BIO EOC Graded LMS

1. 1The diagram is a model of the structure of a certain type of cell. Like all models, the diagram is accurate in many ways, but it does not show all features or properties. For example, the structure labeled 2 may take on a variety of sizes, depending on the amount of water available to the cell. The structure labeled 4 occurs in different numbers in different examples of the cell. It has a characteristic green color and is involved in energy transformation.
   
   A diagram of a cell is shown, with labeled parts 1 to 4.

   1. AA. It is made of chitin, and it acts to protect and support the cell.
   2. BC. It is made of cellulose and other carbohydrates, and it acts to protect and support the cell.
   3. CD. It is made of a lipid bilayer and proteins, and it acts to allow passage of certain substances in and out of the cell.
   4. DB. It is made of DNA and proteins, and it acts to control cell activities.
2. 2A scientist wants to compare the diagram of a cell to a magnified image of an actual cell. Which type of magnification tool would be most useful for generating this image?

   1. AA. a hand lens, which is the easiest magnification tool to use and is powerful enough to view all cell structures
   2. BB. a light microscope, which can study living tissues and is powerful enough to view all cell structures
   3. CC. a scanning electron microscope (SEM), which can show detailed images of all cell structures in their real-life colors
   4. DD. a transmission electron microscope (TEM), which can show detailed images of the interior structures of cells, although not in real-life colors
3. 3s scientists began investigating living things and their cellular structure, they developed a set of principles that are now known as the cell theory. The statements below summarize cell theory.
   
   • All living things are made up of cells.
   • Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things.
   • New cells are produced from existing cells.
   
   Which statement best explains why cell theory is classified as a theory, and not a hypothesis?

   1. Aa. Cell theory was developed in the 1800s, before scientists defined the difference between theories and hypotheses.
   2. Bb. Cell theory is supported by evidence from a wide range of investigations that together tested many related hypotheses.
   3. CC. Cell theory has been proved by evidence from a wide range of investigations, whereas a hypothesis cannot be proved.
   4. DD. Cell theory has been endorsed by all or nearly all scientists, whereas a hypothesis is supported by only a few scientists.
4. 4As scientists began investigating living things and their cellular structure, they developed a set of principles that are now known as the cell theory. The statements below summarize cell theory.
   
   • All living things are made up of cells.
   • Cells are the basic units of structure and function in living things.
   • New cells are produced from existing cells.
   
   Daniel proposes that if scientists continue to gather evidence in support of the cell theory, they eventually should reclassify the theory as a law of cells. Which statement is the most useful evaluation of Daniel's proposal?
   
   

   1. AA. The proposal is reasonable, because theories often are reclassified as laws when the evidence is overwhelming.
   2. Bb. The proposal is reasonable, although only rarely is enough evidence gathered to reclassify theories as laws.
   3. CC. The proposal is not reasonable, because scientists have discovered too many exceptions to the cell theory to state it as a law.
   4. DD. The proposal is not reasonable, because a theory is never reclassified as a law, nor is a law reclassified as a theory.
5. 5A team of scientists uses radioactive carbon to label glucose molecules. The radioactivity does not affect the chemical or biological properties of the glucose molecules.
   
   In an experiment, the team places red blood cells in an isotonic solution. Then they add radioactive glucose to the solution. They observe that levels of radioactivity increase in the interior of the cell, indicating that the cell has taken up the radioactive glucose from the solution.
   
   Which observation best supports the conclusion that the glucose entered the red blood cells by means of passive transport?

   1. Aa. Glucose can pass through specific proteins in the cell membrane.
   2. BB. Glucose can pass through the lipid bilayer of cell membrane.
   3. CC. The cell expended energy in the form of ATP during the experiment.
   4. DD. The cell did not expend energy in the form of ATP during the experiment.
6. 6Cells in the thyroid have much higher concentrations of iodide ions than the extracellular fluid that surrounds them, which is delivered by the blood. Are iodide ions transported into the thyroid cells by active transport or passive transport?

   1. AA. active transport, because the cell must pump ions from regions of low concentration to high concentration
   2. BB. active transport, because charged ions cannot diffuse through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane
   3. CC. passive transport, because iodide ions diffuse into the cell from the surrounding fluids
   4. DD. passive transport, because charged ions are able to diffuse through the lipid bilayer of the cell membrane
7. 7Chargaff’s rules of base pairing helped scientists determine how DNA replication occurs. What property of the replication process is explained by Chargaff’s rules?
   

