QUIZ 1

1. 1What is the primary function of IAM in AWS?

   1. ATo monitor resource usage across AWS services
   2. BTo manage and control user access to AWS resources
   3. CTo optimize the cost of AWS services
   4. DTo back up data across multiple AWS regions
2. 2Which IAM feature allows a user to authenticate using a password and a software token?

   1. AIdentity Federation
   2. BPassword Rotation Policy
   3. CMulti-Factor Authentication (MFA)
   4. DGranular Permissions
3. 3In IAM, what is a role primarily used for?

   1. AGrouping users with similar permissions
   2. BCreating password policies for users
   3. CAssigning permissions to AWS resources like EC2 instances
   4. DIntegrating external identity providers
4. 4Which of the following are features of IAM? (Select TWO)

   1. ATemporary access for services or users
   2. BEnabling billing optimization
   3. CMulti-Factor Authentication (MFA)
   4. DAutomating EC2 instance creation
   5. ECross-region replication
5. 5What are core IAM concepts that help manage access in AWS? (Select THREE)

   1. AUsers
   2. BRegions
   3. CGroups
   4. DRoles
   5. EAvailability Zones
6. 6What is the primary purpose of the IAM Policy Simulator?

   1. ATo encrypt IAM policies for added security
   2. BTo test and validate IAM permissions before deploying them to production
   3. CTo automatically assign permissions to new users in AWS
   4. DTo generate new IAM policies based on system activity logs
7. 7A developer is troubleshooting an IAM permission issue where a user cannot access an S3 bucket. How can the IAM Policy Simulator help in this situation?

   1. AIt automatically updates the user’s policy to grant the required permissions
   2. BIt creates a log of all failed authentication attempts
   3. CIt allows the developer to simulate actions and verify if the IAM policy permits access
   4. DIt modifies the IAM role to include the missing permissions
8. 8Which of the following are valid use cases for the IAM Policy Simulator? (Select TWO)

   1. ATesting IAM permissions before applying them to production
   2. BAutomatically assigning roles to new users based on job titles
   3. CValidating whether an IAM policy correctly allows or denies specific AWS actions
   4. DEncrypting IAM policies for compliance requirements
   5. EGenerating cost optimization reports based on IAM activity
9. 9What is one of the primary advantages of using Amazon EC2 compared to traditional on-premises servers?

   1. AEC2 instances are automatically backed up without user configuration
   2. BEC2 provides a fixed amount of compute power that cannot be resized
   3. CEC2 allows developers to launch virtual machines within minutes instead of months
   4. DEC2 instances do not require an operating system to function
10. 10Which of the following are benefits of Amazon EC2? (Select TWO)

    1. APay-as-you-go pricing model reduces upfront costs
    2. BRequires a fixed commitment of at least 3 years
    3. CProvides complete control over instance configurations
    4. DAll EC2 instances come with pre-installed applications
    5. ECan scale up or down based on application demand

11. 11Which EC2 pricing model is best suited for applications with unpredictable workloads that require flexibility without long-term commitments?

    1. AReserved Instances
    2. BSpot Instances
    3. CDedicated Hosts
    4. DOn-Demand Instances
12. 12Which EC2 pricing model offers the highest possible discount but comes with the risk of instance termination if the market price exceeds your set maximum price?

    1. AReserved Instances
    2. BSpot Instances
    3. COn-Demand Instances
    4. DDedicated Instances
13. 13Which of the following are true about Reserved Instances in AWS EC2? (Select TWO.)

    1. AThey provide up to a 72% discount compared to On-Demand pricing.
    2. BThey can be used across multiple AWS regions without restrictions.
    3. CConvertible Reserved Instances allow switching to a different instance type of equal or greater value.
    4. DReserved Instances are only available for a three-year term.
    5. EYou are required to pay the full cost upfront.
14. 14Which of the following are valid use cases for Spot Instances? (Select TWO.)

    1. ARunning mission-critical applications that require high availability.
    2. BLarge-scale image or video rendering jobs.
    3. CHosting a production database with 24/7 uptime requirements.
    4. DGenomic sequencing workloads requiring large-scale compute capacity.
    5. ERunning an enterprise CRM system with predictable usage patterns.
15. 15Which of the following best describes the purpose of EC2 instance types?

