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HPS202 exam revision
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Perguntas do quiz (200)
1Which of the following best describes DNA?
- ADNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid, and contains all of the genetic information required for features of our bodies
- BDNA stands for deoxyribonucleic acid, and sends messages to our brain about how to control our bodily movements
- CDNA is an inherited script, based upon our environmental interactions early on in life
- DDNA is something that we all carry, but only utilise it in conscious situations
2If a father's sperm contains an X chromosome, when paired with a mother's egg, the resulting child:
- AWill not have its sex determined until after 8 weeks gestation
- BWill be male
- CWill inherit both male and female characteristics
- DWill be female
3To be expressed, a dominant gene:
- AMust have its pair in order to be expressed
- BWill be expressed regardless if a recessive gene is present
- CWill not be expressed if a recessive gene is present
- DIs expressed in combination with the recessive gene
4If blue eye color is a recessive gene, then in order for a person to have a phenotype of blue eyes:
- ATwo blue eye genes must be present
- BAs long as one blue eye gene is present, the trait will be expressed in the phenotype
- CBlue eye color is expressed randomly, there is no genetic pattern
- DBlue eye recessive genes will dominate over dominant genes of, for example, brown eyes
5A gene showing co-dominance:
- AHas one allele that is dominant to the other
- BHas two alleles that are equal in dominance
- CHas alleles linked tightly on the same chromosome
- DHas alleles which are recessive to each other
6Identify the differences between a genotype and phenotype:
- AA genotype is the genes carried by a person; the phenotype is the observable expression of the genes
- BA phenotype is the genes carried by a person; the genotype is the observable expression of the genes
- CA genotype carries all of the genes from your mother; A phenotype carries all of the genes from your father
- DA genotype is the observable expression of the genes; A phenotype is all of the alleles that you carry
7Place the three phases of prenatal development in the correct procedural order:
- AGerminal, foetal, embryonic
- BGerminal, embryonic, foetal
- CEmbryonic, germinal, foetal
- DEmbryonic, foetal, germinal
8Which of the following correctly matches the layers of the embryonic disc with the structures that they form, with ectoderm, mesoderm, and endoderm respectively?
- Athe nervous system, skin and hair; muscles, bones, circulatory system and other internal organs; the digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands
- Bthe digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands; muscles, bones, circulatory system and other internal organs; the nervous system, skin and hair
- Cmuscles, bones, circulatory system and other internal organs; the digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands; the nervous system, skin and hair
- Dthe nervous system, skin and hair; the digestive system, lungs, urinary tract and glands; muscles, bones, circulatory system and other internal organs
9Which of the following occur during the embryonic period?
- AAll basic organs of the body are formed, and the embryo begins to respond to direct stimulation
- BOrgans take on their final form and begin to function
- CAn inner membrane, called the amnion, forms a watertight sac with amniotic fluid to protect the developing organism
- DImplantation
10During which trimester does the foetus begin to move and kick, as well as develop the sucking and swallowing complexes?
- ATrimester 1
- BTrimester 2
- CTrimester 3
- DWithin two weeks of birth
11During which trimester does the foetus respond reflexively to touch on the face?
- ATrimester 1
- BTrimester 2
- CTrimester 3
- DBetween trimester 2 and 3
12During which trimester does the brain indicate periods of sleep and wakefulness?
- ATrimester 1
- BTrimester 2
- CTrimester 3
- DFrom implantation
13Which of the following is NOT true regarding teratogens?
- AA teratogen is an agent which can cause birth defects
- BA teratogen causes speedier and healthier development
- CSome common teratogens include alcohol, tobacco, some STIs, illicit and prescribed drugs
- DTeratogens are usually something in the environment that the mother is exposed to during pregnancy
14Which of the following is an example of how environmental influences can impact on our genetics?
- AA child grows to be very tall, like his mother and father
- BA boy learns to play the guitar from his father
- CA neglected child still creates meaningful attachments later in life
- DA neglected and malnourished child does not grow to be very tall, despite having tall parents
15The frontal lobe of the brain is the last to develop, and often does not reach maturity until early adulthood. Which of the following are functions of the frontal lobes?
- AReasoning, decision making, and executive functioning
- BImagining, memory, and risk taking
- CTaste, touch, smell, hearing and sight
- DEmotional reactions to fear-inducing stimuli
16Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Trust V Mistrust'?
- AOccurs from birth-18 moths; a key event during this period is exploration. To resolve this crisis, the child must be able to safely explore and engage with their environment.
- BOccurs from 2-3 years old; a key event during this period is feeding. Trust is developed when caregivers consistently meet the child's needs.
- COccurs from 2-3 years; a key event during this period is exploration. To resolve this crisis, the child must be able to safely explore and engage with their environment.
- DOccurs from birth-18 months; a key event during this period is feeding. Trust is developed when caregivers consistently meet the child's needs.
17Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Autonomy V Shame and Doubt'?
- AOccurs at 2-3 years of age; a key event during this period is toilet training. Autonomy is achieved when children can develop a sense of personal control over physical skills.
- BOccurs at 6-11 years of age; a key event during this period is feeding. To achieve autonomy, the child must be able to source their own food and necessary supplies.
- COccurs at birth-18 months; a key event during this period is toilet training. Autonomy is achieved when children can develop a sense of personal control over physical skills.
- DOccurs at 6-11 years of age; a key event during this period is friendships. To achieve autonomy, a child must be able to make friendships without parental assistance.
18Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Intiative V Guilt'?
- AOccurs from 3-5 years; a key event during this period is exploration. Children need to establish power and control over their environment, leading them to a sense of purpose.
- BOccurs from 3-5 years; a key event during this period is pre-school. Children need to cope with new social and academic demands.
- COccurs from 6-11 years; a key event during this period is school. Children need to cope with new social and academic demands.
- DOccurs from 2-3 years; a key event during this period is exploration. Children need to establish power and control over their environment, leading them to a sense of purpose.
19Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Industry V Inferiority'?
- AOccurs from 6-11 years; a key event during this period is schooling. Industry is achieved when the child is able to cope with the new social and academic demands.
- BOccurs from 3-5 years; a key event during this period is schooling. Industry is achieved when the child is able to cope with the new social and academic demands.
- COccurs from 6-11 years; a key event during this period is social relationships. Success is achieved when children feel valued and useful within their friendship groups.
