Quiz
LAM II FINAL
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Perguntas do quiz (200)
1You are presented a Holstein dairy cow with chronic watery diarrhea. No other cows in the herd are affected. What would be the most likely Dx?
- ATuberculosis
- BRumen acidosis
- CParatuberculosis
- DOstertagiasis
- EParamphistomiasis
2Which European beef breed is shown in this picture?
- ACharolais
- BLimousine
- CHereford
- DShorthorn
- EBelgian Blue
3What condition would you suspect if you palpated a cow rectally and found the rumen enlarged as shown in the picture?
- ALeft abomasal displacement
- BVagal indigestion
- CAbomasal volvulus
- DLymphosarcoma
- ETraumatic reticuloperitonitis
4The most common infectious cause of neonatal calf diarrhea is
- ACryptosporidia
- BEscherichia
- CStreptococcus
- DPseudomonas
- EStaphylococcus
5Which one of the following statements is true concerning Johne's disease eradication from a cattle herd?
- ACurrent diagnostic methods allow identification of infected animals early in life.
- BA test and removal program for infected cows is the most profitable method.
- CFecal-oral transmission is less important then transmission through milk.
- DIsolating calves from cows at birth is an effective control method
- ECulling clinical cases reduces herd prevalence of infection.
6Which element is often deficient in the soil, thus predisposing to the development of grass tetany in grazing cattle
- ACopper.
- BPhosphorus
- CMolybdenum
- DZinc
- ESelenium
7Magnets given as a preventive for traumatic reticulitis in cattle should be given
- ATo yearling cattle
- BAt time of first breeding
- Cat time of first parturition
- DWhen total mixed rations are fed
- EWhen chopped feeds are included in the deit
8Which one of the following statements is true regarding the "scootch test"?
- AThis is a test used to determine the amount of rumen fill in a cow
- BTricep muscle fasiculation is usually elicited by this test
- COdontoprisis is a consistent sign of a positive reaction
- DThe test is also know as a "withers depression"
- EA positive test is a positive response; the cow flinches
9The normal pH range for rumen fluid in cattle is:
- A2.5-5.5
- B5.5-7.0
- C2.5-7.0
- D7.0-8.5
- E3.5-8.5
10Which one of the following drugs would be the therapy pf choice for a bloated cow that was just brought in after overeating on legume pasture?
- AMagnesium carbnate
- BSodium acid phosphate
- CCalcium boroglucoate
- DPoloxalene
- ETurpentine
11Regarding the salmonellosis outbreak on the Hudson farm that was discussed in an assigned reference, how was the infection introduced on the farm?
- APurchased calves from a sale barn
- BPurchased feed from a neighbor
- CContaminated water due to a broken sewer pipe
- DPurchased cows from an auction
- EA stray dog
12Which one of the following vaccines is more likely to cause an adverse reaction when given as directed to a small ruminant?
- ATetanus toxoid
- BRabies
- CClostridium perfringens C and D
- DLeptospirosis
- EPasteurella
13With respect to bovine lymphosarcoma, which one of the following statements is correct?
- AHypercalcemia is a common feature of naturally occurring cases
- BCutaneous lymphocytosis is a common cause of depression anemia in cattle
- CLymphosarcoma is a common cause of depression anemia in cattle
- DPresistent lymphocytosis is a common sign in herds with the enzootic form
- EHorn flies commonly spread the disease
14Which one of the following statements is correct?
- AFoot rot vaccination is commercially available for use in sheep and goats in the USA
- BRabies vaccine is labeled for use in goats in the United States
- CThe most common organism associated with subclinical mastitis in goats is streptococcus
- DThe somatic cell count limit for goat milk is 750,000 cells/cmm
- EGoats have a more reactive immune response then sheep
15What is the most likely diagnosis of a recently calved dairy cow with extreme depression and head pressing?
- AMeningitis
- BTetanus
- CLead toxicosis
- DBotulism
- EListeriosis
16Maningitis in neonatal food animals may often resemble:
- AHypocalcemia
- BZinc deficiency
- CHypoglycemia
- DNiacin deficiency
- EHypokalemia
17Which one of the following is TRUE regarding Clostridial myositis?
- AA stained impression smear will demonstrate Gram-positive cocci
- BBecause treatment is largely ineffective, affected cattle should be taken to the sale barn
- COnce a case is seen, one of the most important things to do is make sure the herd gets vaccinated
- DPrimarily affects young poor-doing cattle
18Horizontal grooves observed on the digits of a cow would be indicative of:
- APrevious change in the management, nutrition, or disease
- BAge, similar to ring growth on trees
- CMineral deficiency disease
- DBiotin deficiency
- ERickets
19Obstructive urolithiasis due to silica urinary calculi occurs commonly in steers and wethers raised on rangelands of the great plains of North America. Which one of the following statement is true?
- ACalculi do not develop in the mature cows bulls
- BCalculi develop in a castrated males because the diameter of the urethra is smaller then normal
- CCalculi develop in cattle raised on rangelands because of the relatively high concentration of selenium in the diet
- DCalculi formation cannot be prevented by the consumption of sodium chloride at a level of 4% by weight of the total ration
- EWhen the urinary bladder ruptures in a steer with obstructive urolithiasis, uremia may not develop quickly because the ruminant can metabolize the urea in the rumen
20Failure to control mild endemic respiratory disease in swine caused by Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae predisposes pigs to complications. Exudative bronchopneumonia and polarthritis are most commonly seen in herbs infected with both Mycoplasma hyopneumoniae and which other organism?
- AActinomyces pyogenes
- BBordetella bronchiseptica
- CPasteurella multocida
- DFusobacterium necrophorum
- EHemophilus parasuis
21Which of these drugs are both contraindicated as injectable antibiotics in pigs and goats?
