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1What is used for Oxacillin Screens?
- AMH + oxacillin
- BMH + 4% NaCl + oxacillin
- CMH with Sheep blood + 4% NaCl + oxacillin
- DMH with sheep blood + Oxacillin
2What is used in a vancomycin screen?
- ABHI + vanc
- BBHI + vanc + 4% NaCl
- CMH + vanc + 4% NaCl
- DMH + vanc
3If the MIC is 0.08ug/mL for a staphylococcus aureus organism, how should we report this?
- Areport as resistant
- Breport as susceptible
- Cit is not relevant
- Dconfirm susceptibility with penicillin zone edge test
4Which of these are associated with infection control significant VRE organisms?
- AvanC gene
- BvanA and VanB gene
- Cyellow pigment of colonies
- Dmotility observed on wet prep
5what should you expect to see on an MRSA select II agar?
- Amagenta colonies
- Bno growth
- Cblue colonies
- Dgrowth if it is MRSA
- Egrowth if it is MSSA
6What additional testing should you do if you see growth on MRSA select II agar?
- Astaphaurex
- Btube coagulase
- CPBP2' agglutination
- Doxacillin screen
- Evancomycin screen
- Foxidase
7What are the next steps for growth on a brilliance VRE?
- Agram stain and catalase
- Bgram stain
- Cgram stain and oxidase
8what do you expect to see with an VRE organism?
- Agram positive cocci in chains and pairs
- Bcatalase negative
- CPYR positive
- DDNase positive
9What are the next steps after PYR is performed on a VRE suspect?
- Avitek GPI
- Bvitek AST
- Cvancomycin screen
- Doxacillin screen
- Epenicillin screen
10What will grow on a BEAA plate?
- Astaphylococcus species
- Benterobacteriacaea species
- Chaemophilus species
- Denterococcus species
11A [blank_start]positive[blank_end] penicillin zone edge test will give a [blank_start]cliff[blank_end] edge.
- Apositive
- Bcliff
12Penicillin zone edge test is more sensitive for [blank_start]beta lactamase[blank_end] detection.
- Abeta lactamase
13A negative penicillin zone edge test will have a beach edge.
- ATrue
- BFalse
14when do we call ICP (infection control practitioner)?
- Aisolated a super bug i.e. MRSA
- Bisolated GC
- Cisolated S.pneumoniae
15Methicillin [blank_start]resistant[blank_end] Staphylococcus aureus (MRSA) isolated. Please follow [blank_start]infection control[blank_end] procedures. Further report to follow.
- Aresistant
- Binfection control
16How do we differentiate between a class A ESBL and a class C ESBL?
- APhenotypic confirmatory testing
- BPYR
- CStaphaurex
- DBile Esculin hydrolysis
17Class A ESBL organisms are inhibited by?
- Abeta-lactamase inhibitors
- Bclavulanic acid
- Cpenicillins
- Dclindamycin
18What classifies a class A ESBL?
- Apotentiation when combined with clavulanic acid
- Bsusceptible to cefoxitin
- Cresistance to cefoxitin
- Dzone of >15mm on cefoxitin
19class C ESBLs are resistant to 3rd generation cephalosporins, clavulanic acid and cephamycins such as cefoxitin.
- ATrue
- BFalse
20SPICE group are intrinsically resistant to ampicillin, cephalosporins and cefoxitin.
- ATrue
- BFalse
21What antibiotics are used in PCT?
- Acefotaxime
- Bcefotaxime + clavulanic acid
- Cceftazidime
- Dceftazidime + clavulanic acid
- Ecefoxitin
- Fvancomycin + clavulanic acid
- Gampicillin + clavulanic acid
- Hampicillin
- Ivancomycin
22Escherichia coli class [blank_start]A[blank_end] ESBL. Please follow [blank_start]infection control[blank_end] procedures.
- Ainfection control
- BA
23SPICE organisms are;
- ASerratia spp.
- Bpseudomonas aeruginosa
- Cindole positive proteus (morganella and providencia spp.)
- Dcitrobacter spp.
- Eenterobacter spp.
24Which antibiotics are reported as resistant with a class A ESBL?
- Aall beta-lactam drugs
- Bcarbapenems
- Ccephamycin
- Dbeta-lactam inhibitor combinations
25Which antibiotics are not reported as resistant for a class A ESBL?