    1. AEC2 instance types determine the Amazon Machine Image (AMI) that will be used for an instance.
    2. BEC2 instance types define the availability zone where an instance will be launched.
    3. CEC2 instance types determine the hardware configuration and capabilities of the host machine running the instance.
    4. DEC2 instance types are only relevant for the Solutions Architect Professional exam.
16. 16Which EC2 instance family is best suited for compute-intensive applications such as high-performance computing and media transcoding?

    1. AGeneral Purpose (T, M, A)
    2. BCompute Optimized (C, HPC)
    3. CMemory Optimized (R, X, Z)
    4. DStorage Optimized (I, D, H)
17. 17A developer is selecting an EC2 instance type for a machine learning workload that requires specialized hardware acceleration. Which instance families should they consider? (Select TWO.)

    1. ACompute Optimized (C, HPC)
    2. BAccelerated Computing (P, Inf, Trn, G)
    3. CGeneral Purpose (T, M, A)
    4. DMemory Optimized (R, X, Z)
    5. EStorage Optimized (I, D, H)
18. 18Which of the following statements about EC2 instance families are correct? (Select TWO.)

    1. AGeneral Purpose instances provide a balance of compute, memory, and networking resources.
    2. BCompute Optimized instances are best suited for applications requiring high disk I/O operations.
    3. CStorage Optimized instances are recommended for NoSQL databases and data warehousing.
    4. DMemory Optimized instances are mainly used for media transcoding workloads.
    5. EAccelerated Computing instances are designed for workloads requiring specialized hardware accelerators.
19. 19A developer needs to increase the storage capacity of an Amazon EC2 instance that uses an Amazon EBS volume. What must the developer do after modifying the volume size?

    1. ARestart the EC2 instance for the changes to take effect
    2. BDetach and reattach the volume to apply the new size
    3. CExtend the file system on the instance if required
    4. DCreate a snapshot and restore it to a new, larger volume
20. 20Which of the following Amazon EBS volume types provides the lowest latency and highest IOPS performance for a database workload requiring high throughput?

    1. AGeneral Purpose SSD (gp3)
    2. BProvisioned IOPS SSD (io2)
    3. CCold HDD (sc1)
    4. DThroughput Optimized HDD (st1)
21. 21A developer wants to back up an Amazon EBS volume attached to an Amazon EC2 instance without causing application downtime. What is the recommended approach?

    1. AStop the EC2 instance before creating a snapshot
    2. BUse Amazon Data Lifecycle Manager to automate backups
    3. CDetach the EBS volume before creating a snapshot
    4. DCreate an Amazon Machine Image (AMI) instead of a snapshot
22. 22A developer wants to encrypt data at rest for an existing Amazon EBS volume. What is the recommended approach?

    1. AEnable encryption on the existing volume using the AWS Management Console
    2. BCreate an encrypted snapshot and restore it to a new encrypted volume
    3. CModify the EC2 instance’s IAM role to enforce encryption
    4. DUse AWS Secrets Manager to encrypt the data on the EBS volume
23. 23A developer needs to optimize the cost and performance of Amazon EBS volumes. Which of the following actions can help achieve this? (Choose TWO)

    1. AUse Amazon S3 for infrequently accessed data instead of EBS
    2. BResize an existing EBS volume dynamically to reduce cost
    3. CUse gp3 instead of gp2 to lower costs while maintaining performance
    4. DStore temporary data on EBS snapshots to reduce costs
    5. EEnable Amazon EBS Multi-Attach for high-performance applications
24. 24A developer wants to improve the durability and reliability of Amazon EBS volumes. Which actions should they take? (Choose TWO)

    1. AEnable Amazon EBS Multi-Attach to allow multiple EC2 instances to access the same volume
    2. BRegularly create Amazon EBS snapshots and store them in Amazon S3
    3. CUse Amazon S3 Intelligent-Tiering to store EBS backups
    4. DUse Amazon Data Lifecycle Manager (DLM) to automate EBS snapshots
    5. EAttach the same EBS volume to multiple availability zones for high availability
25. 25Which type of AWS Elastic Load Balancer operates at Layer 7 of the OSI model and supports advanced request routing?

    1. AClassic Load Balancer
    2. BNetwork Load Balancer
    3. CApplication Load Balancer
    4. DGateway Load Balancer
26. 26A developer needs to load balance TCP traffic while ensuring high performance with ultra-low latencies. Which type of Elastic Load Balancer should they use?

    1. AApplication Load Balance
    2. BNetwork Load Balancer
    3. CClassic Load Balancer
    4. DGateway Load Balancer
27. 27An application behind an Elastic Load Balancer is experiencing 504 Gateway Timeout errors. What is the most likely cause of this issue?