- ALincomycin, Procaine Penicillin G.
- BTilmicosin, Chloramphenicol
- CChloramphenicol, Oxytetracycline
- DLincomycin, Oxytetracycline
- ETilmicosin, Lincomycin
22Which one of the following is true concerning PRRS infections in swine?
- ARespiratory disease reduces growth rate up to 20%
- BMore than $4.00 per pig is the estimated loss associated with respiratory disease from reduced growth and feed efficiency alone
- CVeterinarians prefer to treat respiratory disease in swine with tilmicosin
- DPRRS virus attacks and kills immune system cells in the lungs
- Eall of the above are correct
23When does sheep foot rot spread more favorably?
- ADuring cold winter months inside a barn
- BDuring summer when conditions are moist
- CDuring dry autumn months
- DDuring cool spring months
- EDuring cold winter months on pasture
24Cerebellar hypoplasia in calves is associated with:
- ABovine virus diarrhea mucosal disease complex
- BInfections bovine rhinotracheitis
- CConsumption of lupines during the first 30 days of pregnancy
- DMalignant catarrhal fever
- EFoot and mouth disease
25A feeder pig operation has a problem with sudden onset of diarrhea followed by collapse and death in piglets 1-3 days old. Necropsy examination shows necro-hemorrhagic enteritis. Which one of the following would be the most likely diagnosis?
- AEnterotoxigenic Escherichia coli (ETEC)
- BClostridium perfringens Type C
- CHemorrhagic bowel syndrome.
- DBrachyspira (Serpulina) hyodysenteriae
- ELawsonia intracellularis
26Which of the following is true regarding White Muscle disease in young calves?
- AProviding selenium supplementation in a salt/mineral mix year round to all stocks is a good method to control/prevent white muscle problems in calves
- BA selenium injection at birth will effectively prevent white muscle disease and will provide adequate selenium levels until the calf is around 1-year-old
- CThe cardiac form tends to be more amendable to treatment than the skeletal form
27Which one of the following is a risk factor for urolithiasis on feedlot steers?
- AInadequate water consumption
- BHigh salt intake
- CHigh calcium intake
- DInadequate exercise
- EExcessive vitamin A intake
28Which one of the following statements is true?
- AAround 50% of all bovine lameness is in the foot
- BIt is difficult to justify antibiotic treatment of foot rot because most cases self-cure within 1-2 days
- CTo stop a horizontal hoof crack, you should create a vertical groove at the ends of the crack
- DA cow with a septic coffin joint will usually be 3-legged lame
29Which one of the following downer cow position would probably have the most favorable prognosis for return to normal function?
- AResting in right lateral recumbency and returning to that position after being turned to the other side
- BHind legs partially flexed and displaced posteriorly
- CHind legs extended behind with no attempt to change position
- DSternal recumbency with the hind legs extended along side the body
- EFrequent attempts to rise, lifting the hindlegs off the ground a few inches
30Regarding swine respiratory disease, which one of the following statements is correct?
- ACold temperature reduces the pig's ability to clear bacteria from the respiratory tract
- BPneumonia reduces average daily gain in swine
- CCrowding, mixing, and castration all may increase risk of respiratory disease in swine
- DAll of the above are correct
- EOnly B. and C. are correct
31Which one of the following disease is associated with gastrointestinal hemorrhage and blood clots in cattle?
- ACopper toxicosis
- BRota virus
- CFat necrosis
- DArsenic toxicosis
- EClostridium novyi
32What is a "presistently infected animal" with respect to bovine virus diarrhea virus?
- AAn animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero before establishing immunocompetence
- BAn animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero after establishing immunocompetence
- CAn animal that was infected within the first 120 days of life and has remained infected
- DAn animal that was infected with BVDV and recovered but remains a carrier
- EAlways an animal affected with mucosal disease
33If a cow began showing symptoms of hives immediately after being treated with procaine penicillin, what would be the drug of choice for treating the cow?
- AAntihistamine
- BCorticosteroid
- CEpinephrine
- DEphedrine
- EFlunixin meglumine
34Your client's Holstein milking cows have been experiencing an increased number of LDA's, variable dry matter intakes, low butterfat (3.3%), and increased lameness. Your analysis of the TMR shows (on a dry matter basis): CP 16.5%, ADF 20.2%, NDF 29.9%, NFC 43.6%, dietary fat 3.5%.