- DOccurs from 3-5 years; a key event during this period is social relationships. Success is achieved when children feel valued and useful within their friendship groups.
20Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Identity V Role Confusion'?
- AOccurs from 12-18 years; a key event during this period is social relationships. Success in this stage leads to a formed ability to develop a sense of self and stay to true to oneself.
- BOccurs from 6-11 years; a key event during this period is social relationships. Success in this stage leads to a formed ability to develop a sense of self and stay to true to oneself.
- COccurs from 12-18 years; a key event during this period is intimate relationships. Success in this stage is achieved when individuals are able to develop an identity in combination with their partner.
- DOccurs from 19-40 years; a key event during this period is intimate relationships. Success in this stage is achieved when individuals are able to develop an identity in combination with their partner.
21Which of the following is true of Erikson's psychosocial stage 'Intimacy V Isolation'?
- AOccurs from 19-40 years; a key event during this period is relationships. Intimacy is achieved when the individual can form intimate, loving relationships with others.
- BOccurs from 12-18 years; a key event during this period is relationships. Intimacy is achieved when the individual can form intimate, loving relationships with others.
- COccurs from 19-40 years; a key event during this period is relationships. Success in this stage is achieved when the individual is able to interact with people in passing.
- DOccurs from 12-18 years; a key event during this period is relationships. Intimacy is achieved when the individual engages in sexual activity.
22Which of the following statements accurately describes the most sophisticated self-theory seen during late adolescence?
- A"I am a boy, I am five, and I like playing sport"
- B"I am a feminist, I am creative, and I support the Labor party"
- C"I am a feminist, I am creative, and I support the Labor party. I am happy and extroverted with friends, but sad and quiet at home"
- D"I am a female, and I am usually happy, and I am in high school"
23Which of the following statements accurately describes identity diffusion?
- AI haven't really thought about who I am, or who I am going to be yet.
- BMy parents are Catholic, so I am going to be Catholic.
- CI have considered many religions, including Catholicism, which I was raised as. I have decided to convert to Buddhism.
- DI was brought up being taught how to run the family farm, but I am considering other career options currently.
24Which of the following statements accurately describes identity foreclosure?
- AMy parents were doctors, so I will be too.
- BI have not thought about who I am, or what I want to be.
- CI believe I want to be a doctor, I am just making my final decisions about it now.
- DMy parents were doctors, but I am looking into being a vet.
25Which of the following statements accurately describes identity moratorium?
- AI have been brought up Christian, but am currently looking into Catholicism.
- BMy parents were Christian, therefore I will be too.
- CI haven't given any thought as to who I am or who I want to be.
- DI have considered many options, and have decided to practice Buddhism.
26Which of the following statements accurately describes identity achievement?
- AI have considered many different career options, and I have decided that I am going to be a doctor.
- BMy parents were doctors so I am going to be a doctor also.
- CBecause my parents were doctors and unhappy, I am going to do something other than be a doctor.
- DMy parents were doctors, but I am looking into some career options of my own.
27Which of the following do NOT have a major influence on identify formation?
- ACognitive development and scholastic opportunities
- BParental relationships and influence
- CSociocultural influences
- DEmotional regulation
28At what age does gender constancy occur?
- A5-7 years
- B2-4 years
- C3-5 years
- D6-8 years
29At what age does gender-typed behaviour begin?
- A2 years
- B3 years
- C5 years
- D12 years
30During which period are racial and prejudicial attitudes influenced by parents most strongly?
- AAt 3 years
- BAt 7 years
- CAdolescence
- DAdulthood
31The child may be engaged in seemingly random movements, with no clear objective. This best describes which type of play?
- AUnoccupied play
- BSolitary play
- COnlooker play
- DMulti-dimension play
32The child plays alone with different toys or other objects, and with no direct or indirect awareness of or involvement with other children, even if nearby. This best describes which type of play?
- ASolitary play
- BOnlooker play
- CUnoccupied play
- DOnly-child play
33The child watches others play without actually entering into the activities. The child is clearly involved with what is happening, and is usually within speaking distance of the participants. This best describes which type of play?
- AOnlooker play
- BSolitary play
- CUnoccupied play
- DExcluded play
34Involves two or more children playing side-by-side in close proximity and with an awareness of each other's presence, often with the same toy or enjoying similar activity, but do not share toys, talk, or interact except in very minimal ways. This best describes which type of play?
- AParallel play
- BAssociative play
- CCooperative play
- DSolitary play
35Children engage in a common activity and talk about it with each other, but do not assign tasks or roles to particular individuals and are not very clear about common goals. This describes best which type of play?
- AOnlooker play
- BParallel play
- CCooperative play
- DAssociative play
36Children consciously form into groups to make something, attain a goal, or dramatise a situation. One or two members organise and direct the activity with children assuming different roles and responsibilities. Which type of play does this most accurately describe?
- AGroup play
- BParallel play
- CCooperative play
- DAssociative play
37Identify the categories of Grussec and Lytton's play typology:
- AFunctional, constructive, pretend, and games with rules
- BOnlooker, parallel, associative, and cooperative play
- CSolitary, onlooker, parallel, and cooperative
- DFunctional, fine motor, pretend, and gross motor
38What emotions are present from birth?
- AInterest, disgust, and contentment
- BDisgust, contentment, and discomfort
- CAnger, sadness, and joy
- DSurprise, joy, and anger
39What emotions appear in the 2-7 month period in infants?
