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Antibiotics/Antifungals/Antivirals/Antimycobacterials/Anticancer

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Test about Antibiotics/Antifungals/Antivirals/Antimycobacterials/Anticancer
Diana Flores
Quiz by Diana Flores, updated more than 1 year ago
Diana Flores
Created by Diana Flores almost 9 years ago
135
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Resource summary

Question 1

Question
Which of the following is a correct description of Ludwig's Angina?
Answer
  • Caused by anaerobe infection
  • It occurs in children with concomitant dental infections
  • It is not life-threatneing
  • Caused by infection from bacteroids, staphylococci, and streptococci

Question 2

Question
Choose all the following that are mechanisms of select toxicity?
Answer
  • Inhibition of cell wall synthesis
  • Selective Inhibition
  • Suppression of DNA synthesis
  • Common targets
  • Unique drug targets
  • Alteration of cell membrane permeability

Question 3

Question
Which of the following is the correct definition of Anti-infective agents?
Answer
  • Natural or synthetic substances used to suppress growth or kill bacteria/ single cell organisms
  • Substances that act against or destroy infections (Fungal/Viral/Bacteria)
  • Substances that destroy or supress the growth or multiplcation of bacteria
  • Substances produced by bacteria that can destroy or suppress the growth or multiplication of bacteria or prevent the action of bacteria

Question 4

Question
What antibacterial is given for emergency treatment of Ludwig's Angina?
Answer
  • Penicillin V
  • Ampicillin
  • Penicillin G
  • Augmentin

Question 5

Question
Which of the following is the correct mechanism for how Polymyxins act as antibiotics?
Answer
  • Binds to ribosome 30s to prohibit protein synthesis
  • Disrupts the integrity of the baceterial cell wall by displacing calcium and magnesium
  • Inhibits the cross-linkages between the peptidoglycan polymer strands
  • Disrupts the integrity of the cell membrane by displacing calcium and magnesium

Question 6

Question
Antibiotics that bind to bacterial ribosomes inhibit what enzyme?
Answer
  • Transpeptidase
  • Peptidyl transferase
  • Beta lactamase
  • Transcriptase

Question 7

Question
How do sulfonamides prevent the further growth of bacteria?
Answer
  • They block conversion of PABA into dihydrofolic acid
  • They inhibit DNA gyrase and Topoismerase enzymes, preventing supercoiling
  • They inhibit peptidyl transferase, inhibiting binding of tRNA to mRNA
  • They bind to the dihydroflate reductase (DHFR) enzyme, thus preventing production of folic acid

Question 8

Question
Acquired resistance is when the bacteria has always been resistant due to inherent properties of the bacteria
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 9

Question
Which bacteria are susceptible to enzyme inactivation by beta lactamases?
Answer
  • Cephalosporins
  • Macrolides
  • Metronidazole
  • Tetracyclines

Question 10

Question
Which of the following is defines as a mobile genetic element which may be transferred from one organism to the other?
Answer
  • Bacteriophages
  • Integrons
  • Transposons
  • Plasmid

Question 11

Question
An integron is a genetic element that captures and disseminates genes through a gene cassette
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 12

Question
Which of the following is NOT an example of microbial resistance?
Answer
  • Enzymatic inactvation
  • Antibiotic antagonism or interactions
  • Insensitivity to apoptosis
  • Overproduction of target sites

Question 13

Question
Which of the following cancers do NOT have a high incidence of p53 mutations
Answer
  • Ovarian
  • Lung
  • Colon
  • Pancreatic

Question 14

Question
Which of the following is correct regarding superinfections?
Answer
  • More likely to occur with narrow spectrum antibiotics
  • Occurs with transfer of plasmids and transposons
  • They are easy to treat
  • May be opportunistic infections with viruses such as Candidda albicans and Histoplasmosis

Question 15

Question
When would chemoprophylaxis be used?
Answer
  • Used after surgery to prevent wound infections
  • Used after a potential expsoure
  • To prevent an oral infection after having a dental procedure
  • In immunocompromised patients to prevent reactivation of latent reactions

Question 16

Question
Penicillins are narrow spectrum drugs
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 17

Question
Select all of the bactericidal antibiotics
Answer
  • Macrolides
  • Pencillin
  • Metronidazole
  • Tetracycline
  • Cefadroxil
  • Cephalexin
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Clindamycin