    1. AThe load balancer security group is incorrectly configured
    2. BThe downstream web or application server failed to respond in time
    3. CThe request was blocked by AWS WAF rules
    4. DThe client made too many requests in a short period
28. 28 Which of the following are valid types of AWS Elastic Load Balancers? (Select TWO)

    1. ANetwork Load Balancer
    2. BHardware Load Balancer
    3. CEdge Load Balancer
    4. DClassic Load Balancer
    5. EProxy Load Balancer
29. 29A developer needs to determine the originating IP address of clients accessing their web application through an AWS Elastic Load Balancer. Which of the following statements are true? (Select TWO)

    1. AThe originating IP address can be found in the X-Forwarded-For HTTP header
    2. BOnly the Classic Load Balancer supports retrieving the originating IP address
    3. CThe private IP address of the load balancer is always shown to the backend servers by default
    4. DThe Network Load Balancer automatically provides the originating IP in the connection metadata
    5. EApplication Load Balancers support the X-Forwarded-For header for identifying client IP addresses
30. 30You need to grant an Amazon EC2 instance permissions to access an Amazon S3 bucket. What is the best way to achieve this following AWS security best practices?

    1. AStore the AWS access key and secret access key in the EC2 instance’s user data.
    2. BCreate an IAM user with S3 permissions and embed the credentials in the application running on the instance.
    3. CAttach an IAM role with an S3 access policy to the EC2 instance.
    4. DManually configure the AWS credentials using the aws configure command on the EC2 instance.
31. 31An EC2 instance has an IAM role attached with permissions to access an S3 bucket. What happens if the IAM role is detached from the running EC2 instance?

    1. AThe EC2 instance retains access to S3 until it is restarted.
    2. BThe temporary credentials provided by the IAM role are revoked immediately, and the instance loses access to S3.
    3. CThe EC2 instance will have permanent access to S3 because the credentials were cached.
    4. DThe IAM role remains attached until the EC2 instance is stopped and restarted.
32. 32Which of the following statements about IAM roles for EC2 instances are true? (Select TWO.)

    1. AIAM roles provide temporary security credentials that are automatically rotated.
    2. BOnce an IAM role is assigned to an EC2 instance, it cannot be changed until the instance is restarted.
    3. CIAM roles can be attached or detached from a running EC2 instance without requiring a reboot.
    4. DAn IAM role allows EC2 instances to use AWS resources but does not provide any security credentials.
    5. EThe access policies attached to an IAM role can be updated, but the changes take effect only after a restart of the EC2 instance.
33. 33Which AWS service is best suited for Online Transaction Processing (OLTP) workloads?

    1. AAmazon Redshift
    2. BAmazon RDS
    3. CAmazon S3
    4. DAWS Glue
34. 34Which of the following database engines is an Amazon-managed relational database that is MySQL and PostgreSQL compatible but provides better performance and scalability?

    1. AMicrosoft SQL Server
    2. BAmazon Aurora
    3. CMariaDB
    4. DOracle
35. 35Which of the following statements are true about Amazon RDS? (Select two.)

    1. AAmazon RDS is optimized for OLAP workloads.
    2. BAmazon RDS supports automatic backups and Multi-AZ deployments.
    3. CAmazon RDS is a serverless database service designed for highly variable workloads.
    4. DAmazon RDS supports multiple database engines, including MySQL, PostgreSQL, and Oracle.
    5. EAmazon RDS allows you to run SQL queries on petabytes of structured and unstructured data.
36. 36What is the primary purpose of Amazon RDS Multi-AZ deployments?

    1. ATo improve read performance by distributing queries across multiple instances
    2. BTo provide automatic failover in case of a database instance failure
    3. CTo enable horizontal scaling of the database
    4. DTo reduce the cost of database operations
37. 37What is the purpose of modifying the inbound rules of the RDS security group?