Which ration formulation fault is most likely?- AToo much protein
- BInsufficient fiber
- CToo much grain
- DToo much fat
- EToo much protein and too much fat
35The two most important factors in passive Ig transfer are the total immunoglobulin mass that is ingested and the time after birth when the colostrum is received
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
36The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between 80 and 130 mg\ dl
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
37The calves at highest risk of contracting neonatal disease are those from first calf heifers
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
38When cows are housed on concrete natural wear maintains the correct shape of the bovine hoof
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
39The lower critical temperature is defined as the temperature at which the pig starts not paining well because energy is the used to maintain adequate body temperature
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
40Elevated serum plasma pepsinogen values may be indicative of ostertagia infection in cattle
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
41Winter dysentery in cattle is associated with corona virus infection
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
42The most common cause for inactivity of rumen microflora is anorexia secondary to some other problem
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
43Bovine pyelonephritis is most commonly diangnosed in steers on a heavy grain feeding program
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
44Botulism is a disease that is characterized by progressive, spastic paralysis in all species of animals
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
45The two most important factors in passive Ig transfer are the total immunoglobulin mass that is ingested and the time after birth when the colostrum is received
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
46The calves at highest risk of contracting neonatal disease are those from first calf heifers
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
47Elevated serum plasma pepsinogen values may be indicative of ostertagia infection in cattle
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
48The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between 80 and 120 mg/ dl
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
49An "iceberg" disease is one in which the clinically affected animal represents a larger number of subclinical case in the herd
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
50In most cases, it is justified to treat streptococcal mastitis with antibiotics
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
51The streptococcus species that has characteristics of both contagions and environmental pathogens is S. dysgalactiae
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
52When presented with a young calf with obvious Blackleg, the most important thing that you can do for the producer is to make sure the rest of the herd is immunologically protected
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
53Selenium deficiency can result in sudden death in young (< 1 year of age) rapidly growing calves
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
54Over the counter drugs (OTC drugs) fall under AMDUCA regulations
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
55Two months after culling four of your six goats for Jone's disease you have bought new does each with a nursing kid. Choose the best management strategy for these new herd additions
- APlace them in the pen with your original goats right away to get them used to each other while the kids are young
- BBuild a separate pen to the house the new goats for as long as possible (months) to allow the organism in the original pen to die off
- CIntroduce the new goats after shoveling out all visible pellets, fencing off any standing water, and installing feeders that pervent fecal contamination
- DBuild a separate pen to house the new goats for as long as possible (months) to allow the organism in the original pen to die off, continue to test and monitor the body condition of the remaining two goats to make sure they are not infected.
56Which element is often deficient in the soil, thus predisposing to the development of grass tetany in grazing cattle
- ACopper
- BPhosphorus
- CMolybdenum
- DZinc
- ESelenium
57What are the two most common organisms isolated from a septic calf with failure of passive transfer?
- AE. coli and Actinomyces
- Bsalmonella and Mycoplasma
- CStaphylococcus and E. coli
- DStaphylococcus and Streptococcus
- EProteus and Enterococcus
58The normal pH range for rumen fluid in cattle is
- A2.5-5.5
- B5.5-7.0
- C2.5-7.0
- D7.0-8.5
- E3.5-8.5
59Which one of the following drugs would be the therapy of choice for a bloated cow that was just brought in after overeating on a legume pasture?
- AMagnesium carbonate
- BSodium acid phosphate
- CCalcium borogluconate
- DPoloxalene
- ETurpentine
60Regarding the salmonellosis outbreak on the Hudson farm that was discussed in an assigned reference, how was the infection introduced on the farm?
- APurchased calves from a sale barn
- BPurchased feed from a neighbor
- CContaminated water due to a broken sewer pipe
- DPurchased cows from an auction
- EA stray gog
61Acute enterotoxigenic colibacillosis usually occurs in calves of what age?
- AUnder 5 days
- B14 to 21 days
- C21 to 28 days
- D5 to 10 days
- E10 to 15 days
62What is your diagnosis for a dairy cow with the following clinical signs that calved normally yesterday? She was found down in lateral recumbency with opisthotonus, was groaning, and had slightly dilated responsive pupils and cool extremities.
- AHypomagnesemia
- BPolioencephalomalacia
- CNervous ketosis
- DFatty liver syndrome
- EHypocalcemia
63The CMT test is used to:
- Aconfirm clinical mastitis
- Bconfirm rupture of the gastrocnemius
- Cdetermine the type of bacteria in an intramammary infection
- Didentify cows with high somatic cell counts
64Which one of the following problems would most likely be accompanied by a neutrophilic leukocytosis and left shift?
- ALeft abomasal displacement
- BSimple indigestion
- CPreforated abomasal ulcer
- DRumen tympany
- EAbdominal fat necrosis
65The most important "other" of FANO when treating mastitis is:
- Acalcium
- Bdextrose
- Cprobiotics
- Dvitamins
66A dairy herd has serveral cows with Corynebacterium bovis intramammary infection. this is most suggestive of what?
- AThat post dipping with an effective germicide is not being done or is not being done correctly
- BThat the milkers use multi-use cloth or paper towels and are spreading the bacteria from cow to cow
- CThat the cows' environment is unsanitary
- DThat waster is being used excessively during pre-milking udder preparation
67Which of the following is the BEST means of controlling heel wart on the dairy farm?
- ACull affected cattle
- BHeel wart vaccines
- CProperly maintained and scheduled footbaths
68Which of the following is TRUE in regards to fescue foot?
- ADry gangrene is more common in summer than winter
- Bthe cheapest control measure is to replace the current infected fescue pasture with endophyte free fescue
- CA presferred means of control is to vaccinate with an endophyte vaccine prior to grazing
- DThe preferred treatment is to remove affected stock from fescue pasture
69Which one of the following is true regarding calcium homeostasis in dairy cows?
- AFeeding high calcium in pre-partum diets will stimulate the parathyroid glands
- BFeeding anionic salts to dry cows will cause mild alkalosis, thus stimulating the parathyroid gland
- CThe feed levels of phosphorus and potassium have little, if any, effect upon calcium metabolism is dry cows
- DFeeding anionic salts to dry cows will cause mild acidosis which will promote calcium absorption from the gut as well as mobilization from bone.
- EFeeding alfalfa hay free choice to close-up dry cows will stimulate calcium mobilization by the parathyroid glands
70A dairy herd several cows with Prototheca intramammary infection. What is the primary reservoir for Prototheca?
- Acontaminated teat dip
- Binfected mammary gland
- Cstraw
- Dwater
71The success rate when treating footrot early in the couse of the disease is nearly ____________
- A10%
- B35%
- C50%
- D90%
- E100%
72Leptospirosis and salmonellosis in all types of livestock is often associated with:
- APeriodic ophthalmia
- BIntravasular coagulopthy
- CVomition
- DDiarrhea
- ERodent contamination of feedstuffs
73A twelve year old Brahma cow from Texas has been brought to you for diagnosis of brisket edema, diarrhea, weight loss, and proteinuria. Your differential diagnosis will include:
- AParatuberculosis and mucosal disease
- BRenal amyloidosis and paratuberculosis
- CAbomasal parasitism and tick fever
- DHypomagnesemia and hypokalemia
- ECaudal venal caval thrombosis
74With respect to ruminant digestion, which one of the following statements is true?
