Quiz
Business Management Exam Review Quiz
Questions in this quiz (94)
1Management is made up of efficiency and effort. MGMT = E2
- ATrue
- BFalse
2What are the four core functions of management? Select the four that are correct.
- APlanning
- BFunctioning
- CManaging
- DOrganizing
- EControlling
- FTeam Work
- GLeading
3Character of rivalry is apart of the five industry forces according to Porter.
- ATrue
- BFalse
4Threat of new entrants measures the degree to which barriers to entry make it easy/difficult for new companies to get started in an industry. If it’s easy for new companies to get started in an industry, then competition will increase and prices and profits will fall.
- ATrue
- BFalse
5Other than character of rivalry and threat of new entrants, what are the three remaining industry forces? Select only those that are correct (3).
- ABargaining power of suppliers
- BBargaining power of manufacturer
- CBargaining power of buyers
- DThreat of market diversification
- EThreat of substitute products or services
- FThreat of management failure
6Which of the following are included in the steps to rational decision making? Select only the correct answers.
- AWeigh the criteria
- BEvaluate each alternative
- CBe mindful of your surroundings
- DIdentify the decision criteria
- EIdentify risk though risk analysis
- FCompute the optimal decision
- GGenerate alternative courses of action
- HDefine your decision
- IDefine the problem
- JEnsure you are considering your ethical values
7If a team is being micro managed, it empowers them to work.
- ATrue
- BFalse
8You should use a team if there is a large or complex project.
- ATrue
- BFalse
9Goals and missions must be clear when using a team to minimize conflict.
- ATrue
- BFalse
10Teams should be used when rewards can be provided for individual effort and performance.
- ATrue
- BFalse
11A key problem with resources is management resistance. Managers in charge are often reluctant to help teams or turn over resources to them.
- ATrue
- BFalse
12Middle managers are the ones that make things happen.
- ATrue
- BFalse
13Phil's Cafe imports coffee beans from Columbia regularly. 80% of his profit is from selling coffee while the other 20% comes from pastries. There was a hurricane in Columbia destroying the majority of the crops for coffee beans. What is this an example of?
- AThreat of new entrants
- BExternal environments
- CPoor management skills
- DResource Scarcity
- ERisk of failure
14What affects environmental uncertainty?
- AEnvironmental change, environmental instability, and weather
- BEnvironmental change, environmental complexity, and resource scarcity
- CEnvironmental complexity, environmental instability, and weather
- DEnvironmental complexity, environmental instability, and resource scarcity
- EEnvironmental instability, environmental uncertainty, and resource scarcity
15Environmental uncertainty is highest when environmental change/complexity is extensive and resources are scarce.
- ATrue
- BFalse
16Environmental uncertainty is highest when environmental change/complexity is not extensive and resources are scarce.
- ATrue
- BFalse
17Using this real-life example, identify which changing environment category it belongs to (Check all that apply) :
- $1.83 billion Target takeover of Zellers- AEnvironmental Change
- BEnvironmental Complexity
- CResource Scarcity
18Using this real-life example, identify which changing environment category it belongs to (Check all that apply) :
- Flooding in Australia and Pakistan- AEnvironmental Changes
- BEnvironmental Complexity
- CResource Scarcity
19Using this real-life example, identify which changing environment category it belongs to (Check all that apply) :
- QR codes- AEnvironmental Change
- BEnvironmental Complexity
- CResource Scarcity
20The two types of external environments are general and uncertain.
- ATrue
- BFalse
21Specific environment includes which of the following? (Check all that apply) :
- ACustomers
- BIndustry Regulation
- CCompetitors
- DAdvocacy Groups
- ESuppliers
22Economic, technological, sociocultural, and political/legal trends indirectly affect organizations. This statement reflects what type of external environment?
- AGeneral
- BSpecific
- CUncertain
23Business confidence indices show how confident actual managers are about past business growth.
- ATrue
- BFalse
24Raw materials and information + knowledge, tools, techniques = products/services.
- ATrue
- BFalse
25Inputs + environment = outputs
- ATrue
- BFalse
26Advocacy groups are groups of concerned citizens who band together to influence business practices, specific industries, businesses, and professions.