- AAnger, sadness, joy, and surprise
- BInterest, disgust, and contentment
- CEmbarassment, shame, and guilt
- DEnvy, pride, and happiness
40Self-conscious emotions (including embarrassment, shame, guilt, envy, and pride), are called so because:
- AEach involves some damage or enhancement to our sense of self
- BEach is detrimental to our sense of self
- CEach improves our sense of self
- DEach requires self-recognition and an understanding of rules or standards for evaluating one's conduct
41Self-evaluative emotions, including shame, guilt and pride, are called so because:
- AThey either enhance or are detrimental to our sense of self
- BThey are detrimental to our sense of self
- CThey enhance our sense of self
- DThey require self-recognition and an understanding of rules or standards for evaluating one's conduct
42Regarding emotional display rules, which of the following is FALSE:
- AEmotional display rules vary across cultures
- BEvery culture has similar or the same emotional display rules
- CA child who feigns pleasure at a displeasing present has mastered Westernised emotional display rules
- DAt age 3, children can begin to disguise, suppress, and replace emotions
43Social referencing beings to occur at 7-10 months. This refers to:
- AUsing others' emotional expressions to infer the meaning of otherwise ambiguous situations
- BIf other people are happy, the infant will display this emotion also
- CInfants learn facial expressions and emotions from others, and put these into use at a later date
- DChildren learn emotional display rules from social referencing
44The 3 components of emotional competence include:
- ACompetent emotional expressivity, competent emotional regulation, and competent emotional knowledge
- BCompetent in being quiet and still, competent behavioural skills, and competent communication of emotions
- CCompetent emotional expressivity, competent in raising the moods of others, and competent social referencing
- DCompetent in maintaining positive moods, competent communication skills, and competent emotional knowledge
45There are six dimensions to temperaments. Identify which of the following is NOT one of these core dimensions:
- AFearful distress
- BIrritable distress
- CPositive affect
- DActivity level
- EAttention span/persistence
- FRhythmicity
- GDesire for social engagement
46Thomas and Chess' notion of 'goodness of fit' refers to:
- ADevelopment being optimised when parents' child rearing practices are sensitively adapted to the child's temperamental characteristics
- BDevelopment being delayed when parents' child rearing practices are sensitively adapted to the child's temperamental characteristics
- CDevelopment being optimised when parents' child rearing practices are standardised regardless of temperament
- DDevelopment is delayed if parents do not adjust their lives properly around their children
47Identify the correct order in which the phases of attachment occur:
- ASocial phase, the phase of indiscriminate attachments, the specific attachment phase, and the phase of multiple attachments
- BThe phase of indiscriminate attachments, the specific attachment phase, the phase of multiple attachments, and the social phase
- CSocial phase, the specific attachment phase, the phase of indiscriminate attachments, and the phase of multiple attachments
- DThe phase of multiple attachments, the specific attachment phase, the phase of indiscriminate attachments, and the social phase,
48"To love you, I must know you will always be there". This statement refers most closely to which of the following theories of attachment?
- APsychoanalytic theory
- BLearning theory
- CCognitive developmental theory
- DEthological theory
49Stranger anxiety occurs at _____, and is _______________:
- A7-9 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infant is approached by an unfamiliar person
- B9-18 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infant is approached by an unfamiliar person
- C7-9 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infant is separated from the person(s) to whom they are securely attached
- D9-18 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infant is separated from the person(s) to whom they are securely attached
50Separation anxiety occurs at _____, and is ____________:
- A6-9 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infants are separated from the person(s) to whom they are securely attached
- B9-18 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infants are separated from the person(s) to whom they are securely attached
- C6-9 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infants are approached by a stranger
- D9-18 months; a wary or fretful reaction when infants are separated from their home environment
51Four types of attachment types have been proposed. These include __________,__________, __________, and __________. The most common type of attachment is __________.
- ASecure, resistant, avoidant, and disorganised; secure
- BSecure, resistant, avoidant, and disorganised; disorganised
- CSecure, wary, infactuated, and disorganised; secure
- DSecure, wary, infactuated, and disorganised; infactuated
52A child who has a secure attachment has most likely experienced:
- APositive attitudes from parents, and parents are sensitive to infant's needs
- BMostly positive attitudes from parents, but the parents often have bursts of anger
- CParents are inflexible in their schedules, only providing care for the child at specific times
- DPositive attitudes from strangers, and strangers are sensitive to infant's needs
53A child who has a positive model of themselves, but a negative model of others (according to the 'working models' theory), most likely has which attachment type:
- AAvoidant attachment
- BSecure attachment
- CResistant attachment
- DDisorganised attachment
54A child has only ever known their family dog-a small chihuahua. Upon seeing a large Labrador, his mother explains that this is also a dog. The child therefore adds this image to his existing schema of dogs. This is a process best known as:
- AAssimilation
- BAccommodation
- CMaturation
- DReflexive learning
55Identify the correct ordering of the 6 substages of Piaget's sensorimotor period:
- ASimple reflexes, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, coordination of secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular motions, and beginnings of thought.
- BSimple reflexes, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular reactions, coordination of secondary reactions, and beginnings of thought.
- CBeginnings of thought, simple reflexes, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular reactions, and coordination of secondary reactions.
- DBeginnings of thought, primary circular reactions, secondary circular reactions, tertiary circular reactions, coordination of secondary reactions, and simple reflexes.
56Which of the following is NOT a limitation of children's thinking during Piaget's preoperational stage?
- ACentration
- BLack of knowledge regarding conservation
- CEgocentrism
- DObject permanence
57The concrete operational stage refers to the ability to solve problems regarding:
- ATangible objects
- BAbstract problems
- CHypothetical-deductive reasoning
- DTheorising cause and effect
58Which of the following is NOT something a child learns to do in the formal operational stage:
- ASolve abstract problems
- BUse hypothetical-deductive reasoning
- CApply logic to situations
- DUnderstand knowledge of conservation
59When a child is aggressive, but their main goal is to gain access to objects, space, or privileges, this aggression is best described as:
- AImmature aggression
- BHostile aggression
- CInstrumental aggression
- DRelational aggression
60The stages of the social information-processing theory of aggression are: encode, interpret, ________, generate possible strategies, __________, and ___________.
- AFormulate a goal; evaluate which strategy to employ; enact response
- BEvaluate which strategy to employ; enact response, evaluate enacted strategy
- CFormulate a goal; enact first response; enact scond response
- DEvaluate which strategy to employ; enact first response; enact scond response
61Which of the following is NOT shown to be common in the nature of bullies:
- AMay have been bullied themselves
- BHave high self esteem
- CHave low self esteem
- DView aggression positively
62Which one of the following is NOT a stage in Piaget's theory of moral development?
- APre-moral
- BHeternomous
- CAutonomous
- DSocially-defined
63If someone said that they would cheat if they knew that they would not get caught, then they would be considered to be in the ________ level of morality, in stage __.
- APreconventional; 1
- BPreconventional; 2
- CPostconventional; 6
- DConventional; 3
64If an individual said that they would let you copy their homework, if they could also copy yours from another subject, then this individual would be placed in the ____ level of morality, in stage __.
