g. xanthin gum, alginate - 6How is the fimbrial pilus secrete?via the sec machine
- 7What is the chaperone of the fibrial plus?Periplasmic space
- 8What is the usher of the fimbrial pilus?Outer membrane
- 9What is the adhesion of the fibrial pilus?FilmH which is a lectin-like protein that binds sugars
- 10What do fimbriae do?They facilitate attachment and respond to shear forces
- 11What does the catch-bond theory allow/Fimbriae to hold bugs in place
- 12What is the need for protein secretion?To colonise, obtain nutrients, destroy the competition
- 13What are the examples of protein secretions?haemolysin, flagella subunits, fibrial subunits, toxins, enzymes , S-layers
- 14What types of protein secretion are there?folded proteins
unfolded polypeptides - 15What are the 2 general pathways across inner (cytoplasmic) membranes?SEC: unfolded common method
TAT: fo;des - research is still finding substrates - 16What is the purpose of SEC?facilitates insertion of proteins into inner membrane
- 17What is the two step system of gram negative bacteria?inner membrane = SEC
outer membrane = specific system e.g. fimbriae - 18What are the one step protein secretion machines?T1SS
T4SS - 19What are the flagella protein secretion machines?T3SS
- 20What are the two step protein secretion machines?chaperone/usher
T5SS
T2SS - 21How can the severity of virulence be measured?By the pathogenicity and virulence factors
- 22What is the evolution of a pathogenicity factor?-horizontal gene transfer
-often assisted by phages
-only retained if they provide a selective advantage
-if they can out compete the natural habitants they can survive - 23What is the consequence of evolution of a pathogenicity factor?When environment is a host, things can go wrong for both sides
- 24What are the colonisation pathogenicity factors?cavet- they get over/trough the epithelium
strategy 1: destroy it - toxins
strategy 2: traverse it - invasion - 25What is toxicity?The ability to cause damage by means of a preformed toxin
- 26What are exotoxins?reflect site or mode of action that are plasmid encoded or found on bacteriophage genomes
- 27What is meant by cytolytic?lead to cell lysis
- 28What are AB toxinsB bind to specific cell receptors
B facilitates the uptake of A
A inhibits cellular process or damages cell - 29What are super antigens?They over stimulate the immune system
- 30What are enterotoxins?A specific group that acts on small intestine
- 31What are neurotoxins?often AB toxins that target nerve cells
- 32What are the properties of endotoxins?They are specific to gram negative bacteria
they are lipopolysaccharide
released when cells lyse
can be a result of our defence mechanisms
LD50 ENDOTOXIN = 25picogram
including fever, diarrhoea and inflammation - 33What are the routes of primary infection>wounds - skin membrane
ingested- oral liquid or food
inhaled - oral airborne
sexually transmitted - 34What an innate immunity?immediate foreign organism
- 35What is an adaptive immunity?a developing specific tailored
- 36What is inflammation?A non specific reaction induced by cytokines like interleukins and TNF-alpha
accumulation of neutrophils - 37What are interleukins?They communicate with lymphocytes in a range of inflammatory response signals
- 38What is TNF-alpha?a tumour necrosis factor
- 39What are neutrophils?Derived from stem cells/ bone marrow recruited to site of acute infection - innate
- 40What route of infection is E/coli?systemic
- 41Where is staphylococcus and streptococcus most commonly found?In the skin
- 42Where is pneumonia, tuberculosis and legionella found?lungs
- 43Where is helicobacter found?stomach
- 44What bacteria is most commonly found in gastroenteritis?campylobacter and salmonella
- 45What would no or low fever and no white blood cells in stool sample suggest?vibrio cholera ETEC, EAggEC, EPEC, EHEC leading to secretory diarrhoea
- 46What would a fever and white blood cells in stool sample suggest?campylobacter jejune, shigella spp, non typhoidal salmonella serotypes,
EIEC leading to inflammatory diarrhoea - 47What are non inflammatory bacteria?Vibrio cholera, E. coli (enterotoxigenic (ETEC), enteropathogenic (EPEC), enteroaggregative (EAEC), heat labile toxin (LT), heat stable toxin (ST)), Clostridium perfringens, Bacillus cereus, Staphylococcus aureus, Giardia lamblia, rotavirus, norovirus, Cryptosporidium species, microsporidia and Cyclospora cayetenensis