- ATrue
- BFalse
27Supplier dependence is the degree to which company relies on supplier because of the importance of the supplier’s product to the company and the difficulty of finding other sources of product.
- ATrue
- BFalse
28Reactive customer monitoring is identifying/addressing customer trends and problems while they occur.
- ATrue
- BFalse
29Proactive monitoring of customers is when managers see events, trends, and problems directly after they occur.
- ATrue
- BFalse
30Being a whistle blower in a company means that if someone isn't following policy or breaking policy, you bring these to light.
- ATrue
- BFalse
31When we looked at the International Code of Ethics for Canadian Business Principles, we focused on FOUR main areas. Which of the following did we focus on? (check all that apply) :
- AConcerning community participation and environmental protection
- BConcerning women's rights
- CConcerning human rights
- DConcerning business ethics
- EConcerning employee rights and health and safety
- FConcerning business conduct
32When selecting and hiring ethical employees what are the two types of tests that you should use?
- AAptitude and personality tests
- BAptitude and personality-based integrity tests
- Cethical reasoning and personality-based integrity tests
- DOvert integrity tests and aptitude tests
- EOvert integrity tests and personality-based integrity tests
- FEthical reasoning and overt integrity tests
33What is the first objective of ethics training?
- AAchieves credibility with employees
- BTeaches a practical model of ethical decision making
- CDevelops employee awareness of ethics
34What is the third objective of ethics training?
- AAchieves credibility with employees
- BTeaches a practical model of ethical decision making
- CDevelops employee awareness of ethics
35What is the second objective of ethics training?
- AAchieves credibility with employees
- BTeaches a practical model of ethical decision making
- CDevelops employee awareness of ethics
36What is the fourth objective of ethics training?
- ATeaches a practical model of ethical decision making
- BEnforces the practical model of ethical decision making
- CAchieves credibility with employees
- DDevelops employee awareness of ethics
- EThere isn't a fourth objective of ethics training
- ATeaches a practical model of ethical decision making
37In the basic model of ethical decision making the second step is identify the constituents.
- ATrue
- BFalse
38In the basic model of ethical decision making the fifth step is act.
- ATrue
- BFalse
39In the basic model of ethical decision making the fourth step is analyze your options.
- ATrue
- BFalse
40In the basic model of ethical decision making the third step is diagnose the situation.
- ATrue
- BFalse
41In the basic model of ethical decision making the seventh step is identify the constituents.
- ATrue
- BFalse
42What are the THREE pitfalls of planning? (Check all that apply) :
- AImpede change
- BThere are four pitfalls of planning
- CLack of communication
- DDetachment of planners
- EFalse sense of certainity
- FUnderestimation
43When making a plan that works you are to:
1. Set goals
2. Develop committment
3. Track progress toward goal achievement
4.Develop effective action plans
5. Maintain flexibility- ATrue
- BFalse
44When planning from top to bottom, what are the three plans that first-level managers focus on? (Check all that apply) :
- ATactical Plans
- BStanding Plans
- CSingle-use Plans
- DMarketing Plans
- EOperational Plans
45When planning from top to bottom, what do top managers focus on?
- ATactical Plans
- BManaging
- CGoals
- DMission
- EVision
46Tactical plans specify how a company will use resources, budgets, and people to accomplish goals within its mission (6 months to 2 years).
- ATrue
- BFalse
47MBO stands for Management by operations.
- ATrue
- BFalse
48There are two types of operational plans.
- ATrue
- BFalse
49There are three types of operational plans, from the following list, select the three. (Check all that apply) :
- AOrganizational Plans
- BSingle-use Plans
- CMarketing Plans
- DStanding Plans
- EHuman Resources
- FBudgets
50There are three steps to the strategy-making process. They are: 1. Assess needs for strategic change, 2. Conduct situation analysis, and 3. Choose strategic alternatives.