- APreconventional; 2
- BConventional; 3
- CConventional; 4
- DPreconventional; 1
65If an individual decided not to do something to someone, because they want to be liked by them, then this individual would be considered to be in the _____ level of morality, in stage __.
- AConventional; 3
- BConventional; 4
- CPre-conventional; 2
- DPost-conventional; 5
66If a child says "you can't do that, because the teacher said not to!", you can assume that they are in the ____ level of morality, in stage __.
- AConventional; 4
- BConventional; 3
- CPreconventional; 2
- DPostconventional; 5
67In Kohlberg's scenario of the man stealing the medicine for his wife because he couldn't afford it, if an individual stated that this may have been a case where the rule needed breaking, you could assume that they are in ______ level of morality, and in stage __.
- APost-conventional; 5
- BPost-conventional; 6
- CConventional; 3
- DConventional; 4
68If an individual is acting consistently in such a way that they believe is right, regardless of punishment, or laws, this person is probably in the ______ level of morality, in stage __.
- APost-conventional; 6
- BConventional; 3
- CPost-conventional; 5
- DConventional; 4
69The basic units of sound refers to:
- APhonemes
- BMorphemes
- CSemantics
- DPragmatics
70The word 'elephant' is an example of a ____ morpheme, whereas '-s' is an example of a _____ morpheme.
- AFree; bound
- BBound; free
- CPragmatic; semantic
- DSemantic; pragmatic
71Rules that specify how words are to be combined to form meaningful phrases and sentences refers to:
- ASyntax
- BSemantics
- CPragmatics
- DMorphology
72The suggestion that language is learned by imitation (of adults) and reinforcement, is most strongly correlated with the _______________ theory of language development.
- ALearning/empiricist
- BNativist
- CInteractionist
- DCognitive
73At what ages does 'cooing' begin (e.g. 'ooh' and 'aaah')?
- A2 months
- B4-6 months
- CFrom birth
- D7 months
74At what age does babbling (consonants added to speech, although words do not convey meaning) occur?
- A4-6 months
- B2 months
- C10-12 months
- D8 months
75At what age do infants begin to reserve certain sounds for certain situations (for example, 'mm' when making requests, thus indicating knowledge of meaning)?
- A2 months
- B4-6 months
- C6-8 months
- D10-12 months
76At what age do gestures and non-verbal responses tend to begin?
- A7 months
- B4-6 months
- C10-12 months
- D8-10 months
77Pointing at something to draw attention to it is an example of a(n) ________ gesture, whereas by tugging on a caregiver's leg, indicating that they want to be picked up, is a(n) ________ gesture.
- ADeclarative; imperative
- BImperative; declarative
- CIndicative; meaningful
- DMeaningful; indicative
78Using one word to represent a sentence (e.g. 'ball', to represent 'I want the ball'), is an example of a:
- AHolophrase
- BMonophrase
- CTelegraphic phrase
- DImmature sentence
79Comprehension via the process of fast-mapping occurs at ______, but is not expressive until ______.
- A13-15 months; 24-30 months
- B15-18 months; 18-24 months
- C12-14 months; 18-24 months
- D12-24 months; 24-36 months
80When a child speaks using only critical words to a sentence, for example, 'kitty go, ' this is an example of:
- AHolophrases
- BTelegraphic speech
- CDual phrases
- DPragmatic speech
81When a child says 'I runned' instead of 'I ran', this is an example of:
- ASpeech error
- BOverregulation
- CPragmatic development
- DMotherese
82At what age can children understand illocutionary intent (underlying meaning)?
- A3 years
- B1 year
- C2 years
- D4 years
83Which of the following is NOT part of criteria A for ASD?
- APersistent deficits in social communication and social interactions across multiple contexts
- BDeficits in nonverbal communicative behaviours used for social interaction
- CDeficits in developing, maintaining, and understanding relationships
- DRestricted, repetitive patterns of behaviour, interests, or activities
84Which of the following are NOT part of criteria B for ASD? Restricted, repetitive patterns of behaviour, interest, or activities over at least two of the following:
- AStereotyped or repetitive motor movements
- BUse of objects or speech
- CHighly restricted, fixated interests that are abnormal in intensity or focus
- DInsistence on different routines every day
85In higher functioning individuals with ASD, what is the male:female ratio of prevalence?
- A4:1
- B9:1
- C!:1
- D4:2
86Which of the following is NOT a proposed causal factor of ASD?
- AWeaker central coherence
- BExtreme male brain
- CExtreme female brain
- DExecutive functioning disabilities
87Under the DSM-V criteria, the prevalence for ADHD is said to be __. The concordance rate between monozygotic twins is up to __.
- A8%; 80%
- B80%; 8%
- C18%; 80%
- D80%; 18%
88Which of the following is NOT an explanation used to explain why ASD is less prevalent in females?
- AFemales may have innately better social skills
- BDiagnoses may not recognize female manifestations of ASD
- CFemales may have a larger innate desire to socialise
- DFemales possess the Y chromosome, thus exposing them less to the disorder
89Which of the following is NOT a presentation of ADHD?
- AADHD predominantly inattentive presentation
- BADHD predominantly hyperactive/impulsive presentation
- CADHD combined presentation
- DADHD attention-deficit presentation
90Which of the following is NOT required for a diagnosis of ADHD?
- AIf the individual is <17, 6 diagnostic criteria must be present
- BIf the individual is >17, 5 diagnostic criteria must be present
- CSymptoms must be present before 12 years of age
- DThe individual must have a co-existing psychotic disorder
91There is no evidence to suggest that ADHD is a brain-based dysfunction
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
92Which of the following is the most effective treatment for ADHD?
- AStimulants such as Ritalin, Dexedrine, and Amphetamines
- BCognitive Behaviour Therapy
- CCognitive Behaviour Therapy in combination with stimulants such as Ritalin, Dexedrine, and Amphetamines
- DThis disorder resolves with age and maturity
93Which of the following is not a risk factor for Schizophrenia?
- APrenatal stressors
- BDrug use/abuse
- CObstetric complications
- DLiving within a functional family environment
94The average age of onset for Schizophrenia is __ in men, and __ in women.