- 48What are inflammatory bacteria?Shigella species, E. coli (enterohaemorrhagic (EHEC), enteroinvasive (EIEC)), Salmonella enteritidis, Vibrio parahaemolyticus, Clostridium difficile, Campylobacter jejuni, Entamoeba histolytica
- 49Which bacteria penetrate intact mucosa to multiply in the lymphatic or reticuloendothelial system?Salmonella Typhi, Yersinia enterocolitica, Campylobacter fetus, Vibrio vulnificus
- 50What are the factors of vibrio cholera?-rice water diarrhoea
-volume out-volume in
-treatment is cheap by liquid and electrolyte replacement - 51What are the major virulence factors of vibrio cholerae?cholera toxin (AB type)
1a +5b units encoded on a phage genome ssDNA bacteriophage
easily acquired by horizontal gene transfer for strains that do not have toxic genes - 52How does secretory diarrhoea occur?normal ion movement, sodium from lament to blood but no net cl movement
activation of epithelial adenylate cyclase by cholera toxin
sodium movement blocked, net cl movement to lumen - 53What is bacteremia?bacteria in the blood stream, exploited to reach other organs
- 54What is septicaemia?blood borne, systemic that affects blood and lymph. Symptoms usually difficult to spot if someone is alreadyy ill. Rapid then slow pulse rate and cold extremities.
- 55What is septic shock?Inflammatory response to bacteria or their components in the blood
-response often dangerous than the infection - 56What is salmonella?Enterocolitis (gastroenteritis) a localised infection
- 57What does enterica mean?enteric fever (typhoid fever) a systemic infection can be asymptomatic of the gall bladder
- 58How does salmonella enteric infection occur?contaminated food is ingested
t=15 min invasion of epithelial cells
t-=1hr neutrophils appear, increased vascular permeability
t=3hrs neurophil induced tissue damage and induced fluid accumulation
t=8hrs massive effusion of neutrophils and fluid in intestinal lumen
t24-48hrs evident tissue damage, diarrhoea and more fluid accumulation - 59What are examples of diseases of the skin?impetigo -stretococcus progenies and staphylococcus aureus
scarlet fever- s.pyogenes
boiles - s.aureus - 60What is streptococcus?gram postive, cocci, grows in chains , group A strep
- 61What are the infection sites of streptococcus?throat, middle ear, mammary glands, lungs, skin
- 62What are the associated diseases of streptococcus?pharyngitis
scarlet fever (exotoxin) superantigen
strepococcal toxic shock syndrome
pneumonia - common secondary infection - 63What is staphylococcus?gram positive, cocci, grape-like clusters infection often from asymptomatic to susceptible person
- 64What diseases are forms from staphylococcus?skin-pimples
lungs-pneumonia
blood - septicaemia toxic shock syndrome, impetigo
bones-osteomyelitis
brain-meningitis
stomach- food poisoning inflammatory - 65What is the MRSA issue?methicillin resistant staphylococcus aureus widely used antibiotic promoted selection of resistant strains.
horizontal gene transfer of meA
mortality rate dropping
pre-screening in inpatients
heightened hygiene - 66What is pneumonia?caused by a variety of bacterial and viral pathogens
often a secondary infection
alveolar air spaces filled with exudate, inflammatory cells and fibrin
parenchyma = low oxygen capacity - 67What is mycobacterium tuberculosis?latent or active
infection exploits the body's immune reaction
browns inside activated macrophages
can lead to extensive lung damage
huge weight loss
survives within immune system engulfed by macrophages forming granulomas - 68When would BCG give a false positive?In a tuberculin sensitivity test
- 69Where is legionella pneumophila found ?grows very well in stagnant water, air conditioning systems, whirlpool spas, dead ends of plumbing systems, cooling towers
- 70What are the symptoms of legionella pneumophila?mild cough, headache and fever, develops into life threatening pneumonia , high mortality rate. A risk for elderly, smokers , immunocompromised
- 71How is legionella pneumophila diagnosed?sputum sample, antigens in urine or blood antibody levels
- 72What is helicobacter pylori?gram negative, motile polar flagella, spiral shaped, related to campylobacter, causes infections of the stomach
- 73What diseases can helicobacter pylori causes?gastritis, gastric ulcers, gastric cancer
- 74What is DAEC?DIFFUSELY ADHERENT
- 75what is EAEC?enteroaggegrative
- 76What is EHEC?enterohaemorragic
- 77What is EIEC?Enteoinvasive
- 78What is EPEC?enteropathogenic
- 79What is ETEC?enterotoxigenic
- 80What is NMEC?Neonatal meningitis?