   1. AA. The phosphate-sugar backbone of one strand serves as a template for the phosphate-sugar backbone of the complementary strand.
   2. BB. The phosphate-sugar backbone of one strand serves as a template for the sequence of four nucleotides in the complementary strand.
   3. CC. Adenine (A) and thymine (T) are always paired together within a single DNA strand, as are cytosine (C) and guanine (G).
   4. DD. Adenine (A) and thymine (T) always bind to each other across complementary strands, as do cytosine (C) and guanine (G).
8. 8The diagram shows the genetic code, which cells use to translate a nucleotide sequence into an amino acid sequence in a protein. Scientists have studied a huge number of species and have found the same genetic code in use among nearly all of them.
   
   A diagram of concentric circles shows the genetic code. The letters A, G, C, and U appear in the center of the diagram, and they are repeated in the next two circles. The outermost circle lists the names of amino acids.
   
   Which inference is the most likely explanation for the universal properties of the genetic code?

   1. AA. Other, less useful, versions of the genetic code were eliminated gradually throughout the course of evolution.
   2. BB. The genetic code evolved very early in the history of life, and it was used by an ancient ancestor of all or nearly all living things.
   3. CC. The genetic code evolved relatively recently in bacteria, and then it quickly spread to all living things in all evolutionary lineages.
   4. DD. The genetic code evolved early in the history of animal evolution, and then it quickly spread to all other living things in other evolutionary lineages.
9. 9The diagram shows the genetic code, which cells use to translate a nucleotide sequence into an amino acid sequence in a protein. Scientists have studied a huge number of species and have found the same genetic code in use among nearly all of them.
   
   A diagram of concentric circles shows the genetic code. The letters A, G, C, and U appear in the center of the diagram, and they are repeated in the next two circles. The outermost circle lists the names of amino acids.
   
   A molecule of mRNA is altered by a point mutation in DNA. Which change to a codon would have the least effect on the protein that is produced?
   

   1. AA. changing UGA to UGU
   2. BB. changing UGA to CGA
   3. CC. changing UAU to UAG
   4. DD. changing UAU to UAC
10. 10A scientist has sequenced a gene from a multicellular eukaryotic organism. Brendan claims that by analyzing the gene sequence and applying the genetic code, he can conclude the sequence of amino acids in the protein that forms after the gene is transcribed and translated.
    
    Which statement provides the strongest evidence against the validity of Brendan’s claim?
    

    1. AA. Regulatory proteins may activate or deactivate a gene, often by very complex mechanisms.
    2. BB. During transcription, a strand of mRNA is synthesized from complementary base pairs, with the substitution of uracil (U) for thymine (T).
    3. CC. During translation, anticodons on tRNA bind to codons on mRNA as part of the process that forms the polypeptide.
    4. DD. After a gene is transcribed, introns are removed from the pre-mRNA to form the mRNA that is translated.

11. 11Cells require oxygen to complete cellular respiration. What is a role of oxygen in this process?
    
    

    1. AA. combining with hydrogen atoms to form water at the end of the electron transport chain
    2. BB. combining with hydrogen atoms to form water during glycolysis
    3. CC. combining with carbon atoms to form carbon dioxide during glycolysis
    4. DD. combining with carbon atoms to form carbon dioxide at the end of the electron transport chain
12. 12Molecules of ATP are produced during the light-dependent reactions of photosynthesis and then transferred to the light-independent reactions. What is the role of these ATP molecules?
    

    1. AA. transferring the energy of light to free electrons
    2. BB. accepting electrons from photosystems I and II
    3. CC. providing energy for the synthesis of sugars
    4. DD. providing energy for the breaking apart of sugars into carbon dioxide
13. 13A chemist is studying a macromolecule that has been isolated from a cell. Which observation would provide the strongest evidence that the role of the macromolecule is the storage of energy?
    

    1. AA. All of the monomers are identical, and they are composed only of carbon, oxygen, and hydrogen.
    2. BB. The monomers have many varieties, and their component elements include nitrogen and sulfur.
    3. CC. The monomers have four varieties, and their component elements include nitrogen and phosphorus.
    4. DD. All of the monomers are identical, and they are composed only of carbon and fluorine.
14. 14Glycolysis involves a series of reactions that converts glucose to pyruvic acid. The first reaction of this series is catalyzed by the enzyme hexokinase. Which statement describes the activity of hexokinase?
    