- A18; 25
- B25; 18
- C18; 18
- D18; 22
95Schizophrenia tends to affect ___ more predominantly, with a(n) ______ onset, and generally more severe symptoms
- AMen; earlier
- BMen; later
- CFemales; earlier
- DFemales; later
96(RE Schizophrenia) In 10 years post-diagnosis, ___ of patients completely recover, and ___ are much improved
- A25%; 25%
- B25%; 50%
- C50%; 25%
- DOne in 3 individuals diagnosed
97Violence towards others is a symptom of Schizophrenia
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
98Which of the following is NOT part of the neurobiological explanation for schizophrenia?
- AImbalances of dopamine and glutamate exist
- BVentricles in the brain are larger
- CThere tends to be less grey matter in the brain
- DThere tends to be more white matter in the brain
99Which of the following is a negative symptom of Schizophrenia?
- AHallucinations
- BDelusions
- CFlat affect
- DMovement disorders
100Eating disorders affect approximately __ of the Australian population
- A9%
- B15%
- C11%
- D21%
101Which of the following is NOT a long-term consequence of eating disorders?
- ASocial isoloation
- BIncreased social support
- CMedical complications
- DPsychological illness
102Which of the following distinguishes Bulimia from Binge-Eating disorder?
- ABulimia does not involve compensatory behaviours for binge eating, whereas binge-eating disorder does
- BBulimia involves compensatory behaviours for binge eating, whereas binge-eating disorder does not
- CBulimia does not involve binge eating, whereas binge-eating disorder does
- DBulimia compensatory behaviours include only exercise, whereas binge-eating disorder compensatory behaviours include laxative and enema abuse.
103Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for developing an eating disorder?
- AHaving diabetes
- BHaving an obsession with food and dieting
- CGoing to a public high school
- DLiving in Westernised cultures
104Which of the following is true of the proximodistal principle?
- AControlling your hand before your arm
- BControlling your fingers before your hand
- CControlling your foot before your toes
- DControlling your toes before your foot
105Which of the following is true of the cephalocaudal principle?
- AControlling your torso before your legs
- BControlling your legs before your torso
- CControlling your legs before your arms
- DControlling your feet before your hands
106At what age are children considered to be at the 'schematic' stage of drawing?
- A6 years
- B5 years
- C4 years
- D8 years
107Which of the following is NOT a proposed effect of sport in child development?
- APoorer academic grades
- BImproved heart and lung function
- CLower obesity rates
- DImproved sleep
108Which of the following is NOT a symptom of dyspraxia?
- ADelayed milestones
- BDeficits in memory
- CDeficits in attention
- DFacial abnormalities
109Which of the following is not a suggested treatment for dyspraxia?
- AProviding scaffolding and practice for the child
- BAdapting the environment to the child's needs
- CEngaging specific training
- DRouting the child to achieve milestones earlier than their peers
110Which of the following are NOT factors that may impair motor development?
- AMuscle tone and strength
- BMotor planning
- CSensory processing
- DEmotional regulation
111Which of the following is not an example of a teratogen in pregnant women?
- ABlood disorders
- BTemperature
- CDiet
- DPersonality
112DNA is:
- AThe information coded in genes that is then copied onto Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
- BComprised of Ribonucleic acid (RNA)
- CThe biological structure underpinning every human attribute and trait
- DThe unchangeable, static biological blueprint we all possess
113When we inherit characteristics from our parents, the form of genetic transmission is via:
- ADominant alleles and recessive alleles
- BDominant alleles, but not recessive alleles
- CCo-dominant alleles
- DDominant, recessive and co-dominant alleles
114If I have two blue-eyed parents and I have brown eyes, I can say that my brown eyes are:
- AAn indication that I was probably adopted
- BA phenotypic manifestation of my genotype
- CA genotypic manifestation of my phenotype
- DUnrelated to my genetic inheritance
115Organogenesis occurs during the:
- AFoetal gestational period
- BGerminal period
- CEmbryonic period
- DFoetal period
116A synapse is
- AA connection between neurons
- BEmpty spaces between neurons
- CThe fatty sheath covering neurons
- DThe last part of the brain to develop
117During brain development in adolescence:
- AThe neurons are stripped of their myelin to facilitate quicker transmission between neurons
- BThe brain has already reached full maturity and only changes when we learn skills
- CSynapses are pruned and myelin developed
- DMore synapses are created rapidly to deal with larger amounts of information processing
118Bones and other internal organs develop from
- AThe introderm
- BThe ectoderm
- CThe endoderm
- DThe mesoderm
119Children’s tendency to associate with same-sex playmates and to think of the other sex as an out-group is known as:
- AGender segregation
- BGender differentiation
- CGender separation
- DGender avoidment
120Which of the following is true of Stereotypes?
- AThey are widely shared knowledge structures that are learnt through socialization
- BThey are always based on facts
- CThey are distinct cognitive structures
- DThey are widely shared knowledge structures that are learnt through socialization, AND They are distinct cognitive structures
121Children involved in a game of ‘tag’ are demonstrating which type of play?
- ASolitary play
- BParallel play
- COnlooker play
- DCooperative play
122According to Erikson’s theory of psychosocial stages of development, children aged 6-11 years are typically dealing with which basic conflict?
- Ainitiative versus guilt
- Binitiative versus industry
- Cindustry versus inferiority
- Dindustry versus guilt
123Children generally demonstrate self recognition using the rouge test at approximately
- A18-24 months of age
- B15-17 months of age
- C12-15 months of age
- DNone of the above
124Which of the following have been identified as attachment-related fears in infancy:
- AStranger anxiety
- BSeparation Anxiety
- CSeparation Anxiety AND Stranger anxiety
- DImprinting
125Infants who construct a positive working model of both themselves and their caregivers can be expected to develop which type of attachment style to their caregiver:
- ASecure attachment
- BResistant attachment
- CAvoidant attachment
- DDisorganized/disoriented attachment
126An infant who shows little distress when their mother leaves the room and seems to ignore her upon her return is likely to have which type of attachment:
- ASecure attachment
- BResistant attachment
- CAvoidant attachment
- DDisorganized/disoriented attachment
127The notion that the type of attachment that an infant develops with a caregiver depends primarily on the kind of caregiving the child received from that person is known as:
- AThe Attachment hypothesis
- BThe Caregiving hypothesis
- CThe Emotional support hypothesis
- DNone of the above
128A child whose behaviour is somewhat inactive and somewhat moody, and is slow to adapt to new persons and situations could be described as having which type of temperament?