- 81What is UPEC?UROPATHOGENIC
- 82What are UPEC diseases?acute cystitis (bladder)
pyelonephritis (kidneys)
asymptomatic bacteriuria (55+)
major virulence factor - fimbriae - 83How does UPEC cause bacteremia?By escaping the urinary tract
- 84Why do we need global monitoring?Health education and protection can limit spread
monitory outbreaks can prevent an epidemic
transient population and air transit mean no infection barriers - 85What do communicable disease surveillance centres do?outbreak/epidemic monitoring
evaluate disease control
data processing - 86How does a patient get to a microbial diagnosis?Antibody assays -blood sample
other assays- samples -antigen assays - molecular assays to enrichment- isolation and identification - 87What are the safety considerations of taking a specimen?the specimen is coming from an infected individual
what is needed
how is it protected
quality of sample - 88What is an example of rapid, sterile tests?-microscope
-staining
-PCR (SPECIFIC) - 89What is a culture sterile test?general media
- 90What is a culture non sterile test?enrichment selective media
- 91What are serological sterile and non-sterile tests?agglutination tests, toxin detection, antibody detection (ELISA)
- 92What is general purpose media?non selective for general growth
LB agar contains yeast extract, salts, water and gat
to obtain growth of fastidious bacteria often supplement media with sheep's blood - 93What is enrichment broth?selectively enhances growth of a certain organism from a specimen
- 94What is selective media?grows only certain bacteria
blood based agar contain antimicrobials
incubated at 42 decrees miroaerobic
inhibits enteric growth but allow campalybacter - 95What is differential media?Designed so that two bacterial species can be visually differentiated
contain additives
takes advantage of the presence or absence of beta galactosidase of glucosidase
uses chromogenic substrates for both enzymes - 96How would you find the causative organism of normal flora?required systematic removal/discounting of normal flora and recognition of the causative bacteria
- 97What is the role of beta galactosidase>An enzyme which cleaves specific glycosidic bonds of carbohydrates
- 98What do both selective and differential media do?-detect bacilli and enteric bacteria
-contain bile salts and crystal violet that inhibit gram positive bacteria
pH indicators allow for fermentation for sugars to be monitored
contains lactose to identify lactose fermenting e.coli and lactose non fermenting salmonella - 99How could you differentiate the difference between salmonella and shigella?salmonella produces H2S
and shigella to utilities xylose - 100What is cystine lactose electrolyte deficient agar?cystine enhances growth of slow growing coliform
pH indicator is bromothymol blue
commonly used for quantification of the bacterial load in urine so can detect UPEC - 101What are the advantages of molecular diagnosis of infection?-bacterial genomes are unique
-genetic material can be extracted form infected specimens
-DNA is easy to detect and quantify
-extremely sensitive 1-19 CFU/reaction - 102What are the disadvantages of diagnosis of infection ?-technology is still being developed
-some tests require bacteria to be isolated first
-some tests are too sensitive
-standardisation from lab to lab can be problematic - 103How do detection PCR systems work?Fluorescent detection of amplification can be achieved using double stranded DNA binding dyes like SYBR green or FRET-based probes such as taxman 5'muclease-sensitive probes or DNA binding probes (red starbursts)
- 104How did RT-PCR work with meningitis?-treatment usually initiated prior to speciment collection
even without treatment CSF very low
using RT-PCR gave 56% positive diagnosis - 105How did RT-PCR work with whooping cough?very slow growing 3-12 days incubation
RT-PCR diagnosis within hours
very important for correct treatment an - 106What are the benefits of exploiting antibodies for diagnostics?-confirm identity of isolates
-identify known pathogen associated antigens in specimens when isolation fails
-direct detection of specific antibodies in patient serum - 107What happens in a positive reaction latex agglutination?clumping occurs
- 108What happens in a negative reaction latex agglutination?suspension stays uniform
- 109What does a biochemical assay allow assessment of?specific nutritional requirements like sugars
metabolic capability (enzymes) - 110What are standard enzyme test examples?oxidase - pseudomonas spp, e.coli
decarboxylase - amino acid degradation
catalase- gram positive bacteria e.g. listeria spp.