- ATrue
- BFalse
51According to the strategic reference point theory, managers choose between two basic alternative strategies:
- a conservative risk-avoiding strategy that aims to protect existing competitive advantage
OR
- an aggressive risk-eliminating strategy that aims to extend/create sustainable competitive advantage.- ATrue
- BFalse
52When it comes to the relationship between diversification and risk, which of the following has the highest risk?
- ASingle business
- BUnrelated diversification
- CRelated diversification
53Creative work environments have six components that encourage creativity. (select only the correct 6 components) :
- AChallenging work
- BChallenging management
- CFreedom
- DAbility to be unique
- EWork group encouragement
- FSupervisory encouragement
- GLack of organizational impediments
- HOrganizational encouragement
- IIndividual encouragement
54Resistance to change is caused by misunderstanding and distrust, and general intolerance for change and what else?
- ALack of awareness
- BPeople who are afraid
- CSelf-interest
- DPeople whoa are set in their ways
- ECultures
55Change forces include new technology, government regulation, strategic requirement, and what else?
- AWeather
- BEconomy
- CChanging markets
- DCompetitor action
- ECustomers
56Organizational process is the vertical/horizontal configuration of departments, authority, and jobs within a company while Organizational structure is the collection of activities that transforms inputs into outputs that customers value.
- ATrue
- BFalse
57There are 5 areas of departmentalization. Which of the following includes all 5?
- ACustomer, Functional, Competitor, Market, Product
- BCompetitor, Geographic, Functional, Product, Market
- CGeographic, Functional, Customer, Matrix, Product
- DFunctional, Product, Competitor, Matrix, Market
- EProduct, Customer, Functional, Competitor, Geographic
58Some advantages of matrix departmentalization include; allows companies to efficiently manage large, complex tasks, such as researching, developing, marketing pharmaceuticals. Efficiency comes from avoiding duplication and the ability to manage large, complex tasks. Matrix project managers have a more diverse set of expertise and experience at their disposal than managers in other forms of departmentalization.
- ATrue
- BFalse
59Some disadvantages of functional departmentalization include; Cross-department coordination can be difficult. May lead to slower decision-making. Produces managers and workers with narrow experience and expertise
- ATrue
- BFalse
60Matrix organizations violate which principle?
- ASpan of responsibility
- BChain of command
- CIndividual manegement
- DPartnerships
61Centralization is when significant authority is found in lower levels of the organization.
- ATrue
- BFalse
62Decentralization is when significant authority is found in lower levels of the organization
- ATrue
- BFalse
63Return on assets, return on investment, return on equity, and return on sales are all higher with centralization.
- ATrue
- BFalse
64What does C-Type conflict stand for?
- AConsumer conflict
- BCompetitive conflict
- CCognitive conflict
- DCo operational conflict
65What does A-Type conflict stand for?
- AAffective conflict
- BAll around conflict
- CAlternative conflict
- DApparition conflict
- EAspirate conflict
66What is the second stage of team development? (Hint: we also learned these in Project Management)
- AForming
- BNorming
- CAdjourning
- DStorming
- EPerforming
67What is the last stage of team development?
- ANorming
- BAdjourning
- CForming
- DPerforming
- EStorming
68BFOQ stands for Bona Fied Occupational Qualification
- ATrue
- BFalse
69Cognitive tests are the best tests to do to help employers understand how you make decisions
- ATrue
- BFalse
70Employment legislation is covered under provincial legislation.
- ATrue
- BFalse
71The Workers Compensation Act is a provincial act that lays out safety standards in what province?
- AManitoba
- BOntario
- CAlberta
- DBritish Columbia
- EQuebec
- FNova Scotia
72Selection tests give organizational decision makers a chance to know who will, and won’t, likely do well in a job.
- ATrue
- BFalse
73There are 6 types of selection tests that we talked about in class. Check all that apply.
- APersonality
- BAptitude
- CAssessment centres
- DWork sample tests
- EBiographical data
- FSpecific ability
- GGeneral ability
- HCognitive ability
74Employment equity is the planning process used by an employer to eliminate barriers in an organization’s employment procedures and to ensure appropriate representation of specific members of the workforce known as the four designated groups (Select the four designated groups) :
- AChildren
- BWomen
- CMen
- DAboriginal Peoples
- EVisible Minorities
- FTeens
- GPersons with disabilities
75Diversity makes good business sense for the following reasons: Greater creativity and improved problem solving, better insight into the needs of a diverse customer/client base and enhanced ability to attract the best talent in a diverse labor market.
