Quiz
Vet 201 Chapter 3 Anesthesiology Study Guide
Questions in this quiz (55)
1Anesthetic agents and adjuncts can be classified by which of the following?
- ARoute of administration, time period at which they are given, and tidal volume they require
- BRoute of administration, time period at which they are given, according to the principal effect, chemistry, and tidal volume they require
- CRoute of administration, according to the principal effect, chemistry, and tidal volume they require
- DRoute of administration, time period at which they are given, according to the principal effect, and chemistry
2 Any drug that is utilized to induce loss of sensation with or without unconsciousness is known as a(n):
- Aneuromuscular blocker.
- Breversal agent.
- Canesthetic agent.
- Dadjunct agent.
3The common effect of depression and/or stimulation, seen in a patient, after the administration of an anesthetic agent is due to:
- Apharmacokinetics.
- Bpharmacodynamics.
- Cpharmacoagents.
- Dpharmacometabolism.
4When acting upon the central nervous system, those agents that bind to more than one receptor type, and simultaneously stimulate at least one and block at least one, are referred to as:
- Aagonist–antagonists.
- Bpartial agonists.
- Cantagonists.
- Dagonists.
5Yohimbine, tolazoline, and atipamezole are best categorized as:
- Aopioid agonists.
- Bopioid antagonists.
- Calpha2-agonists.
- Dalpha2-antagonists.
6Incompatible mixtures of anesthetic agents and adjuncts, when combined in the same syringe, can cause which of the following?
- AChange in dissociation
- BChange in water solubility
- CChange in chemistry
- DChange in physical dependency
7In the United States, the Controlled Substances Act (CSA) is enforced by the:
- ARCMP.
- BDEA.
- CAAHA.
- DAVMA.
8Parasympatholytics are:
- Anoncontrolled drugs, such as anticholinergics, that are used to prevent and treat bradycardia and salivary secretions.
- Bcontrolled drugs, such as anticholinergics, that are used to prevent and treat bradycardia and salivary secretions.
- Ccontrolled drugs, such as anticholinergics, that are used to induce bradycardia.
- Dnoncontrolled drugs, such as anticholinergics, that are used to induce bradycardia.
9Drugs such as atropine and glycopyrrolate function in what way?
- AAct on the CNS and reverse and prevent sympathetic effects
- BAct on the PNS and reverse and prevent sympathetic effects
- CAct on the CNS and reverse and prevent parasympathetic effects
- DAct on the PNS and reverse and prevent parasympathetic effects
10Effects including arrhythmias and tachycardia, thickening of secretions, bronchodilation, and mydriasis are most likely to be seen with the use of which drug?
- AAcepromazine
- BAtipamezole
- CAtropine
- DAntisedan
11The three classes of tranquilizers and sedatives that are often used in veterinary medicine include:
- Aphenothiazines, benzodiazepines, and alfaxalone agonists.
- Bphenothiazines, benzodiazepines, and alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists.
- Cphenothiazines, barbiturates, and alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists.
- Dphenothiazines, barbiturates, and alfaxalone agonists.
12Post administration of acepromazine, a patient is noted to have an increased heart rate and decreased core temperature. To which common side effect is this attributed?
- APeripheral vasodilation
- BAntiarrhythmic effect
- CPenile prolapse
- DExcitement
13Which of the following groups of drugs, also referred to as minor tranquilizers, are commonly used for their sedative, muscle relaxant, and anticonvulsant properties?
- AAlpha2-agonists
- BOpioids
- CPhenothiazines
- DBenzodiazepines
14Which benzodiazepine is most likely to cause irritation and pain when administered intramuscularly (IM)?
- ATelazol®
- BZolazepam
- CDiazepam
- DMidazolam
15Benzodiazepines exert their primary effects by increasing the activity of the:
- ACNS
- BGABA
- CCSA
- DDEA
16The appropriate antagonist to use with benzodiazepines is:
- Aflumazenil.
- Batipamezole.
- Cyohimbine.
- Dtolazoline.
17The most appropriate route of administration for alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists is:
- Aorally (PO) or subcutaneous (SC).
- Bsubcutaneous (SC) or intramuscular (IM).