- Acarbapenems
- Bcephamycins
- Cpenicillin
- Doxacillin
26Bacterial meningitis in neonates can be caused by
- AGroup B streptococcus
- BE.coli
- CListeria monocytogenes
- DNeisseria meningitidis
27Bacterial meningitis in infants 6 months to 5 years old can be caused by?
- AHaemophilus influenza type b
- BNeisseria meningitidis
- CStreptococcus pneumoniae
- DE.coli
28Bacterial meningitis in older children and adults can be caused by?
- AStreptococcus pneumoniae
- BNeisseria meningitidis
- CListeria monocytogenes
- DGroup B Streptococcus
29What is normal skin flora?
- ABacillus spp
- BCorynebacterium spp. diphtheroids, urea negative
- Ccoagulase negative Staphylococcus species except for S. lugdunensis
- DProprionibacterium spp
- EAlpha hemolytic streptococcus
- FNonpathogenic Neisseria spp
- GBacteroides spp
- HEnterobacteriaceae spp
30For an aerotolerance test, what disks do you use for a GPC?
- Abile
- BSPS
31For an aerotolerance test, what disks would you use for a GNB?
- Abile
- BSPS
32You must report AST for superficial ear and eye isolates.
- ATrue
- BFalse
33When do you use a NYC plate?
- AWhen GC is requested by doctor
- BWhen GC is seen on the direct gram stain on day 1
- CWhen the patient is under 2 weeks old
- DWhen GPDC is seen on the direct gram stain on day 1
34Bodily fluids such as CSF or tympanocentesis fluid will contain some normal flora.
- ATrue
- BFalse
35What organism is this? oxidase+, nitrate reduced to nitrite, GNDC, strict aerobic, on BA-sm, grey, NH, dry
- AMoraxella catarrhalis
- BNeisseria meningitis
- CNeisseria gonorrhoeae
36What organism is this? sm GNB, facultative anaerobe, oxidase-, on BA - ppt, grey, and NH, need V factor
- AHaemophilus parainfluenza
- BHaemophilus influenzae
37What organism is this? sm GNB, facultative anaerobe, oxidase+, on BA - ppt, grey, and NH, need X and V factor
- AHaemophilus influenzae
- BHaemophilus parainfluenzae
38What organism is this? strict anaerobe, large GPB, double zone hemolysis, reverse camp+, catalase-
- AClostridium perfringens
- BClostridium spp
- CBacillus spp
39what organism is this? large GPB, large tan colonies, BH, motile at RT and 35 degrees
- ABacillus spp
- BClostridium perfringens
- Ccorynebacterium spp
40What organism is this? sm GNB, on BA-med grey NH, catalase+, strict anaerobe
- ABacteriodes spp
- BEnterobacteriacaea spp
- CListeria monocytogenes
41What organism is this? facultative, sm GPB, urea negative, on BA-sm white NH
- ACorynebacterium diphtheroid
- BCorynebacterium ulcerans
- CListeria monocytogenes
42What causes the Hand, Foot and Mouth Disease?
- AEnterovirus
- BHentavirus
- CParvovirus
- DRubivirus
43What is the role of micro RNA?
- Akeeps latent virus-infected cells alive
- Bit is a part of prions
- CRNA codes for micro proteins
44A 55-year old make just returned from a trip from Saudi Arabia. He was rushed to the ER with symptoms of acute respiratory illness. His condition rapidly progressed to pneumonitis and multi-organ failure. This patient has:
- ATularemia
- BCat Scratch disease
- CRat bite fever
- DMERS
- ERocky Mountain spotted fever
45What animals have been found to be carriers of MERS?
- ABat
- BRabbit
- CCamel
- DAll of the above
- ECamel and Bats
46Which of these viruses causes MERS?
- AHantavirus
- BCoronavirus
- CLentivirus
- DEnterovirus
47What is the gold standard for laboratory diagnosis of Rocky Mountain Spotted Fever?
- ACulture
- BClinical presentation
- CImmunofluorescence
- DPCR
48A 22-year old female was hiking in the Rocky Mountains. A few days later she had a headache, fever and flat pink macules on her trunk and ankles. The lab found Rickettsii rickettsia. What is the vector of this infection?
- AMosquito
- BTick
- CBlack fly
- DRat
49What is the Gram stain and motility of the Rickettsii rickettsia infection?
- AGPB, motile
- BGPB, non-motile
- CGNB, motile
- DGNB, non-motile
50What is the atmospheric preference of Brucella?
- Afacultative anaerobe
- Bstrict anaerobe
- Cstrict aerobe
- Dcapnophile
- Estrict aerobe and capnophile
51Which of the following is NOT ta type of Brucella species?