- ASaliva neutralizes the acids produced during fermentation
- BDietary calcium has little effects on rumen metabolism
- CThe fiber mat is on the bottom of the rumen
- DRumen microbial protein is an insignificant source of nutrients for cattle
- EDairy cows can usually eat enough to meet their nutrient requirements, even when ration digestibility is low
75Which one of the following bovine disease would be most characterized by this group of clinical signs-sudden death, ataxia, flaccid paresis, inability to control tongue movements?
- AListeriosis
- BBovine spongiform encephalopthy
- CGrass tetany
- DLead poisoning
- EBotulism
76Which one of the following is a risk factor for urolithiasis in feedlot steers?
- AHigh phosphorus intake
- BLow salt intake
- CLow calcium intake
- DInadequate water intake
- EAll of the above may contribute as risk factors
77A clinical finding in the cerbrospinal fluid that tends to confirm listeriosis is:
- AIncreased numbers of eosinophils
- BIncreased protein and mononuclear cells
- CIncreased red blood cells
- DIncreased alkaline phosphatase levels
- EIncreased trubidity
78Which one of the following practices has been associated with tetans outbreaks in cattle and sheep?
- AEar tagging
- BFootrot vaccination
- CClostridium vaccination
- DElastration of tails
- EHoof trimming
79Which one of the following statements is true regarding salmonellosis?
- AThe majority of salmonella infections are clinical
- BSalmonella organisms only survive a short time in the enviroment
- CSepticemic animal shed the organism in oral and nasal secretions and urine as well ass feces
- DInfection is unrelated to innate resistance of the host animal; dose and strain of the organism are much more important
- EThe primary route of infection in most cases is by aerosol
80Dairy cows are particularly susceptible to infections during the first two weeks of lactation because:
- AOf transient immunousuppression following calving
- BDry matter intake cannot keep pace with nutrient requirements until after about 80 days after lactation commences
- COf adjustment to the change in diet between the dry period and heavy lactational period
- DOf increased requirements for biological antioxidants during the first 60 days of lactation
- EOf increased physical activity associated with estrus
81Serum chloride value of less than 60 mEq/I in cattle usually represents:
- ANormal value
- BMetabolic acidosis
- CMetabolic alkalosis
- DGood prognosis
- ERapid rumen outflow
82Which one of the following statements is true regarding the "scootch test"?
- AThis is a test used to determine the amount of rumen fill in a cow
- BTricep muscle fasiculation is usually elicited by this test
- COdontoprisis is a consistent sign of a positive reaction
- DThe test is also known as "withers depressing"
- EA positive test is a positive response; the cow flinches
83A cow was persented for examination of a respiratory problem. On examination you have found a purulent discharge from the ear canal. Which one of the following goes to the top of your differential dianonsis list?
- AIBR (infectious bovine rhinotracheitis)
- BHistophilus
- CMycoplasma
- DBRSV (bovine respiratory syncytial virus
- EMannheimia
84Obstructive urolithiasis due to silica urinary calculi occurs commonly in steers and wethers raised on rangelands of the great plains of the North America. Which one of the following statements is true?
- ACalculi do not develop in mature cows and bulls
- BCalculi develop on castrated males because the diameter of the urethra is smaller then normal
- CCalculi develop in cattle raised on rangelands because of the relatively high concentration of selenium in the diet
- DCalculi formation cannot be prevented by the consumption of sodium chloride at a level of 4% by weight of the total ration
- EWhen the urinary bladder ruptures in a steer with obstructive urolithiasis, uremia may not develop quickly because the ruminant can metabolize the urea in the rumen
85Regarding colostrum management for calves, which one of the following statements is most correct?
- AColostrum quality is not related to a cow's history or volume of colostrum produced
- BHolsteins tend to have lower immunoglobulin concentrations in colostrum than Jerseys
- CThe ability of the calf to absorb IgG does not decline until the calf is 48 hours old
- DJohne's disease cannot be transmitted through the feeding of colostrum from an infected cow
- EPasteurization destroys most of the antibodies in colostrum
86Rumen acidosis occurs as a result of:
- AToo much rapidly digestible grain in the diet
- BNot enough effective fiber
- CSlug feeding of grain (e.g. feeding grain in the milking parlor)
- DHeat stress (panting cows have less bicarbonate available for buffering the rumen)
- EAll of the above
87Which one of the following dairy cows would be more likely to get fatty liver syndrome after calving?
- AFat cow-BCS 4.5
- BNormal cow-BCS 3.5
- CThin cow-BCS 2.0
88Regarding the salmonellosis outbreak on the Hudson farm that was discussed in an assigned reference, how was the infection spread to the dairy herd?
- ABy the owner who did not disinfect his boots
- BBy a stray cat
- CBy direct contact with the calves and their feces
- DBy a stray dog
- EWith the front end loader used to feed the cows
89When rolling a cow to correct left abomasal displacement, the cow should be put down on to the left side first
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
90The two most important factors in passive Ig transfer are the total immunoglobulin mass that is ingested and the time after birth when the colostrum is received
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
91Elevated serum plasma pepsinogen values may be indicative of ostertagia infection in cattle
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
92Pupillary constriction is a clinical sign consistent with hypocalcemia in recumbent dairy cows
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
93Elk, mule deer, moose bison and white tailed deer are naturally susceptible to Johne's disease.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
94Cows with bilateral obturator nerve paralysis may till be able to stand whereas cows with bilateral sciatic nerve paralysis cannot.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
95Vaccination of feedlot cattle against foot rot will also aid in the control of liver abscesses.