    1. ATo allow SSH access to the RDS instance
    2. BTo enable automatic backup configurations
    3. CTo allow MySQL connections from the EC2 instance
    4. DTo attach an IAM role for enhanced authentication
38. 38When launching an EC2 instance to connect to an RDS database, which of the following configurations are required? (Select TWO)

    1. AAssigning a public IP address to the EC2 instance
    2. BEnabling Multi-AZ deployment for high availability
    3. CCreating a security group rule to allow MySQL connections
    4. DSelecting a key pair for SSH access
    5. EEnabling IAM authentication for MySQL access
39. 39When configuring an RDS database in AWS, which of the following are true regarding authentication and security settings? (Select TWO)

    1. AIAM authentication must be enabled to connect from an EC2 instance
    2. BThe default MySQL port is 3306
    3. CEncryption settings cannot be changed after database creation
    4. DA password must be defined for database authentication unless IAM authentication is used
    5. ESecurity groups do not impact access to RDS instances
40. 40What is the primary purpose of Multi-AZ deployment in Amazon RDS?

    1. ATo improve the read performance of the database by distributing read requests.
    2. BTo provide disaster recovery by maintaining a standby database in another Availability Zone.
    3. CTo allow multiple applications to write data to different database replicas.
    4. DTo enable cross-region replication for high availability.
41. 41Which of the following is a requirement to create a Read Replica in Amazon RDS?

    1. AEnabling automatic backups on the primary database instance.
    2. BPlacing the primary database in multiple Availability Zones.
    3. CEnsuring that the Read Replica is in the same region as the primary database.
    4. DConfiguring Multi-AZ before creating a Read Replica.
42. 42Which of the following statements about Read Replicas in Amazon RDS are true? (Select THREE)

    1. ARead Replicas can be promoted to standalone databases.
    2. BRead Replicas are primarily used for disaster recovery.
    3. CRead Replicas support cross-region replication.
    4. DRead Replicas automatically fail over in case of primary database failure.
    5. ERead Replicas require automatic backups to be enabled.
43. 43Which statement best describes how Automated Backups work in Amazon RDS?

    1. AThey take a manual snapshot of the database at a specific point in time and store it indefinitely.
    2. BThey create daily backups and transaction logs, enabling point-in-time recovery within a user-defined retention period.
    3. CThey create encrypted snapshots automatically, but they cannot be used for restoration.
    4. DThey store only incremental backups without maintaining full daily snapshots.
44. 44What happens when you restore an RDS database from an automated backup or a manual snapshot?

    1. AThe restored database will use the same DNS endpoint as the original instance.
    2. BThe restored database will replace the existing database instance.
    3. CThe restored database will be a new instance with a different DNS endpoint.
    4. DThe restored database will contain only the transaction logs, requiring additional configuration to apply them.
45. 45Which of the following statements are true about Amazon RDS snapshots and backups? (Select three.)

    1. AManual snapshots are automatically deleted when the associated RDS instance is deleted.
    2. BAutomated backups have a retention period between 1 and 35 days.
    3. CYou can enable encryption on an existing unencrypted RDS instance without taking a snapshot.
    4. DManual snapshots can be retained indefinitely even after the RDS instance is deleted.
    5. EAutomated backups include transaction logs, which enable point-in-time recovery.
46. 46What is the primary benefit of using Amazon RDS Proxy in an application?

    1. AIt provides automated data encryption for RDS databases.
    2. BIt eliminates the need for database maintenance tasks.
    3. CIt improves application scalability and database efficiency through connection pooling.
    4. DIt replaces the need for Multi-AZ deployments in RDS.
47. 47Which of the following statements is true about Amazon RDS Proxy?

    1. AIt requires manual scaling to handle increased workloads.
    2. BIt helps prevent database overload by pooling and reusing database connections.
    3. CIt can only be used with Amazon Aurora databases.
    4. DIt does not support Multi-AZ deployments
48. 48Which of the following are key features of Amazon RDS Proxy? (Select three.)

    1. AIt automatically scales based on workload demand.
    2. BIt preserves application connections during database failover.
    3. CIt replaces the need for database snapshots and backups.
    4. DIt provides up to 66% faster failover times.
    5. EIt requires configuring and managing database connections manually.
49. 49A developer is working on an application that experiences frequent read queries for the same data, causing high load on an Amazon RDS database.
    Which AWS service should the developer use to reduce database load and improve performance?

    1. AAmazon RDS Proxy
    2. BAmazon ElastiCache
    3. CAmazon DynamoDB Accelerator (DAX)
    4. DAWS Lambda
50. 50Which of the following is a key difference between ElastiCache for Memcached and ElastiCache for Redis?

    1. AMemcached supports Multi-AZ, while Redis does not.
    2. BRedis provides data persistence, while Memcached does not.
    3. CMemcached is better for leaderboard ranking, while Redis is not.
    4. DRedis cannot be used for caching database query results.
51. 51Which of the following are valid use cases for Amazon ElastiCache? (Select three.)