Question 18

Question
Which of the following is NOT a cause for antibiotic failure?
Answer
  • Limited vascularity or blood flow to tissue
  • Blood concentration too low
  • Impaired host to immune system
  • Failure to activate the antibiotics

Question 19

Question
Which of the following antibacterials can cause a long QT syndrome?
Answer
  • Fluroquinolones
  • Sulfonamides
  • Penicillins
  • Cephalsporins

Question 20

Question
Which of the following antibacterials cause agranulocytosis?
Answer
  • Fluroquinolones
  • C. diff
  • Macrolides
  • Penicillins

Question 21

Question
Which of the following is NOT a concern of antibiotic use?
Answer
  • Stevens Johnsons
  • Superinfection
  • Teratology
  • Increased effects of oral contraceptives

Question 22

Question
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Penicillin G/Penicillin V?
Answer
  • One of these two can be used for treatment of Ludwig's Angina
  • Used for mixed aerobic-anerobic infections
  • Used for head, neck, and dental infections
  • These are all correct

Question 23

Question
Which of the following is the correct use of antistaphylococcal penicillins?
Answer
  • Skin and soft tissue infections
  • Broad spectrum Enterobacter
  • Klebsiella and enterocci
  • Ear, nose and throat, H. pylori

Question 24

Question
Which of the following is not an antistaphylococcal penicillin?
Answer
  • Amoxicillin
  • Methicillin
  • Nafcillin
  • These are all antistaphylococcal penicilllins

Question 25

Question
Augmentin contains an antistaphylococcal penicillin
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 26

Question
Penicillins work by inhibiting which enzyme?
Answer
  • Integrase
  • Peptidyl transferase
  • Transpeptidase
  • Transcriptase

Question 27

Question
Penicillin V is administered IV only?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 28

Question
Which of the following is NOT a possible adverse effect from peniciilins?
Answer
  • Allergy
  • Fungal overgrowth
  • Pseudomembraneous colitis
  • Oral lesions

Question 29

Question
Which of the following is a known drug reaction with use of penicillin?
Answer
  • Increase renal tubular secretion with use of probenecid
  • Inactivation with use of aminoglycosides
  • Disulfram-like reaction
  • Inhibits metabolism of anticoagulants, increasing risk of bleeding

Question 30

Question
Which of the following is true regarding aminopenicillins?
Answer
  • Resistant to beta lactamases
  • Narrow spectrum
  • Ampicillin has less side effects than amoxicillin
  • Effective against Neissseria gonorrhea and meningitidis

Question 31

Question
Select the following that are ineffective against beta lactamases:
Answer
  • Penicillin V
  • Penicillin G
  • Cloxacillin
  • Amoxicillin

Question 32

Question
Which of the following can be used to overcome resistant bacteria?
Answer
  • Cloxacillin
  • Amoxacillin
  • Clavulanic acid
  • Ampicillin

Question 33

Question
Which of the following is true regarding penicillins and beta-lactamase inhibitors?
Answer
  • Amoxicillin has a molecular structure similar to beta lactam, thus prevents inactivation by beta lactamase
  • They are ineffective against Salmonella related infections
  • They are used in immunocompromised patients with mixed infections
  • They are effective against Klebsiella bacteria

Question 34

Question
Which of the following best represents first generation cephalosporins?
Answer
  • Includes Cefotaxime and Ceftriaxone
  • Used for UTI and soft tissue abscesses
  • Effective against Klebsiella and H influenza
  • Used for treatment of community-acquired pneumonia

Question 35

Question
Which of the following best describes generation 2 cephalosporins
Answer
  • Drug of choice for surgical prophylaxis
  • Used to treat Meningitis
  • Includes the drug Cefuroxime
  • Includes the drug Cefepime

Question 36

Question
Which of the following best describes generation 3 cephalosporins?
Answer
  • They have resistance to beta lacmases
  • Hightly active against P aeruginosa
  • Not approved for treatment of meningitis
  • Best for any H influenza infection

Question 37

Question
Which of the following best describes fourth generation cephalosporins?
Answer
  • It is used for meningitis
  • It includes the drug ceftaroline
  • It is active against Neisseria
  • Can be used for MRSA