- Cintramuscular (IM) or intravenous (IV).
- Dsubcutaneous (SC) or intravenous (IV).
18Due to their primary metabolic and excretion pathways, caution should be used when administering alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists to patients with which of the following conditions?
- AHepatitis and renal dysfunction
- BRenal dysfunction and pruritis
- CHepatitis and cardiovascular disease
- DPruritis and cardiovascular disease
19The most common cardiac arrhythmia observed in which of the following IV administration of alpha2-adrenoceptor agonists?
- AFirst- and fifth-degree AV block
- BSecond- and fifth-degree AV block
- CFirst- and second-degree AV block
- DFifth-degree AV block only
20During administration of dexmedetomidine, bradycardia is noted. When taking treatment options into consideration, the most appropriate is administration of:
- Aacepromazine.
- Banticholinergics.
- Catipamezole.
- Dketamine.
21The three major types of opioid receptors are:
- Amu, kappa, and delta.
- Bmu, kappa, and gamma.
- Cdelta, gamma, and omega.
- Ddelta, kappa, and omega.
22In regard to opioids, pure antagonists are known to:
- Apartially stimulate the opioid receptors.
- Bnot stimulate the mu receptors; they only stimulate the kappa receptors.
- Cbind to and stimulate the mu or kappa receptors.
- Dbind to but not stimulate mu or kappa receptors.
23Due to their tendency to increase intraocular and intracranial pressure, it is best to avoid the use of opioids in patients with which of the following conditions?
- AMandibular fracture
- BCNS disorders
- CGingival hyperplasia
- DOtitis externa
24A state of profound sedation and analgesia induced by simultaneous administration of an opioid and tranquilizer is referred to as:
- Ageneral anesthesia.
- Bvagally induced bradycardia.
- Crenarcotization.
- Dneuroleptanalgesia.
25In regard to narcotics, naloxone can be used for the reversal of:
- Aagonists, partial agonists, or agonist–antagonists.
- Bagonists and partial agonists only.
- Cpartial agonists and agonist–antagonists only.
- Dagonist–antagonists only.
26Drugs that have the ability to produce unconsciousness when given alone are characterized as:
- Adisruptive anesthetics.
- Binjectable anesthetics.
- Creversible anesthetics.
- Dinduction anesthetics.
27The tendency of a drug to dissolve in fats, oils, or lipids is referred to as:
- Alipid solubility.
- Bprotein binding.
- Ctissue redistribution.
- Dlipid agonists.
28After administration of propofol, blood flow is responsible for distribution throughout the body and results in which organ system receiving the highest concentration?
- AFat
- BMuscle
- CGastrointestinal tract
- DBrain
29High doses and rapid administration of propofol are known to cause:
- Adiarrhea.
- BHeinz bodies.
- Capnea.
- Danorexia.
30Etomidate is best defined as an:
- Aultrashort-acting nonbarbiturate drug with minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects.
- Bultrashort-acting, controlled, nonbarbiturate drug with significant cardiovascular and respiratory effects.
- Cultrashort-acting barbiturate drug with minimal cardiovascular and respiratory effects.
- Dultrashort-acting, controlled, barbiturate drug with significant cardiovascular and respiratory effects.
31After administration of etomidate, which organ is it possible to see depressed for several hours?
- ACardiovascular
- BAdrenal gland
- CRespiratory
- DCNS
32Proper handling and use of alfaxalone and propofol include:
- Arefrigeration.
- Bsubcutaneous injection as a premedication.
- Cintramuscular injection as a CRI.
- Dantiseptic technique.
33Post administration of alfaxalone, it is important to monitor the patient for:
- Aexcitement during recovery.
- Bhypertension.
- Cmuscle rigidity.
- Dexcitement during induction.
34Which common class of controlled drugs was developed during the 1930s–1950s and was commonly used as general anesthetics?
- ANarcotics
- BBarbiturates
- CAlpha2-antagonists
- DOpiates
35The most common use of pentobarbital is:
- Aas a sedative in dogs and cats.
- Bcontrol of seizures in horses.
- Cas a euthanasia agent.
- Dcontrol of seizures in dogs and cats.