- AVerdadeiro
- BFalso
96When you need withdrawal information for an antibiotic that you are using in an extralabel manner, the government agency to contact is:
- AAMDUCA
- BFARAD
- CRUDAB
- DUSDA
97Which one of the following statements is true concerning interstitial pneumonia in cattle?
- AInterstitial pneumonia is accompanied by high fever
- BThe principal clinical signs are inspiratory dyspnea and mild fever
- CExpiratory dyspnea and subcutaneous emphysema are commonly seen.
- DPreferred therapy is oxytetracycline.
- EPrognosis for recovery is poor
98Milk protein allergy in cattle would best be treated by or with:
- AMilking out the cow's udder.
- BNon-steroidal drugs.
- CCorticosteroids.
- DAntihistamine
- EBroad spectrum antibacterials.
99Several goats in a flock were affected with severe panophthalmitis and conjunctivitis. Your presumptive diagnosis is "pink-eye." What would be your recommendation for this flock?
- ASend all to slaughter immediately.
- BQuarantine and treat with procaine penicillin G.
- CQuarantine and refer to the state veterinary officer.
- DQuarantine and vaccinate the herd with pink-eye vaccine.
- EQuarantine and treat with tetracy cline.
100If not properly prepared before marketing, commingled feeder claves have the potential of "wrecking out" when they arrive at a feedlot. What is responsible for this wreck?
- AA fall in resistance due to weather changes.
- BA simultaneous fall in resistance and a rise in disease challenge.
- CA rise in disease challenge from commingling.
- DVaccination more than thirty days before marketing.
- EA fall in resistance due to stresses of weaning, shipping, and diet change.
101A common respiratory disease which may lead to pneumonic pasteurellosis in dairy calves in the United States is:
- AMycoplasma mycoides.
- BMycobacterium tuberculosis.
- CBrisket disease
- DBRSV.
- EFog fever.
102Which one of the following test is the preferred first test for use in the diagnosis of tuberculosis in cattle?
- AELISA test
- BSingle intradermal test
- CComparative cervical test
- DPCR test
- EGamma interferon test
103What would be the significance of a low neutrophil count with many non-segmented cells in a cow with a total white blood cell count below normal?
- AProbably indicative of chronic infection
- BProbably indicative of parasitism
- CProbably indicative of bone marrow suppression
- DProbably indicative of an acute infection
- EPossibly could be a normal hemogram
104Of the following sheep breeds, which one has the characteristic of being able to lamb at any time of year?
- ASuffolk
- BSouthdown
- CDorset
- DMerino
- EHampshire
105The antibiotic that has a Gram-positive spectrum, requires daily dosing, has a medium withdrawal time of around 10 days. is cheap, can be purchased over the counter and is a good choice for footrot, presurgical use, Listeria and Clostridial infections is:
- Aceftiofur
- BNuflor
- Cpenicillin
- Doxytetracycline
106Which of the following statements is true concerning copper metabolism in sheep?
- ASheep accumulate copper in the liver more readily than other species
- BCopper is required for an effective immune response
- C"Steely wool" and "swayback" are commonly reported signs of copper deficiency in sheep
- DCopper is required for normal iron metabolism
- EAll of the above statements are true
107Which cattle breed produces beef with a fatty acid composition that is significantly lower in saturated fat and cholesterol and higher in monounsaturated fat, and conjugated linoleic acid (CLA)?
- ACharolais
- BAkaushi
- CBeedmaster
- DSanta Gertrudis
- EBelgian Blue
108What is a "persistently infected animal" with respect to bovine virus diarrhea virus?
- AAn animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero before establishing immunocompetence
- BAn animal that was exposed to BVDV in utero after establishing immunocompetence
- CAn animal that was infected within the first 120 days of life and has remained infected
- DAn animal that was infected with BVDV and recovered but remains a carrier
- EAlways an animal affected with mucosal disease
109Which one of the following statements is true?
- AYounger animals are more likely to show clinical signs of anaplasmosis than are older ones
- BBiting flies are biological vectors of anaplasmosis
- CEffectiveness of oxytetracycline therapy for anaplasmosis is reduced if more than 15% of the red blood cells are infected
- DAnaplasmosis vaccine is marketed commercially in the United States
- EIncubation period for anaplasmosis in cattle is short, usually 5-15 days
110Which of the following antimicrobials has a formulation with a 7 day treatment interval?
- AAlbon
- Benrofloxacin (Baytril)
- CNuflor
- Doxytetracycline
111If one were to mate a heterozygous polled bull with a homozygous horned cow, what percentage of the offspring would be polled?
- A0%
- B25%
- C50%
- D75%
- E100%
112What is the most prevalent major contagious pathogen in the U.S. and worldwide?
- AE. coli
- BKlebsiella
- CStreptococcus agalactiae
- DMycoplasma bovis
- EStaphylococcus aureus
113Mastitis can be eradicated from a dairy herd
- ATrue
- BFalse
114Streptococcus agalactiae can be eradicated from a dairy herd
- ATrue
- BFalse
115All of the following are dairy breeds EXCEPT
- ABrown Swiss
- BGuernsey
- CHolstein
- DJersey
- EBelted Galloway
116Most gram-positive mastitis pathogens are susceptible in vitro to the intramammary (IMM) antibiotics available
- ATrue
- BFalse
117E. coli is is usually susceptible to approved IMM antibitoics
- ATrue
- BFalse
118Most gram-negative mastitis pathogens are susceptible in VIVO to the IMM antibiotics available
- ATrue
- BFalse
119Cows with contagious mastitis should be milked______?