    1. AReducing read load on a frequently queried database.
    2. BImproving performance for a gaming leaderboard using sorting and ranking.
    3. CReplacing an RDS database for OLAP workloads.
    4. DCaching session data for distributed applications.
    5. EHandling high write throughput for a transactional database.
52. 52Which of the following is a key difference between MemoryDB for Redis and ElastiCache for Redis?

    1. AMemoryDB for Redis is used as a cache for databases, while ElastiCache for Redis is a primary database.
    2. BMemoryDB for Redis supports microsecond read and millisecond write latency, while ElastiCache for Redis has higher latency.
    3. CElastiCache for Redis is scalable to over 100 terabytes, while MemoryDB for Redis is limited to 10 terabytes
    4. DMemoryDB for Redis is suitable for session data caching, while ElastiCache for Redis is suitable for online gaming applications.
53. 53What is a common use case for MemoryDB for Redis?

    1. AStoring session data for customer login on a website.
    2. BCaching frequently accessed data for a traditional RDS database.
    3. CStoring the entire dataset for an online gaming application with millions of concurrent users.
    4. DReducing the load on an OLAP data warehouse by caching query results.
54. 54Which of the following are benefits of using MemoryDB for Redis? (Select three.)

    1. AIt supports storing the entire dataset in memory.
    2. BIt is scalable to over 100 terabytes.
    3. CIt provides transaction logging for data durability and recovery.
    4. DIt can be used as a primary database for ultra-fast performance.
    5. EIt is suitable for high-latency, write-heavy applications.
55. 55You need to securely store database credentials and API keys for your AWS application. Which AWS service should you use?

    1. AAWS Secrets Manager
    2. BAWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
    3. CAWS Key Management Service (KMS)
    4. DAmazon S3
56. 56Which of the following are features of AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store? (Select four.)

    1. ASupports both plain text and encrypted values using AWS KMS.
    2. BCan store up to 10,000 parameters in the Standard tier without additional charges.
    3. CCan natively rotate secrets like database passwords automatically.
    4. DAllows integration with AWS services like EC2, Lambda, and CloudFormation.
    5. ESupports SecureString type for encrypting sensitive data.
57. 57Which AWS service allows you to centrally manage and automatically rotate database credentials, API keys, and other secrets?

    1. AAWS Key Management Service (KMS)
    2. BAWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
    3. CAWS Secrets Manager
    4. DAWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
58. 58Which of the following is a key benefit of AWS Secrets Manager over AWS Systems Manager Parameter Store?

    1. AAbility to store database credentials securely
    2. BAbility to encrypt stored secrets using AWS KMS
    3. CAutomatic rotation of secrets without additional code deployment
    4. DAbility to store configuration parameters such as license keys
59. 59You are storing database credentials in AWS Secrets Manager. What AWS service does Secrets Manager use to encrypt these credentials?

    1. AAWS Identity and Access Management (IAM)
    2. BAWS Certificate Manager (ACM)
    3. CAWS Key Management Service (KMS)
    4. DAWS CloudHSM
60. 60Which of the following statements about AWS Secrets Manager are true? (Select TWO.)

    1. ASecrets Manager allows you to configure automatic rotation of secrets using AWS Lambda.
    2. BSecrets stored in Secrets Manager must be manually rotated every 90 days.
    3. CAWS Secrets Manager can only store database credentials, not API keys.
    4. DSecrets Manager supports replication of secrets across AWS regions.
    5. EAWS Secrets Manager is primarily used for storing configuration parameters like application settings.
61. 61A developer wants to automate the process of creating and maintaining Amazon Machine Images (AMIs) with security updates and custom software installations. Which AWS service should they use?

    1. AAWS Lambda
    2. BAWS CodeBuild
    3. CAmazon EC2 Image Builder
    4. DAWS Systems Manager Parameter Store
62. 62Which of the following statements best describes the function of an image recipe in EC2 Image Builder?

    1. AIt defines the base image, installed software, and build components for an AMI
    2. BIt specifies the AWS regions where the AMI will be distributed.
    3. CIt automates the provisioning of EC2 instances in an Auto Scaling group.
    4. DIt provides runtime configurations for Lambda functions deployed in AWS.
63. 63A developer needs to use an existing Amazon Machine Image (AMI) from us-east-1 in us-west-2. What is the correct approach?