Question 38

Question
Ceftaroline is active against MDR staph aureus, MRSA, and VRSA
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 39

Question
Protein synthesis inhibitors are considered narrow spectrum antibiotics
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 40

Question
Tetracyclines are broad spectrum antibiotics
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 41

Question
Which of the following best matches the mechanism of tetracyclines?
Answer
  • Inhibition of beta 1-3 glycan of bacterial cell wall, preventing cross-linkages
  • Becomes mechanically reduced to a toxic metabolite, interacting with DNA
  • Binds to 50s subunit, preventing binding of tRNA to mRNA
  • Binds to 30s subunit, preventing binding of tRNA to mRNA

Question 42

Question
Which of the following are targeted by tetracyclines
Answer
  • Rickettsia
  • Chlamydia
  • Gram positive bacteria
  • All are targeted by tetracyclines

Question 43

Question
Which of the following is NOT a concern of tetracyclines?
Answer
  • Kills flora
  • Neutropenia
  • Impairs absorption of antacids
  • Damages development of bones and teeth

Question 44

Question
Which of the following is incorrect regarding macrolides?
Answer
  • Broad spectrum
  • Kills Treponema pallidum
  • Used as an alternative for patients allergic penicillins
  • Can be bacteriostatic or bacteriocidal, depending on dose

Question 45

Question
What makes Telithromycin so special?
Answer
  • It can be used for MRSA
  • It can cause Fanconi's syndrome if taken when it is expired
  • It can bind to ribosome 23s, which makes it unique
  • Can be used in cases when other macrolides cause fulminant hepatic necrosis

Question 46

Question
Which of the following is incorrect regarding Chloramphenicol?
Answer
  • It is bacteriostatic
  • Binds to 23s ribosome
  • Can be toxic due to inhibiting mitochondrial protein synthesis
  • Can be used for Neisseria gonorrhea

Question 47

Question
Chloramphenicol can cause gray baby syndrome
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 48

Question
Which of the following is NOT a use for Clindamycin?
Answer
  • Pseudomembranous colitis
  • Skina nd soft tissue infections
  • Septic abrotion
  • Prophylaxis of infective endocarditis

Question 49

Question
Which of the following is NOT a concern for use of Clindamycin?
Answer
  • Fungal overgrowth
  • Thrombocytopenia
  • Pseudomembranous colitis
  • Fulminant hepatic necrosis

Question 50

Question
Which of the following is NOT a risk factor for pseudomembranous colitis?
Answer
  • Elderly
  • Sulfonamides
  • Ampicillin
  • Erhythromycin

Question 51

Question
Choose all of the following that are part of treatment of pseudomembranous colitis?
Answer
  • Start on Vancomycin IV
  • Hydration
  • Start on clotrimazole
  • Start of Metronidazole
  • Stop all antibiotics
  • Start on Vancomycin oral

Question 52

Question
What is the clinical use of sulfonamides?
Answer
  • Skin infections
  • UTI
  • Alternative for patients allergic to Penicillins
  • Pseudomembranous colitis

Question 53

Question
Sulfonamide is a structural analog of DFHR
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 54

Question
Which of the following causes Steven-Johnson syndrome?
Answer
  • Sulfonamides
  • Penicillins
  • Macrolides
  • Tetracyclines

Question 55

Question
Sulfonamides can cause which of the following adverse effects?
Answer
  • Renal damage from crystalluria
  • Prolonged QT syndrome
  • Pseudomembranous Colitis
  • Neutropenia

Question 56

Question
Which of the following is NOT another name for trimethoprim?
Answer
  • Co-trimoxazole
  • Bactrim
  • Clotrimazole
  • Septra

Question 57

Question
Which best describes the mechanism of trimethoprim?
Answer
  • Structural analog of PABA
  • Binds to mammalian DHFR
  • Structural analog of bacterial DHFR
  • Binds to bacterial DHFR

Question 58

Question
Which of the following antibiotics are best known to be used for acne?
Answer
  • Tetracyclines
  • Sulfonamides
  • Macrolides
  • Penicillins

Question 59

Question
Clotrimazole can be used for UTI?
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 60

Question
Metronidazole is used for the treatment of amoebic liver abscesss
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 61