urease- helicobacter pylori - 111What is ONPG?Beta-galactosidase
- 112What is ADH?arginine dihydrolase
- 113What is LDC?lysine decarboxylase
- 114What is MAN?mannose
- 115What is INO?inositol
- 116What is SOR?Sorbitol
- 117What are the three terms of antibiotic susceptibility?S=SENSITIVE
I=INTERMEDIATE
R=RESISTANT - 118in MIC susceptibility testing what is sensitive?Appropriate dosage of standard agent
routine prescription - 119What is intermediate?MIC is higher than sensitive comparable to the concentration that the drug reaches in patient
- 120What is breakpoint?Concentration of drug attainable in serum
- 121What is resistance?isolate unaffected by achievable concentration of a given drug.
Drug would harm patient at higher dosage - 122What is MIC minimum inhibitory concentration?The minimum antibiotic to inhibit growth
varies with growth conditions
media
pH
temo.
oxygen availability
population density
quantitive -relay info to clinician - 123The meaning of breakpoint of a good drug?If it falls after the first apex before becoming resistant is a good drug
- 124What is e.coli resistant to?3rd generation cephalosporins
fluroquinolones - 125What is K.pneumpniae resistant to?3rd generation cephalosporins, carbapenems
- 126What is s.aureus resistant to?MRSA
beta lactam antiobiotics - 127What is s.pneumoniae?penicillin
- 128What is nontyphoidal salmonella resistant to?fluroquinolones
- 129What is shegella species resistant to?Fluoroquinolone's
- 130What are neisseria gonorrhoea resistant to?3rd generation cephalosporins
- 131What target cell wall?penicillin
bacitracin
cephalosporins
carbapenems - 132What target protein synthesis?acitinomycin
rifampicin
streptovaricins - 133Which are 50S inhibitors?macrocodes
chloramdphenic
cindamycin - 134Which are 30S inhibitors?tetracycline
streptomycin
kanamycin
nitrofuran - 135Which causes injury to plasma membrane?polymyxins
daptomycin - 136Which affects lipid biosynthesis?platensimycin
- 137Which affect folic acid metabolism?trimethoprim
sulphonamides - 138What affects mycolic acid synthesis?isoniazid
- 139What are quinolone?broad range as gyrase found in all bacteria
- 140What is ciprofloxacin?used in UTI treatment but also bacteremia
- 141How does penicillin and vancomycin work?bindis to PG synthesis machinery-penicillin
binds to PG precursors- vancomycin - 142What is the benefit of beta lactams?Useful for both gram positive and gram negative
most widely used therefore - 143What is simple transport?driven by the energy in the proton motive force
- 144What is group translocation?chemical modification of the transported substance driven by phophoenolpyruvate
- 145What is the ABC transporter?Periplasmic binding proteins are involved and energy comes from ATP
- 146What antibiotic resistance mechanisms are there?1.reduced permeability -penicillin
2.inactivation of antibiotic - penicillin, chloramphenicol, ahminoglycosides
3. alteration of target - erythromycin, rifamycin, streptomycin, norfloxacin
4. development of resistant biochemical pathways- sulphonamides
5. efflux (pumping out) - tetracycline, chloramphenicol, erythromycin - 147What can be done about resistant enzymes?need a multi angle approach
ampicillin + sulbactum - 148What is extended spectrum beta lactamases =ESBL?can inactivate cephalosporins
associated with bacteria and ute's
affects over 60's and females
usually plasmid born - 149Where is antibiotic resistance prevalent?In an isolated cave micro biome
- 150Which antibiotics are bacteriostatic?chloramphenicol, macrolides, sulphonamides, spectinomycin, tetracycline, trimethoprim
PROTEIN SYNTHESIS - 151Which antibiotics are bactericidal?carbapenems, cephalosporins, fluoroquinplones, glyccopeptides, monobactansm penicillins
CELL WALL - 152What is phylogeny?-evolutionary history of a group of organisms
-can be inferred indirectly from nucleotide or amino acid sequence data
-certain genes/proteins are globally distributed and allow to investigate global phylogenies including tree of life - 153What is the most widely used phylogenic marker?The SSUrRNA gene
16s prokaryotes
18s eukaryotes
12s mitochondria and plasmids - 154What is used to complement phylogenies?protein coding genes
- 155What is in the crown taxa?animals, fungi, plants
- 156What are archezoa?trichomonads
microporidia
diplomonads (guardia) - 157What is the archezoa hypothesis?two kingdoms originally had mitochondria, but lost them before mitochondria became symbionts of protists.