- AEasy temperament
- BDifficult temperament
- CSlow-to-warm up temperament
- DInsecure temperament
129Social learning approaches to aggression contend that aggression is based on:
- AObservation and learning
- BGenetic pre-disposition
- CNeurological maturation
- DAll answers provided
130Which of the following statements best summarises Dodge’s social information-processing theory of aggression?
- AAggressive behaviour is the result of inferring hostile intent in others and reacting angrily.
- BAggressive behaviour is the result of receiving a (often inadvertent) reward for aggression.
- CAggressive behaviour depends on the social information provided to the child by the primary caregiver.
- DAggression develops as a result of biological and cognitive maturation.
131Boys are more physically and verbally aggressive on average than girls. This is most likely due to:
- AHigher testosterone levels in boys.
- BParents react more negatively to aggressive behaviours from girls than boys.
- CParents play rougher with boys than girls.
- DAll answers provided
132Maggie is supervising a play date between her daughter, Isla, and Isla’s friend Lily when she sees Isla kick Lily in an effort to avoid sharing the puzzle she is working on. Lily starts to cry. If Maggie wishes to foster compassion and altruism in Isla, the most appropriate response to Isla’s behaviour would be
- ATo walk away from the situation to avoid inadvertently rewarding Isla for her aggressive behaviour.
- BTo smack Isla on the bottom immediately, so that Isla makes the connection between her aggressive actions, and the punitive consequence.
- CTo immediately yell at Isla and remove her from the situation.
- DTo explain to Isla the harm and distress she has caused to Lily
133You are administering Piaget’s moral-decisions exercise on Laurie. You read two stories to Laurie. In story A, Bob is trying to make a surprise breakfast in bed for his mum when he accidently knocks over four glasses, breaking them. In story B, while his mother isn’t looking, Jeff tries to steal a muffin from the kitchen bench when he knocks over one glass and breaks it. After the stories, you ask Laurie which child is naughtier, Bob or Jeff. Laurie says Jeff is the naughtier child because he was trying to do something naughty. How would you classify Laurie’s stage of moral development?
- APremoral
- BHeteronomous morality
- CAutonomous morality
- DSocial-order-maintaining morality
134Egocentrism may best be defined as:
- AA desire to play alone rather than with others
- BA lack of empathy
- CThe realization that others have internal states such as emotions and desires
- DThinking that is dominated by an infant’s own experiences, perceptions and position in space
135A child who picks up a stick and plays with it pretending it is a sword is demonstrating which of the following:
- ASymbolic representation
- BAchievement of Formal Operations
- CEngagement in cooperative play
- DNone of the answers provided
136When children answer incorrectly in Piaget’s classic Conservation Task experiments, what cognitive developmental characteristic are they proposed to have demonstrated?
- ASchemes
- BCentration
- CConcrete operations
- DSymbolic representations
137Which of the following is not a characteristic of Concrete Operational Thought?
- AThe ability to conserve across a wide range of conservation tasks
- BThe ability to manipulate mental representations about the outside to solve problems
- CThe ability to reason about immediate reality
- DThe ability to reason about abstract possibilities
138The ability to create and test hypotheses through systematic observation is called:
- AHypothetico-deductive reasoning
- BHypothetico-inductive reasoning
- CObservation-based reasoning
- DPiagetian reasoning
139A child who utters the sentence “ Home Daddy come” has not yet mastered the rules of
- Asyntax
- Bpragmatics
- Csemantics
- Dmorphology
140When a child says ' I runned home' they demonstrate
- AExposure to poor adult language models
- BOverregularlisation errors
- CSyntactic bootstrapping
- DNone of the answers provided
141According to the interactionist perspective, language development is influenced by
- AChildren’s cognitive development and modified language used by family members
- BAn innate ‘learning activation device’ that is programmed to acquire language
- CDifferential reinforcement from family as words are acquired and used
- DAppropriate exposure to language during a sensitive period of development
142What is the rate of prevalence of autism in boys compared to girls?
- ABoys are twice more likely to be diagnosed with autism than girls
- BBoys are half as likely to be diagnosed with autism as girls
- CThe prevalence is the same
- DBoys are 3-5 times more likely to be diagnosed with autism than girls
143Given recent revisions in the diagnostic criteria for ASD, it is expected that prevalence rates will likely
- Adecrease because fewer children will be diagnosed
- Bdecrease because fewer children will develop ASD
- Cremain stable because there have been no changes to diagnostic criteria
- Dincrease because practitioners are more aware of the condition
144What are the main symptoms of ADHD?
- AInattention, recklessness and hyperactivity
- BImpulsivity and low concentration
- CFidgeting, inattention and hyperactivity
- DHyperactivity and inattention
145ADHD is thought to develop due to
- Apoor diet
- Bfailure of carers to set appropriate expectations and boundaries
- Cfailure of carers to set appropriate expectations and boundaries AND poor diet
- DNone of the answers provided
146Children with ADHD respond best to treatments involving
- ASedatives and behavioural modification
- BCognitive behavioural therapy and stimulants
- CA good smack
- DBehavioursal modification and stimulants
147Anorexia nervosa (AN) is primarily characterized by:
- AAn intense fear of gaining weight and refusal to maintain a normal body weight
- BA lack of appetite which leads to subsequent weight loss
- CRepetitive, constant exercise with a view to losing weight
- DEpisodes of purging and laxative use with a view to losing weight
148Bulimia Nervosa is primarily characterized by
- AAn intense fear of gaining weight and refusal to maintain a normal body weight
- BRecurrent episodes of binge eating and a sense of a lack of control over the binges followed by compensatory behaviour
- CRecurrent episodes of binge eating and a sense of a lack of control over the binges
- DRepetitive, constant exercise with a view to losing weight
149Current estimates are that approximately
- A1% adolescent girls develop anorexia
- BApproximately 15% children with anorexia are male
- C40% of those with anorexia are at risk of developing bulimia
- D40% of those with anorexia are at risk of developing bulimia AND 1% adolescent girls develop anorexia
150People with schizophrenia are at high risk of
- Aself harm
- Buncontrollable violence
- Cdomestic violence
- Dhaving a split personality
151People with schizophrenia tend to have brains that
- Aare larger than most people
- Bhave larger fluid-filled cavities in them than most people
- Chave less white matter and more grey matter than most people
- Dare more active than most people
152Which of the following statements about reflexes is true?