Question
How do fluoroquinolones kill bacteria?
Answer
  • They are chemically reduced to a toxic metabolite which interacts with DNA, resulting in loss of helical structure and essentially cell death
  • They bind to bacterial ribosomes 30s
  • They inhibit transpeptidases
  • They compromise the integrity of the bacterial cell membrane

Question 62

Question
Which of the following do metronidazoles NOT attack?
Answer
  • Gram positive
  • Anaerobes
  • Gram negative
  • Aerobes

Question 63

Question
Which of the following is not a drug interaction of metronidazole?
Answer
  • Phenytoin toxicity
  • Disulfram reactions
  • Failure of oral contraceptives
  • Inhibition of anticoagulant metabolism

Question 64

Question
Sharp metallic taste is one of many adverse effects of sulfonamides
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 65

Question
Which best describes the mechanism of action of fluroquinolones?
Answer
  • Binding to bacterial ribosome 50s
  • Inhibits DNA gyrase, preventing supercoiling and stopping DNA replication
  • Inhibits transcriptase, preventing supercoiling and stopping DNA replication
  • Chemically reduced to a toxic metabolite, interacting with DNA and essentially causing cell death

Question 66

Question
The causes of resistance in fluoroquinolones are alteration in DNA gyrase and decreased permeability
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 67

Question
Which of the following bacteria could cause cartilage damage in children?
Answer
  • Ciprofloxacin
  • Clindamycin
  • Cefepime
  • Aminoglycosides

Question 68

Question
Ciprofloxacin is an extended spectrum drug
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 69

Question
Which of the following is true about vancomycin?
Answer
  • Given by quick infusion for serious systemic infections
  • May be used where resistance to macrolides has developed in bacterial strains
  • Inhibits transpeptidase
  • It is not absorbed by the GI

Question 70

Question
Which of the following can cause Red Man Syndrome?
Answer
  • Penicillin
  • Erythromycin
  • Vancomycin
  • Sulfamethoxazole

Question 71

Question
Which of the following is NOT true regarding aminoglycosides?
Answer
  • Can be used for the treatment of sepsis
  • Same spectrum as fluroquinolones
  • Given only PO
  • Drug monitoring is required

Question 72

Question
Which of the following is NOT side effect of drugs such as gentamicin, tobramycin, and amikacin?
Answer
  • Reversible renal toxicity
  • Irreversible vestibular toxicity
  • Neuromuscular blockade
  • Adding furoseminde can decrease risk of renal damage

Question 73

Question
Which of the following would you want to avoid giving prior to a surgical procedure?
Answer
  • Cephalexin
  • Clindamycin
  • Tobramycin

Question 74

Question
You would want to give Vancomycin PO q12h for MRSA
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 75

Question
VRE infects immunocompromised patients
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 76

Question
Which of the following cannot be used for treatment of MRSA?
Answer
  • Linezolid
  • Ceftaroline
  • Streptogramins
  • Vancomycin

Question 77

Question
MRSA is resistant to ALL penicillins and cephalosporins
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 78

Question
What are mechanisms of genetic transfer that are related to superinfections?
Answer
  • Bacteriophages
  • Integrons
  • Transposon
  • Plasmid

Question 79

Question
Which of the following best describes amphotericin B?
Answer
  • Used only as topical therapy
  • Dose adjustment required and dose limited to 6 months
  • A polyene antifungal that binds to ergosterol in fungal cell membranes
  • Binds to bacterial RNA polymerase enzyme and inhibits RNA synthesis

Question 80

Question
Amphotericin B is used to only treat progressive and potentially fatal systemic infections due to its severe adverse effects
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 81

Question
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Amphotericin B?
Answer
  • Infusion-related reactions
  • Fever
  • Mild elevation in liver enzymes
  • Nephrotoxicity

Question 82

Question
Which of the following does NOT increase risk of nephrotoxicity
Answer
  • Aminoglycosides
  • Amphoterecin B
  • Cisplatin
  • Macrolides

Question 83

Question
Nystatin is not related to Amphoterecin B and can therefore be used systemically
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 84

Question
What type of fungal infection does nystatin treat?
Answer
  • Cryptococcal meningitis
  • Candida infections
  • Histoplasmosis
  • Asperillosis

Question 85

Question
What do you want to avoid taking with azole antifungals?
Answer
  • Antacids
  • Echinocandins
  • Calcium
  • Milk