    1. AA. Hexokinase is a reactant; it combines with glucose to form another compound.
    2. BB. Hexokinase is a product; it forms from the reaction between glucose and another compound.
    3. CC. Hexokinase is neither a reactant nor a product; it binds glucose and converts it to another compound.
    4. DD. Hexokinase may be either a reactant or a product; depending on the direction in which glycolysis occurs.
15. 15In pea plants, round pea shape (R) is dominant over wrinkled pea shape (r), and yellow-colored peas (Y) are dominant over green-colored peas (y). In one of his experiments on pea plants, Mendel crossed two parent plants that were hybrid both for round shape and yellow color. The Punnett square shows the results of this cross.
    
    A Punnett Square shows the results of a cross of two round, yellow peas, each of genotype R r Y y. The results are described in 16 individual squares, and include combinations of round and wrinkled peas with yellow and green peas.
    
    Mendel concluded that the genes for pea shape and pea color assort independently of each other. Which experimental finding supports this conclusion?
    

    1. AA. Each of the 4 genotypes shown in the Punnett square is equally likely, generating a phenotype ratio of 3:1.
    2. BB. Each of the 16 outcomes shown in the Punnett square is equally likely, generating a phenotype ratio of 9:3:3:1.
    3. CC. The dominant forms of the traits (round, yellow peas) are equally likely as the recessive forms (wrinkled, green peas).
    4. DD. The hybrid genotype (RrYy) is equally likely as either of the 4 purebred genotypes (RRYY, RRyy, rrYY, rryy).
16. 16A team of scientists is investigating evolution in anoles, which are a type of lizard. First, the team obtains a small breeding population of anoles from their natural habitat in a tropical rain forest. Then, they release the population onto a tropical island. The team plans to return to the island in 5 years to observe the population and record any changes.
    
    Which mechanism could affect the evolution of the anoles, yet does not involve natural selection?
    

    1. AA. competition for food from other lizards on the island
    2. BB. genetic drift, due to the choice of anoles for the founding population
    3. CC. decreasing fitness due to hand and feet shape, which may prevent anoles from climbing trees
    4. DD. increasing fitness due to body coloration, which may provide camouflage from predators
17. 17How does the cell cycle affect the chromosomes that cells carry?
    
    
    

    1. AA. Whenever mitosis is completed, the number of chromosomes is reduced by one half.
    2. BB. Mitosis reduces the number of chromosomes by one half, and the S-phase restores the lost chromosomes.
    3. CC. Mitosis divides chromosomes into identical chromatids, and the S-phase replicates the chromatids.
    4. DD. Mitosis duplicates chromatids to form chromosomes, and the S-phase divides the chromosomes into identical chromatids.
18. 18A parent cell with 24 chromosomes enters meiosis. Which type of cell is produced when meiosis is completed?
    

    1. AA. a cell with 24 chromosomes, genetically identical to the parent cell
    2. BB. a cell with 24 chromosomes, but it is not genetically identical to the parent cell
    3. CC. a cell with 12 chromosomes, one from each homologous pair of the parent cell
    4. DD. a cell with 12 chromosomes, representing 6 homologous pairs from the parent cell
19. 19Which event occurs in meiosis, but not mitosis?
    
    A. Homologous chromosomes are divided among daughter cells.
    
    

    1. AC. A spindle apparatus forms to move chromosomes across the cell.
    2. BD. Homologous chromosomes fuse together to reduce the chromosome number by one half.
    3. CB. Daughter cells form with the same genetic information as the parent cells.
    4. DA. Homologous chromosomes are divided among daughter cells.
20. 20Arnold is reviewing the Miller-Urey experiment and similar experiments on the origins of life on Earth. In each of these experiments, several inorganic gases were mixed in a chamber to simulate the atmosphere of early Earth. Then the gases were subjected to a spark of electricity, which simulated a lightning bolt. The gases reacted to form simple amino acids and other organic compounds.
    
    Arnold claims that the results of the experiments show how the first organic molecules formed on Earth.
    
    Which statement is the best evaluation of Arnold’s claim?
    

    1. AA. The claim is well justified. The results were verified by many experiments.
    2. BB. The claim is well justified. The experiments tested all of the possible mechanisms for making organic molecules.
    3. CC. The claim is poorly justified. The experiments tested only one mechanism for making organic molecules; other mechanisms may exist.
    4. DD. The claim may or may not be justified, depending on the conclusions of the scientists who completed the experiments.
21. 21Scientists once used the general term bacteria to describe all prokaryotes. Why has the classification of bacteria been changed?
    
