RPL Practice Exam 2

1. 1When the right rudder pedal is depressed during flight

   1. Athe rudder moves to the right and the aircraft yaws to the left
   2. Bthe rudder moves to the left and the aircraft yaws to the right
   3. Cthe rudder moves to the left and the aircraft yaws to the left
   4. Dthe rudder moves to the right and the aircraft yaws to the right
2. 2All of the aerodynamic forces acting on an aircraft can be resolved to a single force acting at a single point. This single force and the point at which it acts respectively are called

   1. Athe total lift and the centre of gravity
   2. Bthe total lift and the centre of pressure
   3. Cthe total reaction and the centre of gravity
   4. Dthe total reaction and the centre of pressure
3. 3A Bravo type aircraft has an all up weight of 2150lbs and a Moment Index of 204. There are two passengers with a combined weight of 350lbs in Row 2. The maximum weight of the passengers in Row 2 which would keep the aircraft in balance is closest to:

   1. A200lbs
   2. B150lbs
   3. C250lbs
   4. D100lbs
4. 4If nose attitude and power are kept constant, a sudden decrease in headwind component during an approach will result it

   1. Aan increase in both indicated air speed and rate of descent
   2. Ban increase in indicated air speed and a decrease in rate of descent
   3. Ca decrease in indicated air speed and an increase in rate of descent
   4. Da decrease in both indicated air speed and rate of descent
5. 5If ice has formed in the carburetor during flight in an aircraft fitted with fixed pitch propeller, the application of carburetor heat should be accompanied by

   1. Aan immediate rise in engine RPM
   2. Ba drop in engine RPM with no further change
   3. Ca rise in engine RPM followed by a gradual drop
   4. Da drop in engine RPM followed by a gradual rise
6. 6While returning from the training area, you are caught out by a lowering cloud base which is now down to about 800ft. You can just make out your home aerodrome because the visibility is still quite good. However, you will need to fly over the township if you are to reach your home airfield. If there are no alternative aerodromes available except a large open paddock below you. Which of the following what would be the most suitable course of action?

   1. ARemain clear of cloud and keep tracking towards the aerodrome.
   2. BMaintain 1000ft above the township even if that means you will pop into cloud and keep tracking towards the aerodrome.
   3. CImmediately execute a forced landing in the paddock because you are not allowed to fly less than 1000ft above a built-up area.
   4. DKeep circling until the cloud base lifts to above 1000ft.
7. 7A high airspeed the form of drag that predominates in a light aircraft is known as

   1. Askin friction drag
   2. Binduced drag
   3. Ctotal drag
   4. Dparasite drag
8. 8Compared to nil wind conditions, which of the following would be observed when climbing into a headwind

   1. Aangle of climb will increase while rate of climb will remain the same
   2. Bangle of climb will increase while rate of climb will increase
   3. Cangle of climb will decrease while rate of climb will decrease
   4. Drate of climb will increase while angle of climb will remain the same
9. 9If you are in the circuit with the downwind threshold of the runway directly ahead of you, you must be:

   1. Aon final
   2. Bon crosswind
   3. Con downwind
   4. Don upwind
10. 10The function of an alternator is to

    1. Asupply the electrical demands of the system and keep the battery fully charged
    2. Bsupply current to the spark plugs during start-up
    3. Cstore electrical energy for use when the engine is not running
    4. Dact as a back-up incase the battery fails

11. 11An aircraft suffers a bird strike which has caused some minor damage but no injuries. This is:

    1. Aan Immediately Reportable Matter which must be phoned through to CASA within 24 hours and followed up in writing within 72 hours
    2. Ba Routinely Reportable Matter (RRM) which must be reported in writing to the ATSB within 72 hours.
    3. Ca Routinely Reportable Matter (RRM) which must be reported in writing to CASA within 72 hours.
    4. Dan Immediately Reportable Matter which must be phoned through to the ATSB within 24 hours and followed up in writing within 72 hours.
12. 12If the pilot maintains a constant indicted air speed, which of the following would produce the steepest angle of descent?

    1. Aan decrease in power and an decrease in flap extension
    2. Ban increase in power and an increase in flap extension
    3. Can decrease in power and an increase in flap extension
    4. Dan increase in power and an decrease in flap extension
13. 13The onset of which conditions are likely to cause radiation fog to dissipate?