- AFirst
- BBefore fresh heifers
- CLast
- DShould be dried up and not milked
120What is considered the first line of defense of the mammary gland?
- ATeat orifice/duct
- BPick the other one
121What control procedure do we use to aid the first line of defense in the mammary gland?
- ATeat dipping with an effective germicide
- Bpick the other one
122Chronic mastitis is primarily due to ____________ pathogens?
- AContagious
- BEnvironmental
123To control Staphylococcus aureus, you should focus your efforts on decreasing social contact among cows
- ATrue
- BFalse
124What major pathogen can be eliminated by antibiotic therapy?
- AStreptococcus agalactiae
- BStaphylococcus aureus
- CE. coli
- DKlebsiella
- EMycoplasma bovis
125Milking time hygiene is ALWAYS needed in every dairy
- ATrue
- BFalse
126Clinical mastitis is more costly than subclinical mastitis
- ATrue
- BFalse
127The teat canal remains open after milking up to ____________ hours
- A2
- B24
- C12
- D1
- E0.5
128Streptococcus agalactiae
- AContagious
- BEnvironmental
129Klebsiella
- AContagious
- BEnvironmental
130The streptococcus species that has characteristics of both contagious and environmental pathogens is S. dysgalactaie
- ATrue
- BFalse
131Dry cow therapy means one is treating a dry cow for clinical mastitis
- ATrue
- BFalse
132In a freestall barn, you see several cows standing or lying on concrete alleyways and loafing yards. This usually means what?
- AFree stalls are not comfortable
- BHappy cows
133What major pathogen does not grow on blood agar?
- AMycoplasma
- Bpick the other one
134What 3 words sum up coliform control?
- Aclean, dry, and comfortable
- BPick other one
135You should only use dry cow IMM therapy on KNOWN infected cows.
- ATrue
- BFalse
136Culling the cow is probably the only sure way to eliminate Mycoplasma bovis IMM
- ATrue
- BFalse
137Buying dairy cows from other herds is a good dairy practice
- ATrue
- BFalse
138Which of the following is NOT a good milking time hygiene?
- ASpraying water on udders of all cows
- BSingle use damp cloth towels
- CPredipping and only leaving the predip on for 30 seconds
- DDrying the udder completely before attaching the milking unit
139Which of the following teat dips are acceptable
- ALDBSA
- BChlorhexidine
- C0.5% Iodine
- DClorox
140Which two microorganisms are involved in the development of the condition shown in this picture?
- APasteurella and swine influenza virus
- BHemophilus and Bordetella
- CActinobacillus and Pasteurella
- DPRRS virus and Bordetella
- EBordetella and Pasteurella
141Which one of the following techniques is being demonstrated in this picture?
- AThe squeeze
- BThe ear twitch
- CThe midline catch
- DThe bracelet
- EThe body wrap
142These weaned pigs are affected with porcine dermatopathy and nephropathy syndrome (PDNS). Which one of the following pathogens is associated with this condition?
- AErysipelothrix
- BStaphylococcus
- CPorcine Circovirus type 2
- DSwine influenza virus
- EPorcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome virus
143Identify this breed used mainly for milk and cheese production
- AOberhasli
- BSouthdown
- CNubian
- DFriesian
- ESaanen
144These pigs have swine dysentery. Which one of the following statements is most correct concerning this disease?
- AThe causative organism will survive outside the pig for up to seven weeks in cold moist conditions but it dies out in two days in dry warm environments
- BThe high cost of disease is associated with high mortality
- CClinical disease in sows is common
- DPigs become infected through the ingestion of saliva from feeders
- ESwine dysentery is caused by a virus
145Which one of the following techniques is being demonstrated in this picture?
- AThe squeeze
- BThe ear twitch
- CThe midline catch
- DThe bracelet
- EThe body wrap
146Which one of the following organisms would most likely be involved in the polyarthritis and jowl abscess observed in this weaned pig?
- ACircovirus
- BHemophilus
- CStreptococcus
- DStaphylococcus
- EErysipelothrix
147Shown here is a cross-sectional view of a cow's abdomen showing distention of the ventral sac of the rumen. Which one of the following diagnoses would be most likely associated with this condition?
- AAbomasal ulcers
- BAcute traumatic reticulitis
- CPersistent non patent urachus
- DVagus indigestion
- ELeft abomasal displacement
148Identify the condition shown in this photograph
- ASpastic paresis
- BUpward fixation of the patella
- CSpastic syndrome
- DSciatic neuropathy
- ENutritional myopathy
149What would be your diagnosis for this pruritic skin condition observed in these animals?
- ALice
- BGreasy Pig disease
- CDemodectic mange
- DRingworm
- ESarcoptic mange
150The disease affecting the tongue of this deer and causing the photosensitization in the bull are one and the same. Identify the disease.
- AEpizootic hemorrhagic disease
- BChronic wasting disease
- CBluetongue
- DActinobacillosis
- EFescue toxicosis
151These stocker calves being fed pasture are being?
- AFinished
- BBred
- CBackgrounded
- DMarbled
- ESuckled
152This cow is most likely suffering from?
- AInterdigital fibroma
- BRusterholz ulcer
- CDigital dermatitis
- DInfectious pododermatitis
- ESand crack
153On farms with robot milkers cows choose how often they want to be milked. What is the most important mechanism by whic increased frequency of milking increases milk production?