    1. AModify the AMI settings to allow cross-region usage.
    2. BCopy the AMI to us-west-2 and then launch instances from the copied AMI.
    3. CShare the AMI across regions without copying it.
    4. DUse an AWS Lambda function to replicate the AMI automatically.
64. 64Which of the following statements about copying an AMI is correct?

    1. AAn encrypted AMI can be copied and converted into an unencrypted AMI.
    2. BAn unencrypted AMI can be copied and encrypted during the copying process.
    3. CAn AMI can be copied between regions without any restrictions.
    4. DIf no encryption option is specified, the copied AMI will always be encrypted by default.
65. 65Which of the following best describes Amazon S3?

    1. AA block storage service used for running operating systems.
    2. BA scalable object storage service for storing files, images, and backups.
    3. CA relational database service for structured data storage.
    4. DA caching service for improving database performance.
66. 66Which statement about Amazon S3 bucket naming is correct?

    1. ABucket names must be globally unique across all AWS regions.
    2. BBucket names must be unique within the AWS account but can be reused in different regions.
    3. CBucket names can only contain uppercase letters, numbers, and hyphens
    4. DS3 bucket names must be at least 10 characters long and contain a region prefix.
67. 67What is the maximum object size that can be stored in Amazon S3?

    1. A1 TB
    2. B5 TB
    3. C100 TB
    4. DUnlimited
68. 68Which of the following are features of Amazon S3? (Select two correct answers.)

    1. ASupports server-side encryption for data protection.
    2. BAllows storing objects up to 100 TB in a single bucket.
    3. CProvides object versioning to retain historical versions of files.
    4. DSupports running an operating system directly from S3.
    5. EUses block storage for high-performance applications.
69. 69Which Amazon S3 storage class provides the highest availability and durability for frequently accessed data?

    1. AS3 Glacier
    2. BS3 One Zone-Infrequent Access
    3. CS3 Standard
    4. DS3 Standard-Infrequent Access
70. 70What is a characteristic of the S3 One Zone-Infrequent Access storage class?

    1. AIt stores data redundantly across at least three Availability Zones.
    2. BIt is optimized for frequently accessed data.
    3. CIt provides lower availability compared to S3 Standard-Infrequent Access.
    4. DIt requires a minimum storage duration of 90 days.
71. 71Which Amazon S3 storage class is the most cost-effective option for data that is rarely accessed but must be retained for compliance reasons?

    1. AS3 Intelligent-Tiering
    2. BS3 Glacier Deep Archive
    3. CS3 Standard-Infrequent Access
    4. DS3 Standard
72. 72Which of the following statements about S3 Glacier and S3 Glacier Deep Archive are correct? (Select TWO)

    1. AS3 Glacier has a minimum storage duration of 180 days.
    2. BS3 Glacier Deep Archive is designed for data that is rarely accessed.
    3. CBoth S3 Glacier and S3 Glacier Deep Archive have retrieval times ranging from milliseconds to minutes.
    4. DS3 Glacier requires a minimum storage duration of 90 days.
    5. ES3 Glacier Deep Archive provides faster retrieval than S3 Glacier.
73. 73Which of the following are characteristics of the S3 Intelligent-Tiering storage class? (Select TWO)

    1. AIt automatically moves objects between different tiers based on access frequency.
    2. BIt charges an additional monthly fee per object.
    3. CIt requires a minimum storage duration of 180 days.
    4. DIt is only available in a single AWS region.
    5. EIt is designed for long-term data archiving with retrieval times of up to 12 hours.
74. 74A developer wants to allow another AWS user to read all objects in an S3 bucket. What is the best way to achieve this?

    1. AApply an IAM policy to the user granting read access to the bucket
    2. BCreate a bucket policy allowing read access for the user
    3. CAttach an IAM role to the bucket that grants the user read permissions
    4. DEnable public access settings for the bucket
75. 75Which of the following is true about S3 Bucket Policies?

    1. AThey provide fine-grained permissions at the object level
    2. BThey must be manually written in XML format
    3. CThey are applied at the bucket level and affect all objects in the bucket
    4. DThey replace the need for IAM policies
76. 76Which of the following statements are true regarding S3 Access Control Lists (ACLs)? (Select two.)

    1. AThey allow setting different permissions for different objects within the same bucket
    2. BThey are written in JSON format like IAM policies
    3. CThey provide object-level permissions, unlike bucket policies
    4. DThey can be used to configure access logs for an S3 bucket
    5. EThey automatically override any existing IAM policies
77. 77Which of the following encryption methods is enabled by default for objects stored in Amazon S3?