nuclear invented by mitochondrion was acquired
first eukaryote were anaerobes
provide insight into nature - 158What are eukaryotic mitochondria and chloroplasts?contain and small genome and encore rRNAs for some proteins
- 159What are the properties of the mitochondrial genomes?-diverse structure: circular or linear
primarily encode proteins for oxidative phosphorylation along tRNAs and rRNAs
mammalian mitochondria encode 13 proteins
encoded by nuclear genome - 160What cause the archezoa hypothesis to fall?-the archezoans branch among aerobic species with mitochondria
mitochondria genes on archezoan genomes
mitochondrion derivesd Organelle in archezoans - 161What does richard owen and charles darwin tell us?Evolutionary homologues are the same origin under every variety form and function
- 162What is the initial mitochondrial gene cloning by PCR?Hsp70
Cpn60 - 163What are examples of mitochondria-like organelle in archezoa?chicken, neocallimastix, trichomonads, entamoeba, microsporidia, guardia
- 164What are hydrogenosomes?produce hydrogen H2
Produce ATP through substrate level phosphorylation
some have a genome with mitochondria signature
nuclear genomes encode reduced fraction of hydrogenosomal/mitochondrial proteins set - 165What are mitosomes?-reduced in size
-no evidence for any capacity to produce ATP
-no genome
-nuclear genomes encode reduced mitosomal/ mitochondrial proteins set. - 166Where do eukaryotes with reduced version of mitochondria live?anaerobic/microaerobic (fungi, amoebozoa, ciliates) or intracellular habitats (microsporidia, apicomplexa)
- 167What are the properties of Fe-s cluster biosynthesis?function of yeast mitochondria
fe-s are small co factor
prosynthetic groups of many proteins - 168What are essential proteins in yeast?Yah1
Pri2
Rad3
RII2
Nbp35
Nar1 - 169What five major eukaryotic lineages?opisthokonta - animal, fungi, microsporidia, coanoflagellates
amoebozoa - slime holds
excavata- euglenozoa, emtamonade
archaeplastida- plants, red algae
SAR- stramenopiles, alveolata, rhizaria - 170What are the features of known chloroplast genomes?-circular DNA molecules
typically 120-160kbp
contain two inverted repeats of 6-76 kip
many genes encode proteins for photosynthesis and autotrophy
introns common; primarily or self splicing type - 171What are stramenopiles?many free living species
diatoms- cell wall made of silica (type of algae, marine, freshwater)
-some parasitic species - 172What are alveolate?dinoflagellates
ciliates
apicomplexia - 173What are extracellular parasites?Thrive on and in tissues without entering their host cells
interstitial spaces, blood, lymph, epithelial
trichomonas - 174What are intracellular parasites?Need to penetrate their host cells to complete their life cycle
cytoplasmic, vesicular
microsporidia - 175What are animals, metazoa?host many microbial species - they represent good niches for microbes in general
- 176What are choanoflagellates and ichthyosporea?mostly marine species
- 177What are fungi and microsporidia?-important decomposers of dead animals
and plants
-form important symbiotic interactions with plants
-include members of the human microbiota
-many are pathogenic species to animals and plants - 178What is the life cycle of microsporidia?-strict obligate intracellular parasites, no active extracellular forms
-depend on one or more host to proceed through their life cycle
-mostly animal hosts
multiple examples of host switching
zoonotic origins of most if not all microsporidia infecting humans - 179What are amoebozoa slime molds?-important group in soil, feed on bacteria
-important model system for molecular cell biology and host-microbes interactions: dictyostelium discoideum - 180What is the most common human parasite?Entamoeba histolytica
- 181What is entamoeba histolytica?a common pathogen linked to poor sanitation
amoebic dysentery and colon inflammation
extra-intestinal abscesses