- AReflexes are critical diagnostic indicators during infancy as they indicate neurological integrity.
- BWhile reflexes once held survival value to human infants, they are no longer relevant indicators of healthy development.
- CReflexes are critical diagnostic indicators during infancy as they indicate muscular integrity.
- DReflexes are critical diagnostic indicators during infancy as they indicate social development.
153The impact of environment on motor development may best be summed up by saying:
- AEnvironment and practice are useful tools for the development of motor skills, but are not necessary.
- BEnvironmental factors can account for all the motor development observed in infants and children.
- CThe environment is not a sufficient condition for the acquisition of motor skills but plays an important role in timing of skill acquisition.
- DPractice makes perfect – the more children practice motor skills, the faster they acquire them!
154Sophie is about to turn 4 years old. Assuming she is on a normal developmental trajectory, what motor skills would her parents expect her to develop in the coming year?
- AGross motor skills such as throwing and catching.
- BFine motor skills such as cursive writing.
- CFine motor skills such as drawing.
- DFine motor skills such as drawing AND Gross motor skills such as throwing and catching.
155Three - four year old children around the world typically draw people as ‘tadpole figures’ with a large head and no body. It is not until age 5 or 6 that most children draw human forms with a differentiated head and body. What is the most likely reason for this?
- ABecause very young children are still developing the ability to interpret and understand sensory input.
- BBecause older children have the ability to attend to a task for a longer period of time.
- CBecause including a body with attached arms and legs requires fine motor skills which very young children are unlikely to possess.
- DBecause including a body with attached arms and legs requires fine motor skills which very young children are unlikely to possess, AND Because very young children are still developing the ability to interpret and understand sensory input.
156According to the dynamic systems theory, a child’s motor skills are:
- AGenetically programmed responses that emerge as dictated by maturation.
- BGenetically programmed responses that emerge as dictated by maturation and opportunities to practice.
- CIncreasingly complex systems of action that represents the most effective way of achieving some objective using the limited capabilities the child may have.
- DAre dependent on a dynamic vicarious learning relationship between the child and the primary caregiver
157Which of the following statements is true?
- AChromosomes are made up of DNA
- BGenes are part of chromosomes
- CGenes are made up of DNA
- DAll of the answers provided
158With respect to hair colour, ____ is a genotype and ____ is a phenotype:
- AAO, group A
- BThe dominant allele of a gene, the recessive allele of a gene
- CBrunette hair, brunette hair gene
- DBrunette hair gene, brunette hair
159In blood groups, the A allele is dominant over the O allele. Therefore, if a father’s blood
type is AO, and a mother’s is OO, their child:- AWill have blood group A
- BWill have blood group OO.
- CHas a 50/50 chance of having either blood group AO or OO.
- DHas a one in three chance of having each of blood groups A, AO or OO
160Which of the following is not a period within prenatal development?
- AEmbryonic period
- BPlacental period
- CGerminal period
- DFoetal period
161Myelination refers to the
- AGradual pruning of synapses
- BThe ‘use it or lose it’ concept in neural development
- CThe insulation of brain synapses
- DThe insulation of mature brain cells
162Which of the following is not true of the development of emotional expressions:
- AAdults can identify both positive and negative emotions equally well
- BAdults find it easy to identify baby’s positive emotions from facial expressions
- CBabies communicate their feelings through their facial expressions
- DEmotional expressions become easier to identify as children get older
163Expression of self-evaluative emotions requires:
- ASelf recognition
- BAn understanding of the rules or standards for evaluating one’s conducts
- CAn understanding of the rules or standards for evaluating one’s conducts AND self recognition
- DAcquisition of all five basic emotions
164Emotional display rules:
- AAre culturally defined
- BEmerge around 2 years of age
- CAre a set of emotions present at birth
- DOnly apply to self-conscious emotions
165Activity level, irritability/negative emotionality, attention span, fearfulness and sociability
(or positive affect) have been identified as important components of:- AEmotional regulation
- BTemperament
- CSocial referencing
- DEmotional competence
166 ‘Goodness of fit’ is the term used to describe:
- AThe notion that a child’s development is likely to be optimized when a parent’s
child rearing practices match the child’s temperament - BA slow to warm up temperament, where a child may be slow to adapt to new
people or situations - CAn easy temperament, where a child is easy going and typically in a positive
mood - DA tendency to withdraw from unfamiliar people or situations
- AThe notion that a child’s development is likely to be optimized when a parent’s
167If a child displays tendencies to prefer same-sex activities over those typically linked with
the opposite sex, the child is displaying- Agender identity
- Bgender-role stereotypes
- Cgender-typed patterns of behaviour
- DNone of the answers provided
168Which of the following is an example of identity diffusion:
- A‘I’ve not really thought much about my career, I don’t know exactly what I want
to do’ - B‘My parents are teachers and so I’ll be a teacher’
- C‘I’m trying to decide if I should pursue a degree in law or psychology next year
- D'I have finally found the right job for me’
- A‘I’ve not really thought much about my career, I don’t know exactly what I want
169Which of the following is not one of the four factors thought to influence an adolescents
identity formation:- ACognitive development
- BSchooling
- CEmotional development
- DRelationship with parents
170According to Parten’s play typology, a group of children engaging in a game of tag is an
example of:- AOnlooker play
- BCooperative play
- CAssociative play
- DParallel play
171Pursuant to Grusec and Lytton’s play typology, a child digging a hole in a sandpit is an
example of:- Apretend play
- Bfunctional play
- Csolitary play
- Dunoccupied play
172Cognitive Development may best be defined as:
- AThe changes that take place in cognitive processes from birth until the beginning of
adulthood - BThe changes that take place in cognitive processes over the lifespan
- CThe changes in ways of thinking in a society over time
- DNone of the answers provided
- AThe changes that take place in cognitive processes from birth until the beginning of
173Which of the following is not one of the assumptions of Piaget’s theory of Cognitive
development:- AAll stages are universal in that they describe the pattern of development in all
children - BThe framework is domain-general
- CAll children pass through the stages in the same order and no stage can be skipped
- DNone of the answers provided
- AAll stages are universal in that they describe the pattern of development in all
174The process of incorporating a new experience into an existing scheme is known as:
- AAssimilation
- BAdaption
- CPreoperational thought
- DAccommodation
175During what age period does Object Permanence typically emerge in children?