- ATrue
- BFalse
761 in 9 Canadians live with a mental disability .
- ATrue
- BFalse
77Diversity training and practices that organizations use include: (Select all that apply)
- ADiversity analysis
- BDiversity audits
- CSkill-based diversity training
- DPersonality-based diversity training
- EAwareness training
- FDiversity pairing
78When it comes to motivation, there are three types of effort that are concerned with the choices that people make. What are the three types? (Select all that apply)
- AIndividual
- BDirection
- CGroup
- DPersistance
- EInitation
79Which theory suggests that people are motivated by physiological (food/ water), safety (physical/ economic), belongingness (friendship, love, social interaction), esteem (achievement and recognition), and self-actualization (realizing full potential) needs.
- AAldefer's ERG
- BMcClelland's Learned Needs
- CMaslow's Heirarchy
80Which of the following collapses Maslow’s five needs into three: existence (safety and physiological needs), relatedness (belongingness), and growth (esteem and self-actualization).
- AMaslow's Hierarchy
- BAldferder's ERG
- CMcClelland's Learned Needs
81Motivating with the basics includes which of the following? (Select all that apply) :
- AAsk employees what their needs are
- BExpect people's needs to stay the same
- CTreat employees like your students
- DExpect peoples needs to change
- ESatisfy higher-order needs first
- FCreate opportunities for employees to satisfy higher-order needs
- GSatisfy lower-order needs first
82In terms of the fair decision making processes, what is the difference between distributive justice and procedural justice?
- AThey are the same except that procedural justice is more structured.
- BDistributive justice is the degree to which outcomes and rewards are fairly distributed or allocated while procedural justice is the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions
- CDisruptive justice is the perceived fairness of the process used to make reward allocation decisions while procedural justice is the degree to which outcomes and rewards are fairly distributed or allocated
- DProcedural justice does not exists.
83Reinforcement always deals with a consequence. If I did something good, I get something good. If I did a bad job I don’t get my something good. There is always a consequence or outcome when managing people and using this theory.
- ATrue
- BFalse
84There are four components to the reinforcement theory, what are they? (Select all that apply) :
- APunishment
- BPositive reinforcement
- CExtinction
- DRewards
- ENegative reinforcement
85Bureaucratic control is the use of hierarchical authority to influence employee behavior by rewarding or punishing employees for compliance or noncompliance with organizational policies, rules, and procedures
- ATrue
- BFalse
86Leadership traits include: (Select all that apply)
- ADrive
- BIntegrity
- CSelf-confidence
- DEmotional-stability
- ECognitive abilities
87When should you use participative leadership?
- AUnstructured tasks
- BComplex tasks
- CUnchallenging taks
- DStructured tasks
88When should you use supportive leadership?
- AStructured tasks
- BUnstructured tasks
- CComplex tasks
- DUnchallenging tasks
89When should you use achievement oriented leadership?
- AStructured tasks
- BUnstructured tasks
- CUnchallenging tasks
- DComplex tasks
90When should you use directive leadership?
- AUnstructured tasks
- BComplex tasks
- CStructured tasks
- DUnchallenging tasks
91What are the five control methods? (Select all that apply) :
- ANormative
- BFormative
- CConcertive
- DStormative
- EBureaucratic
- FSelf-control
- GPerformative
- HObjective
92What should we control? (select all that apply) :
- AQuality
- BBalanced scorecard
- CBudgets
- DWaste and pollution
- EQuantity
- FManagement
- GCustomer defections
93Balanced scorecard is the measurement of organizational performance in four equally important areas: finances, customers, internal operations, and enviroment
- ATrue
- BFalse
94We would all rather die than write this exam at 8am.
- ATrue
- BFalse
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- Algonquin College's Business Management exam review
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- emily_hill
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- English
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- Created on 22 Apr 2015 · updated on 4 Mar 2017
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