    

    1. AA. Evidence shows that prokaryotes include two distinct groups, so Bacteria and Archaea are now two domains of prokaryotes.
    2. BB. Evidence shows that bacteria are closely related to eukaryotes, so Bacteria are now a kingdom of prokaryotes and single-celled eukaryotes.
    3. CC. Evidence shows that bacteria have nuclei and membrane-bound organelles, so Bacteria are now a domain that includes only single-celled eukaryotes.
    4. DD. Evidence shows that archaea evolved before bacteria, so Bacteria are now a kingdom of prokaryotes in domain Archaea.
22. 22As supported by fossil evidence of human ancestors, which of the following traits evolved before the other traits in the evolutionary lineage that led to Homo sapiens?

    1. AA. bipedalism
    2. BB. making and using tools
    3. CC. large, human-sized brain
    4. DD. excellent hunting skills
23. 23Which of these events would most likely cause an algal bloom in a lake, river, or other body of water?
    
    

    1. AA. a sudden addition of nitrogen-rich compounds to the water
    2. BB. the removal of small animals that eat algae
    3. CC. a sudden increase in the temperature of the water
    4. DD. a gradual increase in carbon dioxide levels in the atmosphere
24. 24The graph shows the changing populations of wolves and moose on Isle Royale National Park. Wolves are predators, and moose are their prey.
    
    A graph shows the populations of wolves and moose over time, measured in years from 1955 to 2010. As one population increases, the other population tends to decrease.
    
    Which statement about the populations of wolves and moose is most strongly supported by the data in the graph?
    
    

    1. Aa. Wolves are a limiting factor on the moose population, but moose do not affect the wolf population.
    2. BB. Moose are a limiting factor on the wolf population, but wolves do not affect the moose population.
    3. CC. The wolf and moose population sizes are determined by abiotic limiting factors and not by predator-prey relationships.
    4. DD. Wolves and moose each act as a limiting factor on each other's population.
25. 25The diagram shows a partial model of a food web in a terrestrial ecosystem. Other plants and animals take part in the food web, as do bacteria and other decomposers.
    
    A food web includes arrows from the Sun to plants, to a grasshopper labeled primary consumer, and then to a variety of animals labeled secondary consumer. The next arrows lead to tertiary consumers, including a hawk and owl.
    
    The food web and ecosystem includes a farm and its crops. The farmer wants to spray the crops with a pesticide to kill grasshoppers and other insect pests. However, a scientist argues that the pesticide could persist in the ecosystem, similar to the persistence of DDT.
    
    If the scientist’s argument is correct, then which is the most likely effect of the pesticide on the ecosystem?
    
    
    

    1. AA. The pesticide kills many insects, but it does not pass into the bodies of other consumers.
    2. BB. The pesticide passes up food chains and becomes evenly distributed among all consumers.
    3. CC. The pesticide passes up food chains and becomes highly concentrated in the tissues of tertiary consumers.
    4. DD. The pesticide circulates between producers and primary consumers, but it does not pass further along food chains.
26. 26Electricity can be generated from a variety of sources, including fossil fuels, nuclear power, solar cells, wind turbines, and geothermal energy. Which is a significant environmental cost of burning fossil fuels that is not incurred with the use of the other energy resources?
    
    

    1. AA. global climate change, which is caused by the transfer of carbon to the atmosphere
    2. BB. a disruption of the water cycle, which is caused by the heating of water at power plants
    3. CC. radioactive pollutants, which may be accidentally released at power plants
    4. DD. localized warming, which is caused by the release of heat into the atmosphere
27. 27Most familiar plants have a network of xylem and phloem that transports a variety of materials and substances around the plant. Do the activities of xylem and phloem support photosynthesis in the plant’s leaves?
    

    1. AA. Yes, they deliver carbon dioxide to the leaves and carry oxygen away from the leaves.
    2. BB. Yes, they deliver water to the leaves and carry the products of photosynthesis away from the leaves.
    3. CC. No, although they deliver water to the leaves, the water is not necessary for photosynthesis.
    4. DD. No, xylem and phloem extend only through roots and stems; they do not travel into leaves.

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8th grade Biology 1 Quiz on BIO EOC Graded LMS, created by mia goodridge on 28/04/2025.

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