- AFrequent milking reduces back pressure in the udder
- BIncreased prolactin secretion recruits more secretory cells
- CMore frequent oxytocin release leads to increased production
- DMilking removes a locally acting lactation inhibition factor
- ECows get more used to being milked and produce less adrenalin to interfere with milk letdown
154Which one of the following is considered to be part of tan ideal milking system?
- A75:25 milking to massage ratio on the pulsators
- BSmall bowl claw
- C20" Hg milking vacuum level
- DPost-dip applied by sprayer
- ELow line pipeline
155What is the lowest lameness score this cow could have?
- AScore 1
- BScore 2
- CScore 3
- DScore 4
- EScore 5
156Which of the following choices is most reasonable for grade M2 mastitis (clots and flakes, swollen quarter, but no systemic involvement) in a herd in which most clinical mastitis is caused by Strep. uberis?
- AProprietary intramammary mastitis infusion (e.g. Cef-Lak)
- BIntramammary mastitis tube + adjunct antibiotic therapy
- CSystemic ceftiofur (Naxcel/Excenel)
- DCustom compounded antibiotic udder infusion
- ENo treatment until dry-off
157What are we attempting to accomplish with this device?
- AProvide antibiotic to treat disease
- BProvide potable water
- CHarvest velvet from the antlers
- DRid deer of ticks carrying lyme disease
- EOffer deer trace minerals and salts
158This alpaca is presented for examination of a chronic pruritic skin disease of the head and face. Which one of the following diagnoses is most likely?
- AZinc deficiency
- BCopper toxicosis
- CSarcoptic mange
- DVitamin A deficiency
- EDemodectic mange
159What is the definitive host for the parasite which causes paresis or paralysis in camelids?
- AGoats
- BSnails and slugs
- CElk
- DWhite-tailed deer
- EAll deer
160Here is pictured a beef liver with abscessation. One of the more likely causative organisms associated with this condition is also associated with which one of the following?
- AWooden tongue in cattle
- BCalf diphteria
- CBig head in horses
- DBig head in sheep
- EBlackleg in cattle
161ID this breed of dairy cattle known for the production of alpha-2 beta-casein milk
- AAyrshire
- BJersey
- CGuernsey
- DHereford
- EMontbeliarde
162ID this beef breed which comes from Italy
- AChianina
- BCharolais
- CLimousine
- DRomagnola
- EBelgian blue and white
163Energy balance is shown on this chart of events in the lactation cycle of a dairy cow. What is represented by the highlighted line?
- ABody condition score
- BNormal lactation curve
- CDry matter intake
- DSerum ionize calcium levels
- ERisk for developing lameness
164These weaned pigs are affected with porcine dermatopathy and nephropathy syndrome (PDNS). Which one of the following pathogens is associated with this condition?
- AErysipelothrix
- BStaphylococcus
- CPorcine circovirus type 2
- DSwine influenza virus
- EPorcine respiratory and reproductive syndrome virus
165Energy balance is shown on this chart of events in the lactation cycle of a diary cow. What is represented by the orange line?
- ABody condition score
- BNormal lactation curve
- CDry matter intake
- DSerum ionized calcium levels
- ERisk for developing lameness
166Which one of the following techniques is being demonstrated in this picture?
- AThe squeeze
- BThe ear twitch
- CThe midline catch
- DThe bracelet
- EThe body wrap
167Identify this lesion found during abdominal surgery on a sheep
- AFat necrosis
- BTapeworm cyst
- CEdema
- DOesophagostomum lesion
- EAbscess
168The dairy cow in this picture had a selective appetite for roughage but not grain shortly after a normal calving. Which one of the following diagnoses would be most likely?
- ATraumatic gastritis
- BKetosis
- CAbomasal volvulus
- DAbomasal displacement
- EBloat
169Chondrodysplasia is a genetically induced disease of which one of the following breeds of sheep?
- ASuffolk
- BRomanov
- CSouthdown
- DHampshire
- EDorset
170Identify the animal in this picture
- ATakin
- BGuanaco
- CVicuna
- DLlama
- EAlpaca
171this goat has a large swelling on the right side of the head below the ear. Which one of the following is a more likely diagnosis?
- ASialadenitis
- BStrangles
- CBottle jaw
- DCheesy gland
- ELymphosarcoma
172Which one of the following organisms would most likely be involved in the polyarthritis and skin lesions observed in this weaned pig?
- ACircovirus
- BHemophilus
- CStreptococcus
- DStaphylococcus
- EErysipelothrix
173On farms with robot milkers cows choose how often they want to be milked. What is the most important mechanism by which increased frequency of milking increases milk production?
- AFrequent milking reduces back pressure in the udder
- BIncreased prolactin secretion recruits more secretory cells
- CMore frequent oxytocin release leads to increased production
- DMilking removes a locally acting lactation inhibition factor
- ECows get more used to being milked and produce less adrenalin to interfere with milk letdown
174Which one of the following organisms is associated with exudative epidermitis in swine?
- AActinobacillus
- BHemophilus
- CStaphylococcus
- DE. coli
- EStreptococcus
175This picture shows?
- AProper placement of intramuscular injection
- BProper placement of subcutaneous injection
- CImproper needle size selection
- DInadequate restraint of the patient
- EImproper selection of site for administration of medication
176Which one of the following problems would more likely be diagnosed in post-weaned pigs six to eight weeks of age?
- AColibacillosis
- BAscariasis
- CSwine dysentery
- DWhipworms
- EProliferative enteropathy
177Which one of the following techniques is being demonstrated in this picture?
- AThe squeeze
- BThe ear twitch
- CThe midline catch
- DThe bracelet
- EThe body wrap
178ID the breed
- AWatusi
- BHighland
- CTexas Longhorn
- DBelgian Blue
- EEnglish Longhorn
179A 4-H member handled some lambs about a week ago at the county fair. Now he has developed lesions. What is the most likely diagnosis?