- ABirth – 1 month
- B1 – 4 months
- C4 – 7 months
- D8 – 12 months
176Children in the Preoperational Period of cognitive development would have difficulty
understanding- ACausality
- BThe point of view of others
- CObject permanence
- DNone of the answers provided
177According to Dodge’s social information processing theory of aggression, after a child
encodes social cues, the next step they engage in is:- Ainterpret the social cues
- Brespond without adequate thought about the consequences.
- Cformulate social goals
- Dconsider strategies to deal with the social situation.
178According to the social learning approach to aggression, children may behave aggressively
because:- Ait is an inherent component of their personality
- Baggression acts as a release of stress hormone, cortisol.
- Cof their environmental conditions.
- Dof social frustration.
179Children’s aggression is likely to be exacerbated by parental conflict when:
- Athe child is exposed to the conflict on numerous occasions
- Bthe conflict is intensive and high stress.
- Cparents withdraw and become emotionally unavailable.
- Dall of the above are likely to exacerbate aggression.
180According to Piaget’s theory of moral development, a child who sees the rules of authority
figures as sacred and unalterable is likely to be in the:- Apremoral period
- B‘Good boy’ or ‘good girl’ orientation
- Csocial-order maintaining morality
- Dheteronomous morality
181The Heinz dilemma is posed to a child who responds as follows:
‘Well, stealing is wrong, but you need to consider the whole situation. Heinz knows that
there is no legal grounds for him to steal the drug. But he’s in a very difficult situation and
anybody in that situation would think it was reasonable to steal the drug”
According to Kohlberg’s levels and stages, what is the most appropriate classification
of this response?- ALevel 3, post-conventional morality, stage 5.
- BLevel 1, pre-conventional morality, stage 2
- CLevel 2, conventional morality, stage 3.
- DLevel 2, conventional morality, stage 4
182What are the main symptoms of autism?
- AHyperactivity, and impaired social interaction
- BLow energy and impaired communication
- CImpaired social communication and interaction, and restricted interests
- DAll answers provided
183The recent revision of the DSM and consequent changes to the diagnostic criteria for
Autism spectrum disorders caused some problems including:- Aincreasing the sensitivity of the assessment so that individuals who may not
previously have been diagnosed with ASD now may be. - Bimproving the specificity but reducing the sensitivity of the assessment so higher
functioning individuals may not receive the diagnosis. - Climiting the applicability of the diagnosis to females.
- Dlimiting the cultural sensitivity of the assessment.
- Aincreasing the sensitivity of the assessment so that individuals who may not
184The theory that attempts to explain autism in terms of an inability to understand another’s
knowledge and beliefs is- AThe theory of mind
- BThe theory of poor executive functioning
- CThe weak central coherence hypothesis
- DThe mirror neuron theory
185The three subtypes of ADHD are:
- Ahyperactive, impulsive, and inattentive.
- Bearly onset, late onset and mixed onset.
- Conset before 12 years, 12-16, or over 17 years old.
- Dpredominantly inattentive, predominantly hyperactive-impulsive, and combined.
186Currently, the most effective form of treatment for ADHD is:
- Astimulants such as Ritalin
- Bpsychological treatments such as CBT
- Cneuro-biological treatments such as ECT
- Dstimulants such as Ritalin AND psychological treatments such as CBT
187Which of the following is not a positive symptom of schizophrenia?
- APsychosis
- BHallucations
- CDelusions
- DReduced emotions
188Which of the following is a negative symptom of schizophrenia?
- APoverty of speech
- BDisorganized speech and thought
- CHallucinations
- DDelusions
189In terms of the prevalence and onset of schizophrenia, which of the following statements is
true:- ASchizophrenia tends to develop in early adulthood, with the average age of onset 18
years old in men, and 25 years old in women. - BSchizophrenia typically begins in childhood but is usually left undiagnosed until later
in life. - COn most occasions, schizophrenia emerges in middle adulthood, the average age of
onset (for both sexes) is 42 years. - DSchizophrenia tends to develop in early adulthood, with the average age of onset 18
years old in women, and 25 years old in men.
- ASchizophrenia tends to develop in early adulthood, with the average age of onset 18
190Current prevalence estimates of anorexia are that, at some point during the lifespan,
- AApproximately 15% of women will experience the condition
- BApproximately 1% of women will experience the condition
- CApproximately 10% of women will experience the condition
- DApproximately 5% of women will experience the condition
191The most important/influential risk factor for developing an eating disorder is:
- AExposure to body-typed images in the media.
- BGenetics
- CPersonality
- DA history of dieting
192 Which of the following is not an example of a survival reflex that is present at birth?
- AClosing both eyes when a puff of air reaches the eye
- BTurning head towards touch and opening mouth when stroked on the cheek
- CThe ‘pincer grasp’ to grip things placed in hand
- DArching back and extending arms when a sudden loud sound is heard.
193Evidence on sex difference in infant motor development:
- Asuggests that boys tend to reach motor development milestones slightly earlier
than girls. - Bsuggests that Boys tend to excel at gross motor movement while girls excel at fine
motor movement. - Csuggests that there is no difference in the development or use of motor skills by
male and female infants - Dis inconsistent and inconclusive.
- Asuggests that boys tend to reach motor development milestones slightly earlier
194Symptoms of dyspraxia include:
- Asignificant delay in reaching motor milestones
- Bproblems concentrating
- Cdelays or ‘slowness’ of speech.
- DAll answers provided
195Twelve year old Carmen is determined to beat her personal best time for 50metres
freestyle in the swimming. This is an example of:- Aachievement motivation.
- Bsporting prowess
- Cthe benefits of sport
- Dhealthy competitiveness
196We would expect a child to walk unassisted at approximately
- A6 months old
- B12 months old
- C18 months old
- D24 months old.
197The meaning of words and utterances is termed
- ASemantics
- BMorphemes
- CPragmatics
- DSyntax
198The smallest unit of meaning in a language is a ________.
- AMorpheme
- BInflection
- CLetter
- DPhoneme
199Which theorist proposed the 'language acquisition device' (LAD)?
- ALenneberg
- BNoam Chomsky
- CB.F Skinner
- DNone of the answers provided
200Infants first use gestures as a form of communication at what age?
- A8 to 10 months
- B12 months
- C12 to 18 months
- D6 months
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