- ABrucella suis
- BBrucella canis
- CBrucella abortus
- DBrucella melitensis
- EBrucella tigris
52What clinical manifestation of Brucellosis?
- Aarthritis
- Bvalve endocarditis
- Cmalta fever
- DBieber fever
- Earthritis and malta fever
53What is the gold standard diagnostic test for leptospirosis?
- Amicroscopic agglutination test (MAT)
- BMALDI
- CLatex agglutination
- DPCR
54What does leptospirosis look like under dark-field microscopy?
- Atumbling motility
- Blong bacilli
- Cquestion mark/interrogation points
- Dbranching bacilli
55A patient presents with meningoencephalitis with multi system involvement (jaundice, kidney failure). Chemistry results reveal elevated kidney and liver enzymes. Culturing the organism proved to be difficult. What bacterial disease is suspected?
- ABrucellosis
- BLeptospirosis
- CMERS
- DPlague
56Which organism causes the plague?
- AFrancisella tularensis
- BLeptospira interrogans
- CYersinia pestis
- DBartonella henselae
57What is the main reservoir for the organism responsible for the plague?
- Abirds
- Bdeer ticks
- Cfleas of rats
- Dcats
58Which of the following correctly describes the Gram stain of the organism responsible for the plague?
- AGNB with 'safety pin' appearance
- BGPC pairs
- CFilamentous GPB
- Dlarge GPB with subterminal spores
59What organism causes Rat Bite Fever?
- AStreptococcus pneumoniae
- BPseudomonas aeruginosa
- CCapnocytophaga canimorsus
- DStreptobacillus moniliformis
- EPasteurella multocida
60What is the virulence factor of Streptobacillus moniliformis?
- Ainhibits phagocytosis
- Bconvert to D form allowing it to survive in the host
- Cconvert to L form allowing it to survive in the host
- Dsecretes pyogenic toxin
- Enone of the above
61Which of the following is a characteristic feature of Streptocbacillus moniformis?
- Amolar tooth
- Bfried egg
- Cdry, hockey puck
- Dmedusa head
- Eno distinct characteristic
62Laboratory diagnosis of hantavirus includes the following techniques except?
- AIgM antibody detection
- BPCR
- CViral culture
- DRising IgG antibody titre
- EImmunohistochemistry
63Which zoonotic microorganism is associated with potentially fatal pulmonary symptoms which have been described as a sensation of ‘tight band around chest’ or ‘pillow over the face’?
- AZika virus
- BFrancisella tularensis
- CBartonella henselae
- DHantavirus
64What is the primary strategy for preventing hantavirus infection?
- AUsage of insect repellent
- BAvoidance of contact with feral cats
- CImproved water quality and sanitation
- DAvoidance of pigeon droppings
- ERodent control in and around the home
65Which of the following causes microcephaly in infants?
- AZika Virus
- BCytomegalovirus
- CRubella
- DAll of the above
- ENone of the above
66Which of the following is not a mode of transmission for Zika virus?
- AMosquito bite
- BAirborne
- CSexual contact
- DInfected mother to child
- EBlood transfusion
67What condition can be associated with Zika virus?
- AMalaria
- BWest Nile Fever
- CYellow Fever
- DGuillain-Barre Syndrome
- EChikungunya
68Bartonella henselae is the specific cause of:
- ARat bite fever
- BBeaver fever
- CCat Scratch Disease
- DRocky Mountain Spotted Fever
- EZika
69A patient presents lack of appetite, wounds with lesions and has a history of working at an animal shelter. Biopsy of the lesion shows GNB but no growth or cultures was seen after 24 hours. What is the best reason for this?
- AOrganism is an anaerobe
- BOrganism is a slow grower
- COrganism requires special media
- DOrganism is a capnophile
70What is not a symptom of Cat Scratch Disease?
- APapule or Pustule at bite on scratch site
- BLymphadenpathy
- CAnorexia for 1-3 weeks
- DTissue necrosis at wound area
71Which form of oropharyngeal tularemia causes photophobia?
- APneumonic form
- BOculoglandular form
- CSystemic typhoidal form
- DExudative form
72A patient at a clinic showed fevers, chills and headache. A swab of the lesions was sent for culture and sensitivity. After questioning, it was determined the patient was an avid rabbit hunter. The Gram showed GNB organism intracellularly in reticuloendothelial cells. It grew only aerobically and grew on special media containing iron and cysteine. What probable disease could have caused the infection?