- ADermatophilosis
- BWarts
- CEcthyma
- DFungal infection
- EPustular dermatitis
180This bull was presented with a large swelling in the penile and scrotal areas. What are the two most likely differential diagnoses?
- AAmyloidosis or hypoproteinemia
- BLymphosarcoma or preputial abscess
- CRuptured urethra or preputial abscess
- DCardiac failure or hypoproteinemia
- EParasitism or preputial abscess
181You have been called to examine this recumbent neonatal calf which is unable to rise. In addition the calf is showing opisthotonus and has a fever of 107 degrees F. The calf does not have tetanus. What would be the most likely diagnosis?
- AMeningitis
- BHypoglycemia
- CPolioencephalomalacia
- DBVD infection
- ELupin toxicosis
182What would be the most likely cause of the otitis media diagnosed in this calf?
- ATrauma
- BLead poisoning
- CPolioencephalomalacia
- DMycoplasma
- ESepticemic colibacillosis
183What is the definitive host for the parasite which causes paresis or paralysis in camelids?
- AGoats
- BSnails or slugs
- CWhite tailed deer
- DElk
- EAll deer
184These pigs have swine dysentery. Which one of the following statements is most correct concerning this disease?
- AThe causative organism will survive outside the pig for up to seven weeks in cold moist conditions but it dies out in two days in dry warm environments
- BThe high cost of disease is associated with high mortality
- CClinical disease in sows is common
- DPigs become infected through the ingestion of saliva from feeders
- ESwine dysentery is caused by a virus
185What is the lameness score of this cow?
- A5
- B4
- C3
- D2
- E1
186chronic wasting disease of cervids is an example of what type of disease?
- APrion
- BToxic
- CParasitic
- DViral
- EBacterial
187Which one of the following organisms would most likely be involved in the polyarthritis and jowl abscess observed in these weaned pigs?
- ACircovirus
- BHemophilus
- CStreptococcus
- DStaphylococcus
- EErysipelothrix
188Cerebellar hypoplasia in calves is associated with:
- ABovine virus diarrhea-mucosal disease complex
- BInfectious bovine rhinotracheitis
- CConsumption of Lupines during the first 30 days of pregnancy
- DMalignant catarrhal fever
- EFoot-and-mouth disease
189Regarding colostrum management for calves, which one of the following statements is most correct?
- AColostrum quality does not depend upon a cow's history or volume of colostrum produced
- BHolsteins tend to have higher immunoglobulin concentrations in colostrum than Jerseys
- CThe ability of the calf to absorb 1gG does not decline until the calf is 48 hours old
- DJohne's disease cannot be transmitted through the feeding of colostrum from an infected cow
- EPasteurization does not destroy most of the antibodies in colostrum
190What is usually the first step to be recommended in therapy for berserk male syndrome in llamas?
- AZinc therapy
- BAntidepressant therapy
- CCastration
- DRemoval of the canine teeth
- ETranquilization
191The normal blood glucose level for dairy cows is between
- A30-60 mg/dl
- B80-120 mg/dl
- C40-80 mg/dl
- D40-120 mg/dl
- E60-120 mg/dl
192Several piglets in a group weaned 10 days ago in the nursery facility of a commercial swine operation were found dead. On evaluation, some weaners have swelling around the eyes and forehead. Some are in lateral recumbency and dyspneic. Necropsy of the dead piglets reveals subcutaneous and submucosal edema. The most likely causative organism is........
- AStreptococcus suis
- BBrachysira hyodysenteriae
- CClostridium septicum
- DEscherichia coli
- ELawsonia intracellularis
193Why do we keep an animal in sternal recumbency while administering treatment for milk fever?
- APrevent muscle damage
- BImprove respiratory function
- CImprove cardiac function
- DPrevent regurgitation and aspiration
- EEncourage eructation
194Which one of the following is used as a vaccine for contagious ecthyma in sheep?
- ABacterin
- BModified live virus
- CLive virus
- DKilled virus
- EToxoid
195Air quality is often an issue in livestock confinement operation. Which one of most likely involved with animal or human deaths in a confinement operation?
- AMercaptans
- BMethane
- CHydrogen sulfide
- DCarbon dioxide
- EAmmonia
196Which one of the following statements is true concerning tuberculosis in cattle?
- AThe primary route of infection is transplacental
- BThe test used in the eradication program is an intradermal skin test
- CThe disease has been eradicated in the continental United States
- DCoughing and chronic nasal discharge are the most obvious clinical signs in early cases
- EInfection usually occurs after two years of age
197Which vaccine virus is not present in the standard 4-way modified live cattle respiratory vaccine?
- ABRSV
- BBVD
- CPI3
- DIBR
- EBLV
198Excessive use of water to clean the udder is a risk factor for which type of mastitis?
- AStreptococcus agalactiae
- BColiform
- CMycoplasma
- DStaph. Aureus
- EYeast
199Pre-conditioning is:
- AIncreasing grain ration in close-up dairy cows before calving
- BDipping teats before milking
- CMowing pastures that have gone to seed to reduce eye irritation in pastured cattle
- Dfeeding anionic salts, such as ammonium chloride, to reduce the incidence of hypocalcemia in dairy cows
- EProcessing beef calves in such a way as to reduce stress before moving them to a feedlot
200Which of the following is true of contagious mastitis bacteria?
- AThey are mostly gram negative
- BThey rarely cause chronic infections
- CThey don't respond to most intramammary mastitis preparations
- Dtransmission is between quarters is controlled by pre-dipping
- EThey are obligate parasites of the mammary tissue or teat skin
Informações
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- LAM II final exam practice questions
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- curfman.melissa
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