36The most commonly utilized dissociative anesthetic in veterinary medicine is:
- Amorphine.
- Bsevoflurane.
- Cphencyclidine.
- Dketamine.
37Dissociative anesthetics should be used with caution in patients with what underlying metabolic condition due to their redistribution and metabolism properties?
- AHepatic insufficiency
- BCardiac insufficiency
- CNeurologic insufficiency
- DRespiratory insufficiency
38While ketamine is widely used in veterinary medicine, it is currently licensed for use in which species?
- AEquine
- BFeline
- CCanine
- DExotics
39The most common cardiac changes associated with administration of dissociative anesthetics are:
- Adecreased heart rate and output.
- Bdecreased heart rate and mean arterial pressure.
- Cincreased heart rate and output.
- Dincreased heart rate and decreased mean arterial pressure.
40Tiletamine is sold only in combination with what other drug?
- ADiazepam
- BMidazolam
- CLorazepam
- DZolazepam
41Dissociatives exert their effects by acting upon:
- ANMDA receptors.
- Bβ-endorphin receptors.
- Cmu receptors.
- Ddelta receptors.
42Which noncontrolled dissociative, commonly used for large animal medicine, has no anesthetic or analgesic properties when used alone?
- AKetamine
- BGuaifenesin
- CTiletamine
- DTelazol
43The first clinically used inhalation anesthetic was:
- Achloroform.
- Bnitrous oxide.
- Cdiethyl ether.
- Dhalothane.
44The principal organ(s) involved in the elimination of halogenated compounds is(are):
- Abrain.
- Bliver
- Ckidneys
- Dlungs
45Halogenated compounds readily enter the brain due to what factor?
- AHigh lipid solubility
- BAlveoli partial pressure
- CConcentration gradient
- DDiffusion
46When halogenated agents are exposed to desiccated carbon dioxide absorbent, the results include:
- Acarbon dioxide production.
- Bcarbon monoxide production.
- Coxygen production.
- Dwater production.
47Decreased renal blood flow can be seen when using inhalation agents, secondary to which side effect?
- ADepressed ventilation
- BHypothermia
- CDepressed cardiovascular function
- DMuscle fasciculations
48Vapor pressure is best defined as:
- Athe amount of pressure exerted by the gaseous form of a substance when the gas and liquid states are in equilibrium.
- Bboth agent and temperature dependent.
- Chow readily the liquid condenses in the anesthetic machine.
- Dthe causative agent for use of a precision vaporizer.
49Which of the following is responsible for the speed of induction and recovery of a patient?
- AVapor pressure
- BBlood–gas partition coefficient
- CSponge effect
- DMAC
50During a surgical process, anesthetic agent Z (MAC = 1.3%) was delivered at a setting of 1.3%. Utilizing the theory of MAC, how many dogs out of ten would respond to painful stimuli?
- AThree dogs
- BFive dogs
- CSeven dogs
- DNone
51Isoflurane is labeled for use in:
- Aexotics.
- Bzoo animals.
- Ccats.
- Dhorses.
52Sevoflurane is labeled for use in:
- Aexotics
- Bzoo animals
- Ccats
- Ddogs
53Which of the following inhalant anesthetics are going to produce the fastest induction and recovery based on their blood–gas partition coefficient?
- ADesflurane/0.42
- BSevoflurane/0.68
- CIsoflurane/1.46
- DMethoxyflurane/15.0
54The primary reason for the use of nitrous oxide with other inhalant anesthetics is:
- Ait is gas at room temperature.
- Bit is easily administered with a flowmeter.
- Cit reduces MAC by 20% to 30%.
- Dit does not require a vaporizer.
55Doxapram is best categorized as an:
- Aalpha2-antagonist.
- Banaleptic agent.
- Calpha2-agonist.
- Dopioid antagonist.
Information
- Description
- Veterinary Medicine Quiz on Vet 201 Chapter 3 Anesthesiology Study Guide, created by Kelly Kinsinger on 11/10/2018.
- Author
- Kelly Kinsinger
- Language
- English
- Views
- 69
- Tags
- Rating
- 5.0 out of 5 · 1 rating Rate this quiz