    1. AServer-side encryption using customer-provided keys (SSE-C)
    2. BServer-side encryption with AWS Key Management Service (SSE-KMS)
    3. CServer-side encryption with S3-managed keys (SSE-S3)
    4. DClient-side encryption
78. 78A company wants to ensure that sensitive data stored in Amazon S3 is encrypted using keys they manage within AWS to meet compliance requirements. Which encryption method should they use?

    1. ASSE-S3
    2. BSSE-KMS
    3. CSSE-C
    4. DClient-side encryption
79. 79Which of the following statements about Amazon S3 encryption are correct? (Select two.)

    1. ASSE-S3, SSE-KMS, and SSE-C are all server-side encryption options.
    2. BSSL/TLS encryption in transit is automatically applied when using HTTP.
    3. CSSE-C allows customers to bring and manage their own encryption keys.
    4. DAmazon S3 does not support client-side encryption.
    5. EAWS Key Management Service (KMS) is required for all encryption in Amazon S3.
80. 80What is the primary purpose of Cross-Origin Resource Sharing (CORS) in Amazon S3?

    1. ATo enforce encryption on objects stored in S3 buckets.
    2. BTo allow requests for resources from one S3 bucket to be accessed by another domain or bucket.
    3. CTo enable automatic replication of objects between S3 buckets.
    4. DTo enforce IAM policies on S3 bucket access.
81. 81When configuring CORS in Amazon S3, which header must be included in the CORS configuration to allow access from a specific origin?

    1. A"Access-Control-Allow-Origin"
    2. B"S3-Bucket-Policy-Origin"
    3. C"X-Amz-Allow-External-Requests"
    4. D"AWS-Access-Control"
82. 82Which of the following statements are true regarding configuring CORS in Amazon S3? (Select two correct answers.)

    1. ACORS allows an S3 bucket to serve files to a web page that originates from a different domain.
    2. BBy default, CORS is enabled on all S3 buckets.
    3. CCORS policies are defined in the IAM roles of the S3 bucket.
    4. DYou must specify allowed HTTP methods such as "GET" in the CORS configuration.
    5. ECORS settings are managed at the object level, not the bucket level.
83. 83Which of the following best describes an AWS CloudFront edge location?

    1. AA data center that hosts the original version of the content.
    2. BA collection of AWS Availability Zones that improve global connectivity.
    3. CA geographically dispersed server that caches copies of content to reduce latency.
    4. DA private AWS region dedicated to content delivery.
84. 84What is the default Time to Live (TTL) for cached objects in Amazon CloudFront?

    1. A1 hour
    2. B12 hours
    3. C24 hours
    4. D7 days
85. 85Which AWS services can be used as an origin for a CloudFront distribution?

    1. AAWS Lambda, API Gateway, and AWS Backu
    2. BS3 Bucket, EC2 Instance, and Elastic Load Balancer
    3. CAWS WAF, AWS Shield, and AWS Secrets Manager
    4. DDynamoDB, AWS Glue, and Amazon Athena
86. 86Which of the following statements about Amazon CloudFront are true? (Select two correct answers.)

    1. ACloudFront automatically caches content indefinitely until manually cleared.
    2. BCloudFront reduces latency by delivering content from the nearest edge location.
    3. CCloudFront distributions only support S3 as an origin.
    4. DCloudFront integrates with AWS services like S3, EC2, and Route 53.
    5. EUsers must manually select an edge location for content delivery.
87. 87A developer needs to restrict direct access to objects stored in an Amazon S3 bucket and ensure that all requests go through an Amazon CloudFront distribution. Which of the following actions should the developer take?

    1. AEnable AWS Shield Advanced on the CloudFront distribution.
    2. BCreate an Origin Access Identity (OAI) and update the S3 bucket policy to allow access only from CloudFront.
    3. CConfigure an Amazon S3 Access Point and use it as the origin for CloudFront.
    4. DEnable AWS WAF on CloudFront and create a rule to allow only CloudFront traffic.
88. 88A developer has configured an Amazon CloudFront distribution with an Amazon S3 bucket as the origin. Public access to the S3 bucket has been blocked. However, users are unable to access objects through the CloudFront distribution. What is the MOST likely reason for this issue?