Question 86

Question
Fluconazole is a prodrug
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 87

Question
Choose all of the traizoles
Answer
  • Ketoconazole
  • Itraconazole
  • Fluconazole
  • Voriconazole
  • Miconazole
  • Clotrimazole

Question 88

Question
Which is the correct mechanism of azoles?
Answer
  • Disrupts microtubule function and inhibits dermatophyte growth
  • Binds to membrane Ergosterol
  • Inhibits viral DNA polymerase
  • Inhibits the lanosterol 14 alpha enzyme, preventing the conversion of lanosterol to ergosterol and disrupts the struction of fungal membrane

Question 89

Question
Which of the following is NOT an adverse effect of Azoles?
Answer
  • Steven Johnson
  • Increased levels of warfarin
  • Decreased fluconazole levels wiht isoniazid
  • Nephrotoxicity

Question 90

Question
Which of the following are used in hematopoietic stem cell transplatation patients?
Answer
  • Fluconazole
  • Itraconazole
  • Echinocandins
  • Isoniazid

Question 91

Question
Which of the following antifungals are used to disrupt microtubule function?
Answer
  • Terbinafine
  • Griseofulvin
  • Echinocandins
  • Ketoconazole

Question 92

Question
Which of the following antifungals is used for onychomychosis and tinea?
Answer
  • Griseofulvin
  • Terbinafine
  • Echinocandins
  • Ketoconazole

Question 93

Question
What is the difference between NRTIs and NNRTIs?
Answer
  • NRTIs inhibit viral DNA relication by binding to reverse transcriptase and inhibit DNA polymerase and NNRTIs act as chain terminators and imtate nucleotides
  • NNRTIs inhibit viral DNA relication by binding to reverse transcriptase and inhibit DNA polymerase and NRTIs act as chain terminators and imtate nucleotides
  • NRTIs interact with ohter drugs metabolized by CYP450 enzyme
  • NRTIs cause Stevens Johnson syndrome

Question 94

Question
NRTIs have mitochondrial toxicity
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 95

Question
Which of the following is an adverse effect of NRTIs?
Answer
  • Steven Johnson Syndrome
  • Cushing-like syndrome
  • Local injection site reactions
  • Lactic acidosis

Question 96

Question
NRTIs cause Steven Johnson syndrome
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 97

Question
Which of the following is not a protease inhibitor?
Answer
  • Saquinavir
  • Retrovir
  • Ritonavir
  • Indinavir

Question 98

Question
Which of the following is the correct drug regimen for post-exposure prophylaxis?
Answer
  • Retrovir + Epivir + Kaletra
  • Ritonavir + Epivir
  • 2 NNTis with an NNRTI or a Ritonavir or Integrase
  • Raltegravir + Integrase

Question 99

Question
How do enfuvirtides work?
Answer
  • They incorporate into the growing DNA and inhibit chain formation
  • Blocks protease
  • Inhibit DNA polymerase
  • Blocks entry of the virus into the cell by preventing conformational change

Question 100

Question
Which of the following is an integrase inhibitor?
Answer
  • Retrovir
  • Raltegravir
  • Indinavir
  • Lopinavir

Question 101

Question
TNX-355 is used to prevent virus maturation
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 102

Question
When should Antiretroviral therapy be started?
Answer
  • When CD4 count is less than 200
  • In HIV patient who is pregnant
  • With Hepatits B virus coinfection
  • These are all reasons to start therapy

Question 103

Question
Efavirenz is the recommended drug for HIV therapy in pregnant women
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 104

Question
Choose the drugs that are part of HAART?
Answer
  • 2NRTIs
  • NNRTIs
  • Ritonavir
  • Integrase
  • Enfuvirtide
  • Befirimat
  • TNX-355
  • Acyclovir
  • Famciclovir

Question 105

Question
Which antiviral drug prevents formation of DNA chain by inhibiting viral DNA synthesis?
Answer
  • Acyclovir
  • Ganciclovir
  • Raltegravir
  • Retrovir

Question 106

Question
Ganciclovir causes myelosuppression
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 107

Question
Which of the following is used for prophylaxis of TB
Answer
  • Rifampin
  • Isoniazid
  • Streptomycin
  • Ethambutol