mitosome- without genomes - 182What are the features of apicomplexa?They actively invade their host cell
parasite myosin and actin dependent
host cell is not driving the process
plasmodium uses a similar mechanism - 183What are some examples of apicomplexa infecting humans?plasmodium falciparum: human anopheles mosquito life cycle
toxoplasma gondii: cat prey life cycle
cryptosporidium parvum C. hominis: only one host required - 184What is the life cycle of plasmodium sep?transmission by mosquito bites
maturation of gametes within mosquito
fertilisation
growth
development of sporozoites
release of sporozoites
transmission by bite of mosquito sporozoites removed from blood by liver
infection of red blood cells - 185What are definite hosts of toxoplasma gondii?adult forms
sexual reproduction - 186What are the intermediate hosts of toxoplasma gondii?immature forms
Asexual reproduction - 187What are the features of toxoplasma gondii?-worldwide distribution
-seropositive prevalence rates
-generally causes benign
disease in immuno-competent adults (congenital transmission, aids associated)
-tissue cyst forming coccidia
predator prey life cycle, felines are definitive host, infects wide rang of birds and mammals - 188What are the sources of human infection?-oocyst-contaminated food or water
-undercooked meat
-raw goat's milk
-congential
-organ transplant
-blood transfusion - 189What are the features of cryptosporidium?-world wide distribution
c. parvum cattle and other mammals
c.hominis only humans
self-limiting diarrhoea
profuse, watery diarrhoea in sddocistion with aids - 190What are the factors that contribute to cryptosporidium waterborne?small size of oocyst
low infective dose
robust oocyst
infectious sporulated oocysts excreted
monotonous development
shared host specify
large no, of oocyst excreted
proximity of domestic animals to surface water sources - 191What are parabasalia?-mainly host dependent and include parasitic forms
-found in invertebrates birds and mammals
-anaerobes, possess hydrogenosomes - 192What are diplomonads?-many are host dependent and include
-possess hydrogenosomes or mitoses - 193What are euglenozoa?-free living and parasitic forms
-some possess secondary plastids
some possess complex mitochondria genomes -kinetoplasts -10 -20% of total DNA present in a cell - 194How does african trypanosomes causes disease?Human african trypanosomiasis by tsetse fly
- 195How does trypanosome cruzi cause disease?causes chaga's disease by triatomine bugs
- 196How does leishmania species causes disease in humans?disease leishmaniasis by sand fly
- 197What is chana's disease?acute stage, typically asymptomatic , , decades of latency, followed by chronic symptoms
- 198What is the life cycle of trypanosome cruz?1. triatomine bug takes a blood meal
2.metacylic trypomastigotes penetrate various cells at bite wound site and transform into amastigotes
3. amastigotes multiply by binary fission in cells of infected tissues
4. intracellular amastigotes transform into trypomastigotes then burst out of the cell and enter the blood stream
5. triatomine bug takes a blood meal
6.epimastigotes in midgut
7.multiply in midgut
8.metcyclic trypomastigotes in handgun - 199How does trypanosome cruz invade host cells?1. attachment to host cell surface receptors
2. calcium signal recruits lysosomes
3. fusion of lysosomes with plasma membrane
4.invasion
5. secretion of pore-forming protein
6.lysis of surrounding membrane release of pathogen - 200What are the properties of giardia lamb?worldwide distribution- higher prevalence in developing countries
most common protozoa found in human stools
giardiasis -often asymptomatic, acute or chronic diarrhoea
decal-oral life cycle, extracellular parasite
has mitosomes
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- microbiology and immunology Flashcards on Virology 9-14, created by GEORGIA SMITH on 03/06/2017.
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