    1. AThe CloudFront distribution does not have an SSL certificate attached.
    2. BThe CloudFront distribution is not using signed URLs for authentication.
    3. CThe S3 bucket policy does not grant permissions to the CloudFront Origin Access Identity (OAI).
    4. DThe S3 bucket is located in a different AWS Region than the CloudFront distribution.
89. 89A developer is configuring an Amazon CloudFront distribution and needs to allow users to submit form data, upload files, and delete resources. Which AllowedMethods setting should be selected?

    1. AGET, HEAD
    2. BGET, HEAD, OPTIONS
    3. CGET, HEAD, OPTIONS, PUT, POST, PATCH, DELETE
    4. DHEAD, OPTIONS, DELETE
90. 90A developer is setting up an Amazon CloudFront distribution for a static website hosted on Amazon S3. The website is entirely read-only and does not allow users to submit any data. Which AllowedMethods configuration is the MOST appropriate?

    1. AGET, HEAD
    2. BGET, HEAD, OPTIONS
    3. CGET, HEAD, OPTIONS, PUT, POST, PATCH, DELETE
    4. DPUT, POST, PATCH, DELETE
91. 91A developer needs to analyze AWS CloudTrail logs that are stored in an S3 bucket using SQL queries. The developer wants to avoid setting up servers or managing infrastructure. Which AWS service should they use?

    1. AAmazon RDS
    2. BAmazon Athena
    3. CAWS Glue
    4. DAmazon Redshift
92. 92Which of the following statements about Amazon Athena is false?
    
    

    1. AAthena allows querying data stored in Amazon S3 using standard SQL.
    2. BAthena requires setting up an EC2 instance to run queries.
    3. CAthena is serverless, and you pay per query and per terabyte scanned.
    4. DAthena is useful for analyzing log files, such as ELB access logs and AWS Cost and Usage reports.
93. 93What AWS service acts as an identity broker for web identity federation?

    1. AIAM
    2. BAmazon Cognito
    3. CAWS STS
    4. DAmazon S3
94. 94Which AWS service provides the API operation AssumeRoleWithWebIdentity?

    1. AAmazon Cognito
    2. BAWS IAM
    3. CAWS STS
    4. DAWS KMS
95. 95What is the primary purpose of an Identity Pool in Amazon Cognito?

    1. AUser authentication and sign-in
    2. BManaging user attributes
    3. CProviding temporary AWS credentials
    4. DCreating user groups
96. 96Which type of IAM policy is embedded within a single user, group, or role?

    1. AManaged Policy
    2. BCustomer Managed Policy
    3. CIdentity Policy
    4. DInline Policy
97. 97What is the recommended approach by AWS for handling web identity federation in mobile applications?

    1. AUsing IAM with static credentials
    2. BUsing AWS KMS to encrypt credentials
    3. CUsing Amazon Cognito
    4. DUsing STS directly
98. 98When a user authenticates with Facebook and accesses AWS resources, what does the application do after receiving the token?

    1. ACreates a new IAM user
    2. BCalls AssumeRoleWithWebIdentity
    3. CRequests permanent credentials
    4. DPushes the token to an S3 bucket
99. 99 Which of the following statements are true about AWS STS temporary credentials? (Choose two)

    1. AThey consist of access key ID, secret access key, and session token
    2. BThey are long-term credentials
    3. CThey can be obtained via the Cognito user pool
    4. DThey are returned from the AssumeRoleWithWebIdentity API call
    5. EThey are only available to IAM users
100. 100What are key responsibilities of Amazon Cognito? (Choose three)

     1. AManaging IAM roles
     2. BActing as a broker between applications and web identity providers
     3. CHandling sign-up and sign-in
     4. DProviding temporary AWS credentials
     5. EEncrypting user data using KMS
101. 101Which of the following are types of IAM policies in AWS? (Choose three)

     1. AStatic policy
     2. BAWS Managed policy
     3. CInline policy
     4. DCustomer Managed policy
     5. EFederated policy
102. 102When configuring cross-account access using IAM roles, which steps are necessary? (Choose two)

     1. ACreate an IAM user in the target account
     2. BCreate a role in the target account with trust policy for the source account
     3. CAssign the role to an EC2 instance in the source account
     4. DDefine a policy in the source account allowing the user to assume the role
     5. EEnable SAML federation in both accounts

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Training and Development Manager AWS-ASSDEV Quiz sobre QUIZ 1, criado por Leon Souza em 28-01-2025.

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Leon Souza

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