Question 108

Question
Which of the following is true about isoniazid?
Answer
  • It is not readily absorbed by the GIT
  • It is metabolized by CYP450 enzyme, therefore having many drug interactions
  • Inhibits synthesis of Mycolic acid
  • Structurally distinct from pyridoxine, therefore causing peripheral neuropathy

Question 109

Question
Choose which of the following drugs are administered with isoniazid for treatment?
Answer
  • Rifampin
  • Ethambutol
  • Retrovir
  • Acyclovir

Question 110

Question
Rifampin is a "true" antibiotic
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 111

Question
Which of the following is NOT true regarding Rifampin?
Answer
  • Gives a harmless orange color to all bodilly secretions
  • Can cause cholestatic jaundice
  • Used for prophylaxis
  • Binds to bacterial RNA polymerase enzyme and inhibits RNA synthesis

Question 112

Question
Mr. Smith works as an airline pilot and was found to have TB. Which drug would you NOT want to give him, due to its effects on visual acuity and color discrimination?
Answer
  • Isoniazid
  • Rifampin
  • Ethambutol
  • Streptomycin

Question 113

Question
Which of the following drugs is given for prophylaxis and cure of malaria?
Answer
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Quinolones
  • Albendazole
  • Chloroquine

Question 114

Question
Which of the following are concerns with the use of Antimalarials?
Answer
  • Hemolysis in G6Pd deficient individuals
  • Orange color of bodily secretions
  • Nephrotoxicity
  • Hepatitis

Question 115

Question
Which of the following is NOT a concern of antimalrials with long term drug dosing?
Answer
  • Retinopathy
  • Ototoxicity
  • Irreversible neuropathy
  • Nephrotoxicity

Question 116

Question
Epstein-Barr virus can cause nasopharyngeal cancer
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 117

Question
Which of the following cause Hodgkins/Non-Hodgkins?
Answer
  • Hepatitis B
  • HIV
  • HPV
  • Epstein-Barr virus

Question 118

Question
Which of the following is part of treatment for advanced disease?
Answer
  • Surgery
  • Radiation
  • Chemotherapy
  • All of these are part of advanced disease treatment

Question 119

Question
Which of the following NOT consistent with primary resistance in regards to cancer drugs?
Answer
  • No response with drug therapy
  • Blamed on loss of p53 tumor suppressor gene
  • Common in malignant melanoma
  • Increased expression of MDR1 gene

Question 120

Question
How do alkylating agents cause cell death in cancer drugs?
Answer
  • They transfer their alkyl groups to DNA within the nucleus
  • They can inhibit protein chains and DNA strand breakage by carbamoylation
  • React chemically with sulfydryl, amino,hydroxyl and phosphate groups
  • All of the above

Question 121

Question
Which of the following causes hemorrhagic cystitis?
Answer
  • Cyclophosphamide
  • Cisplatin
  • Vincristine
  • Mitomycin

Question 122

Question
Which of the following causes myelosuppression?
Answer
  • Methotrexate
  • Vinblastine
  • Mitomycin
  • All of the above

Question 123

Question
Which of the following cause mucositis?
Answer
  • Chlorambucil
  • Vinorelbine
  • 5-flurouracil
  • None of the above

Question 124

Question
Which of the following cause neutropenia?
Answer
  • Methotrexate
  • 5-flurouracil
  • Mitomycin
  • Cisplatin

Question 125

Question
Which of the following causes SIADH?
Answer
  • Methotrexate
  • Vinblastine
  • Cyclophospamide
  • None of the above

Question 126

Question
Methotrexate has a similar mechanism to what other drug?
Answer
  • Sulfonamides
  • Trimethoprim
  • Fluoroquinolones
  • Penicillins

Question 127

Question
Which of the following drugs does NOT inhibit renal excretion of methotrexate?
Answer
  • Penicillin
  • Cephalosporins
  • Aspirin
  • All of these inhibit renal excretion of methotrexate

Question 128

Question
Imatinib prevents phosphorylation of the cell kinase substrates by ATP
Answer
  • True
  • False

Question 129

Question
Cetuximab works against which enzyme to suppress cancer growth?
Answer
  • EGFR
  • Transcriptase
  • Transpeptidase
  • DNA polymerase

Question 130

Question
Retinoic acid is used to treat childhood ALL
Answer
  • True
  • False
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