- ACat Scratch Disease
- BTularemia
- CZika virus
- DRocky Mountain Spotted fever
73What organism causes Tularemia?
- ANeisseria species
- BLegionella
- CFrancisella
- DSalmonella
74Scabies
- Aitching
- Brash
- CSarcoptes scabiei
75Cutaneous Leishmaniasis
- Aself limiting
- Bsandfly
76Herpes
- Alatent, lifelong infection
- Bneuronal ganglia
- CType 1 - cold sores
- DType 2 - sexually transmitted infections
77Varicella zoster
- Achicken pox
- Bshingles
- Chighly contagious, rash, red spots
78Fifth Disease
- AParvovirus B19
- Bslapped cheek
79Actinomyces
- Asulphur granules
- Banaerobe
- Cacid fast negative
- Dchronic, granulomatous infectious disease
80Nocardia
- Aubiquitous in nature
- Baerobic
- Cacid fast negative
- DGPB, branching
- Emodified acid fast positive
- FBA- white, chalky, dry, smooth
81Madura Foot
- ANocardia and S.aureus
- BMadurella mycetomi, Actinomadura, others
- Coutdoor labourers
- Dno person to person transmission
- EAll of them
82Tinea versicolor
- AMalassezia furfur
- Bsuperficial skin infection
- Clipid loving fungus
- Dspaghetti and meatballs under the microscope
- EAll of the above
83Bacillus anthracis
- Adormant spore form can survive for long periods of time and in harsh conditions
- Bhighly lethal
- Ctransmitted by inhalation, ingesting and contact with skin lesions
- Dglutamic acid capsule - evades phagocytosis
- Elethal factor + edema factor + protective factor = becomes active
- Feschar - black ulcerative skin lesion
- GGPB with subterminal spores, aerobic, non-motile, NH, Cat+
84Mycobacteria
- Athin bacilli, non-motile, aerobe
- BN-glucolymuramic acid and mycolic acids in cell wall
- Cacid fast positive
- DAll of the above
85Mycobacterium leprae
- Amainly affects skin and nerves
- Bclaw hand and drop foot
- CTuberculoid and Lepromatous form
- Dnot highly contagious
- Eall of the above
86what is rhabdomyolysis?
- Abreakdown of skeletal muscle
- Boverproduction of collagen
- Cinflammation or swelling of muscles
87how are diabetic patients affected in muscle disorders?
- Avascular insufficiency
- Bpoor blood supply
- Cantibiotic ineffectiveness
- Dinsulin deficiency
- Eincreased in glucose makes them more prone
88Osteomyelitis:
- Apyogenic organisms
- Boccurs rapidly in children
- Coccurs rapidly in adults
- DS.aureus is the most common cause
- Ein children under 2, spreads into the diaphysis
89Capnocytophaga canimorsus:
- AGNB
- Bzoonotic
- Ctreat with cephalosporins
- Dcommon in asplenic patients
- Eall except for 'treat with cephalosporin'
90Pasteurella multocida:
- Adog bites
- Bcan cause osteomyelitis or endocarditis
- CGPB
- Dspot indole +
91septic arthritis:
- Ainflammation of synovial membrane
- Bdamage to cartilage
- Cexamining the joint fluid is diagnostic
- Dthis is not real
- Emild and preventable
92what can cause septic arthritis?
- AS.aureus
- BPeptostreptococcus
- CBrucella
- DMycobacteria
93Reactive arthritis:
- Anon-infectious inflammatory joint disease
- BNeisseria meningitidis
- CNeisseria gonorrhoeae
- DGAS
- EGBS
94what do we make note of when inspecting synovial fluid?
- Avolume
- Bcolor
- Codor
- Dturbidity
- Eprotein content
- Fglucose content
- GWBC
95Osteoarthritis:
- Athe most common form of arthritis
- Bthinning of cartilage
- Csynovial hypertrophy
- Din both male and females
- Eall of the options
96Artificial arthritis:
- Abiofilm formation
- Bdifficult to treat
- Cnormal skin flora is agent
- Dcannot treat, will result in amputation
97what can cause bacterial conjunctivitis?
- ANeisseria spp
- BS. pneumoniae
- CS. aureus
- DCandida spp
- Eanaerobes
98cause of viral conjunctivitis?
- Aherpes simplex type 1 and 2
- Badenovirus
- CHIV
- Dhentavirus
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- Microbiology 240 Quiz on Micro, created by Katie L on 27/11/2017.
- Author
- Katie L
- Language
- English
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