    1. Aa decrease in wind strength and an increase in surface temperature
    2. Ba decrease in wind strength and a decrease in surface temperature
    3. Can increase in wind strength and an increase in surface temperature
    4. Dan increase in wind strength and a decrease in surface temperature
14. 14Unlike most ground-based engines, the spark is supplied to an aircraft engine by a magneto. This is done for

    1. Asafety as the spark is produced mechanically without the need for any outside source of electricity
    2. Bconvenience since the magneto spark plugs don’t need to be shielded against radio interference
    3. Csafety because the magneto ignition makes the propeller safe to handle when the engine is stopped
    4. Dreliability to allow the magneto to supply the spark if there is a failure of the aircraft’s electrical system
15. 15If the angle of bank of a level turn reaches 60°, the load factor will

    1. Aincrease by 100%
    2. Bincrease by 40%
    3. Cnot be affected unless weight is increased
    4. Ddecrease by 40%
16. 16A Bravo type aircraft has a BEW of 1350lbs and a moment index of 107 index units. If the pilot and co-pilot have a combined weight 380lbs, a passenger in row 2 weighs 195lbs and they wish to carry 80lbs of baggage, what is the maximum amount of fuel that may be carried?

    1. A180lbs
    2. B180 litres
    3. C200lbs
    4. D222 litres
17. 17Consider the following conditions:
    Pressure Alt: 1000 ft
    Shade Temp: 25oC
    Weight: 1080 kg
    Slope: 1% down to the South
    Wind: 180oM at 10kt
    Using the Type 1 landing chart, the landing distance required is closest to:

    1. A500m
    2. B520m
    3. C460m
    4. D440m
18. 18A single-engine aircraft is climbing with high power applied and a low airspeed. Which of the following will be true concerning the effectiveness of the flying controls?

    1. Athe ailerons and rudder will be more effective than the elevator
    2. Bthe ailerons and elevator will be more effective than the rudder
    3. Cthe ailerons will be less effective than the elevator or rudder
    4. Dthe ailerons will be more effective than the elevator or rudder
19. 19If a pilot becomes pregnant, their medical is taken to be suspended:

    1. Aafter the end of week 30 of gestation up until a DAME certifies them fit after the pregnancy is over.
    2. Beither after the last day of the 14th week or the beginning of week 30, whichever is the sooner.
    3. Cnot before the pilot is unable to apply full back pressure on the controls.
    4. Das soon as the baby has a name.
20. 20When must passengers wear seatbelts?

    1. Aonly when below 1000ft AGL or on an instrument approach.
    2. Bduring take off and landing, when below 1000ft AMSL, flying in turbulence or when on an instrument approach.
    3. Conly during take-off and landing.
    4. Dwhenever they must occupy a seat.
21. 21If a piston engine aircraft engine was incorrectly refueled with AVTUR instead of AVGAS, a likely result after high power was applied would be

    1. Aengine damage due to the extra power being delivered
    2. Bincreased power output and higher than normal engine temperature
    3. Creduced power output and possibly detonation
    4. Dreduced engine power output and lower than normal operating temperature
22. 22An engine is operated at high power while the oil temperature is still cold. A likely consequence of this would be

    1. Alower than normal oil pressure and poor lubrication due to low oil viscosity
    2. Bhigher than normal oil pressure and poor lubrication due to low oil viscosity
    3. Clower than normal oil pressure and poor lubrication due to high oil viscosity
    4. Dhigher than normal oil pressure and poor lubrication due to high oil viscosity
23. 23Select the item which best describes an internal threat.

    1. Aoperations at a non-familiar aerodrome.
    2. Bforecast bad weather on a TAF.
    3. Cpilot complacency.
    4. Dmarginal runway length.
24. 24An airfield has an elevation of sea level. On a day when the QNH is 1001 hPa, the pressure height of the airfield would be closest to

    1. A50 feet
    2. B360 feet
    3. Csea level
    4. D720 feet
25. 25The purpose of the eustachian tube in the human respiratory system is to connect the

    1. Ainner ear to the middle ear
    2. Bouter ear to the inner ear
    3. Cmiddle ear to the outer ear
    4. Dmiddle ear to the throat
26. 26Which of the following statements is correct regarding a Special VFR clearance.

    1. AIt may be available in Class C and D airspace only.
    2. BIt may be available in Class C, D and E airspace.
    3. CIt may be available in any airspace.
    4. DIt may be available in Class C and G airspace.
27. 27You are considered to be overtaking another aircraft if you are approaching another aircraft:

    1. Afrom the rear on a line forming an angle of less than 70 degrees with the plane of symmetry of the latter
    2. Bfrom the rear.
    3. Cfrom the rear in an arc subtending 180 degrees from wing tip to wing tip.
    4. Dfrom the front.
28. 28The landing distance available never includes a clearway

    1. Athis statement is true
    2. Bthis statement is false
29. 29In Australian aviation, the term QNH refers to

    1. Athe atmospheric pressure at a particular aerodrome expressed in hectopascals
    2. Bthe height of the aircraft above mean sea-level
    3. Cthe atmospheric pressure at mean sea-level expressed in pounds per square inch
    4. Dthe atmospheric pressure at mean sea-level expressed in hectopascals
30. 30While approaching an aerodrome to land you see a series of red flashes directed at your aircraft from the tower. You should:

    1. Aremain circling and wait for a steady green light.
    2. Bleave the circuit area and head for an alternate airport
    3. Cremain circling and wait for a flashing green light.
    4. Dcontinue your approach with caution.
31. 31For unrestricted private operations, the lowest class of medical a private pilot will require is

    1. Aa Class 2 medical
    2. Ba Class 1 medical
    3. Ca note from their GP
    4. Da Driver Licence medical
32. 32The most proactive option in threat management is to

    1. Aignore the threat until it actually has an effect on the flight
    2. Banticipate the recovery action expected if the threat occurs
    3. Canticipate and avoid the threat altogether
    4. Dtake corrective action once the threat has occured
33. 33If the angle of attack of an aerofoil is increased from zero to beyond the stalling angle the force of lift will

    1. Afirst decrease then increase
    2. Bdecrease continuously
    3. Cfirst increase then decrease
    4. Dincrease continuously
34. 34Details of changes to the condition of the runways, or of hazards present at an aerodrome would be found in a:

    1. AAIP
    2. BNOTAM
    3. CAIC
    4. Dsticky note on the fridge
35. 35In Class G airspace, there is a broken overcast of stratocumulus clouds with bases of 4500ft. What is the highest VFR cruising altitude you should fly if you are heading 090 degrees magnetic and wish to remain below the clouds?

    1. A2,500 feet
    2. B3,500 feet
    3. C4,500 feet
    4. D1,500 feet
36. 36The compass is affected to some degree by magnetic fields caused by electrical equipment and metal components within the cockpit. The error caused by these magnetic influences must be applied to the magnetic direction. This correction is called

    1. Adeviation and it is obtained from a isogonals on the map
    2. Bvariation and it is obtained from a compass correction card displayed near the compass
    3. Cmagnetic-compass conversion factor and it is obtained from a compass correction card displayed near the compass
    4. Ddeviation and it is obtained from a compass correction card displayed near the compass
    5. Evariation and it is obtained from a isogonals on a map
37. 37Is the following statement true or false? “If the aircraft electrical system is turned off and the magneto switches are selected to ‘off’, it is safe to handle the propeller because there is no danger of ‘kick back’ as long as these switches are in the ‘off’ position”.

    1. Athe statement is true but only if the mixture is also set to idle cut-off
    2. Bthe statement is false but only if the mixture is set to fully rich
    3. Cthe statement is false
    4. Dthe statement is true
38. 38Which of the following is an example of a latent threat?

    1. Acommitting a check list to memory.
    2. Ba poorly written checklists.
    3. Cengine failure in flight.
    4. Dan encounter with rime ice.
39. 39An airfield has an elevation of 777 feet. On a day when the QNH is 1007 hPa, the pressure height of the airfield would be closest to

    1. A777 feet
    2. B957 feet
    3. C747 feet
    4. D597 feet
40. 40Consider the following conditions:
    Pressure Alt: 2000 ft
    Shade Temp: 15oC
    Take-off Weight: MTOW
    Surface: Short wet grass
    Slope: 1% down
    Wind: Light and Variable
    Using the Type 1 take-off charts, the required Take-Off distance is closest to:

    1. A790m
    2. B890m
    3. C930m
    4. D800m
41. 41The organ in the inner ear which converts the mechanical energy of vibration to electrical impulses is

    1. Athe hammer, anvil and stirrup
    2. Bthe cochlea
    3. Cthe semicircular canals
    4. Dthe vestibular system
42. 42The most proactive option in threat management is to

    1. Aanticipate the recovery action required if the threat occurs
    2. Bconcentrate on management of any undesired aircraft state that may result
    3. Ctake corrective action once the threat has occurred
    4. Danticipate and avoid the threat altogether
43. 43You are training for your initial aerobatics endorsement at a coastal aerodrome. There is is a 300ft mast in the aerobatics training area. Assuming there are no other restrictions due to populated areas or airspace, which of the following is a correct statement?

    1. Athere is no altitude limitation.
    2. Byou may practice aerobatics down to 3000ft as long as the tower is never within a circle of 600m diameter centred on a line extending vertically down below the aircraft.
    3. Cyou may practice aerobatics down to 3300ft only.
    4. Dyou may practice aerobatics down to 3000ft as long as the tower is never within a circle of 600m radius centred on a line extending vertically down below the aircraft.
44. 44Which one of the following examples describes an undesired aircraft configuration state?

    1. Ataxiing too fast.
    2. BIAS too low during an approach to land.
    3. Cincorrect fuel distribution.
    4. Dicing system not operating in icing conditions.
45. 45You are flying a Cessna 152 and you enter and line up on the runway just after a Cessna 150 has taken-off. If the runway is 900m long, when would be the earliest you could start your take-off roll?

    1. A600m after the preceding aircraft has commenced a turn.
    2. B600m, after the preceding aircraft has crossed the upwind threshold or has commenced a turn.
    3. C1800m
    4. DAfter the preceding aircraft has crossed the upwind threshold without turning.
46. 46An airfield has an elevation of 1700 feet. On a day when the QNH is 1007 hPa, the pressure height of the airfield would be closest to

    1. A1700 feet
    2. B1520 feet
    3. C1500 feet
    4. D1880 feet
47. 47Landing an aircraft at a weight above its maximum structural landing weight could result in

    1. Apermanent damage or deformation of the landing gear or fuselage
    2. Bthe aircraft becoming unstable in pitch
    3. Cdifficulty with directional control during the final approach
    4. Doverheating of the brakes after touch-down
48. 48An aircraft is trimmed to maintain straight and level flight with no flap extended. Which of the following would result if 20° of flap was extended and the aircraft was re-trimmed to maintain level flight with no change in power?

    1. Athe cruising speed would be higher and the nose attitude would be higher
    2. Bthe cruising speed would be lower and the nose attitude would be higher
    3. Cthe cruising speed would be lower and the nose attitude would be lower
    4. Dthe cruising speed would be higher and the nose attitude would be lower
49. 49The zero fuel weight is the weight of an aircraft is the weight of the aircraft

    1. Awith all items of weight on board except for the weight of useable fuel
    2. Bincluding cargo and fuel but without passengers or crew
    3. Cwith no items of weight on board except for the useable fuel
    4. Dwithout any passengers, crew, cargo or usable fuel on board
50. 50Which of the following would produce the highest reading on a vertical speed indicator?

    1. AClimbing at the airspeed higher than that for best rate of climb [Vy]
    2. BClimbing at the airspeed for best rate of climb [Vy]
    3. CClimbing at the airspeed lower than that for best angle of climb [Vx]
    4. DClimbing at the airspeed for best angle of climb [Vx]
51. 51An airfield has an elevation of 300 feet. On a day when the QNH is 1033 hPa, the pressure height of the airfield would be closest to

    1. A300 feet
    2. Bzero feet
    3. C600 feet
    4. D-300 feet
52. 52If indicated air speed is lower than the true airspeed and true airspeed is higher than the ground speed, the aircraft must be flying at

    1. Ahigh altitude in a headwind
    2. Bsea-level in a headwind
    3. Cat sea-level in a tailwind
    4. Dat high altitude in a tailwind
53. 53Oxygen is transported around the body in the blood by

    1. Ahaemoglobin
    2. Bleucocytes
    3. Cplasma
    4. Dwhite blood cells
54. 54As you are carrying out an overhead circuit join at an aerodrome, you see a symbol which looks like two plus signs joined together to form a double cross in the signal circle. What should you do?

    1. AContinue your circuit but look for signals from the tower before landing on the unserviceable runway.
    2. BImmediately break off and fly to an alternate airfield. This aerodrome is closed.
    3. CContinue your circuit to land but stick to the hard surfaces only.
    4. DContinue your circuit join but keep a good look out for gliders.
55. 55If an aircraft is slowed down from maximum speed to the stalling speed while maintaining level flight, the total drag acting will

    1. Aincrease then decrease
    2. Bincrease continuously
    3. Cdecrease then increase
    4. Ddecrease continuously
56. 56During periods of very high cockpit workload the event that is most likely to occur is

    1. AThe pilot will lose interest in the tasks he/she is doing.
    2. BInformation may be missed due to narrowing of attention.
    3. CThe pilot will be slow to react to an emergency.
    4. DInformation may be missed due to reduced sensory input.
57. 57A function of the inner ear is to

    1. Aconvert the mechanical energy of vibrations to nerve impulses and assist in maintaining the sense of balance
    2. Bamplify the vibrations arriving at the eardrum and transfer them to the cochlea
    3. Cequalise the pressure on either side of the eardrum
    4. Dprotect the eardrum from the intrusion of foreign bodies
58. 58If the atmosphere is unstable with high humidity, strong solar heating of the surface is likely to produce

    1. Afrost
    2. Bthunderstorms
    3. Cfog
    4. Ddust storms
59. 59Select the answer that correctly associates the control surface, the type of motion involved and the axis about which that motion occurs

    1. Arudder, yaw, longitudinal
    2. Baileron, roll, longitudinal
    3. Crudder, pitch, normal
    4. Delevator, pitch, normal
60. 60As you are flying you notice a Cessna 172 converging with a constant relative bearing from the left. Which aircraft has right of way:

    1. AYou have right of way unless you are a glider.
    2. BYou have right of way.
    3. CThey have right of way unless you are a powered aircraft.
    4. DThe other aircraft has right of way.

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PPL Aviation (Practice Exams) Quiz on RPL Practice Exam 2, created by Andrew Fisher on 28/05/2017.

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